MAK LABS — CTET 1 March 2026 Paper I (Classes I to V) Question Paper with Answer Key

1.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): At any age, the teacher should focus on what the child cannot do rather than what they can do with help or support.
Reason (R): Lev Vygotsky proposed that learning should include only those behaviours that the child can do independently.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true, but (R) false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Both statements invert Vygotsky. He argued the teacher should look at what the child can do with support — the zone of proximal development — not at deficits alone, so (A) is false. And he placed learning ahead of independent performance, inside that zone, so (R) is false as well.

2.Which of the following statements about gifted children is correct?

(1) Gifted children have superior academic, social as well as emotional skills.
(2) Gifted children excel in all areas of academics as well as in extra-curricular activities.
(3) Gifted children have a high degree of mental ability in specific domain of knowledge.
(4) Gifted children come up with novel and original solutions to given problems.

Why: Giftedness is domain-specific: a child may be exceptional in mathematics or music and quite ordinary elsewhere. The other options describe the popular myth of all-round superiority. Option 4 describes creativity, which overlaps with giftedness but does not define it.

3.At which level of Kohlberg’s moral reasoning, children typically do not fully understand rules set down by others and society?

(1) Post-operational level
(2) Pre-conventional level
(3) Conventional level
(4) Pre-operational level

Why: At the pre-conventional level the child judges an act by its consequences — punishment or reward — rather than by any grasp of social rules. Understanding and upholding those rules comes later, at the conventional level. Pre-operational and post-operational belong to Piaget, not Kohlberg.

4.What should be the purposes of assessement?
(i) To analyze students’ responses to find out what they know and understand
(ii) To identify gaps in knowledge
(iii) To identify effective learning activities
(iv) To assign comparative marks to students
Choose the correct option:

(1) (ii) (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (i) (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) (iii) and (iv)

Why: The first three are all uses of assessment for learning — they feed back into teaching. Ranking children against one another, (iv), turns assessment into a sorting device and is exactly what the NCF asks teachers to move away from.

5.According to Lev Vygotsky’s theory, what is meant by the term ‘scaffolding’?

(1) A resource material that aids in better recall of concepts.
(2) A measurement tool used to assess a student’s cognitive development.
(3) A metaphorical term for when students are left to learn on their own.
(4) A strategy in which a more knowledgeable person provides support and guidance to help a less knowledgeable person learn a new skill or concept.

Why: Scaffolding is the temporary support a more knowledgeable other gives inside the zone of proximal development, withdrawn as the learner takes over. Option 3 is its opposite — unaided discovery.

6.Which of the following factors contribute to growth and development during early childhood?
(i) Cultural practices
(ii) Nutrition
(iii) Play opportunities
(iv) Quality of education
Choose the correct option:

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(3) (i) and (ii) only
(4) (ii) and (iii) only

Why: Development in the early years is multi-determined. Culture shapes what a child is expected to do, nutrition sets the biological ceiling, play drives cognitive and social learning, and the quality of the setting shapes all three. None of the four can be dropped.

7.Children demonstrate ___________ when they add the new schema for recognizing ‘horses’ to their other systems for identifying animals.

(1) Scaffolding
(2) Accommodation
(3) Metacognition
(4) Assimilation

Why: A new schema is being built and slotted into the existing structure, which is accommodation. Assimilation would mean squeezing the horse into a schema the child already has — calling it a big dog, say.

8.Lev Vygotsky’s theory has been criticized for:

(1) Considering prominence of emotional factors in forming motivation for learning.
(2) Emphasizing biological influences in the process of development at the expense of socio-cultural factors.
(3) Giving importance to students instead of teachers in the process of learning.
(4) Overlooking the role of genetics and biology in the course of learning.

Why: The standard criticism is that Vygotsky leaned so far into the social and cultural that maturation and biology got too little room. Option 2 states the charge backwards — that is the criticism made of Piaget and of maturational theorists.

9.Growth of the body and brain, sensory capabilities and motor skills are a part of:

(1) Sensory motor development
(2) Physical development
(3) Cognitive development
(4) Social development

Why: All four things listed are bodily — size, brain growth, the senses, movement — which together make up the physical domain. Sensory-motor is Piaget’s name for a stage, not a domain of development.

10.The processes of problem-solving are hindered by:

(1) Use of algorithms
(2) Heuristics
(3) Functional fixedness
(4) Analogical thinking

Why: Functional fixedness is the block that stops a person seeing an object used in any way other than its usual one — a brick as a brick, never as a paperweight. The other three are aids to solving problems, not obstacles.

11.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Self-regulation and impulse control should be a vital component of school curriculum.
Reason (R): Socio-emotional skills help students to regulate their own learning.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Why: Both statements are sound, and the second gives the reason for the first: because socio-emotional skills let children manage their own learning, building them into the curriculum is worth doing.

12.Which of the following age-group corresponds to middle childhood?

(1) 6 – 11 years
(2) 12 – 16 years
(3) 3 – 5 years
(4) Birth to 2 years

Why: Middle childhood runs roughly from six to eleven — the primary school years. Three to five is early childhood, twelve to sixteen adolescence, and the first two years infancy.

13.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): To ensure assessment for learning, teacher-made tasks should be included for providing feedback to support student learning rather than the use of standardised outcome performances.
Reason (R): Standardized tests are more aligned with the assessment of learning rather than assessment for learning.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) (A) is true, but (R) false.

Why: [KEY] The Board’s final key marks (A) true and (R) false. (A) is straightforward: teacher-made tasks carry feedback, which is what assessment for learning needs. Many teachers would call (R) true as well, and so read the answer as option 1 — but the official key does not, and the key is what counts for scoring.

14.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Children’s development is a direct result of unfolding of genetic codes.
Reason (R): Childhood is a natural biological stage of development.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is true, but (R) false.

Why: Development is not genes unfolding on their own — it is the constant interaction of heredity with context, so (A) is false. And childhood is not a purely biological given either; what counts as childhood, and what children are expected to do, varies across cultures and periods, so (R) is false too.

15.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Teachers should not associate learning with strict discipline because children do not learn effectively in an environment of fear and stress.
Reason (R): Early childhood is a sensitive period for the development of language.

(1) (A) is true, but (R) false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Each statement is true on its own, but they are about different things. Fear blocking learning has nothing to do with early childhood being a sensitive period for language, so (R) cannot explain (A).

16.Learned patterns of culturally approved masculine and feminine behaviours are referred to as ‘Gender ____________’.

(1) stereotypes
(2) roles
(3) bias
(4) constancy

Why: Gender roles are the behaviours a culture treats as appropriate for each sex and that children learn from those around them. Stereotypes are the fixed beliefs about those roles, bias is acting on them unfairly, and constancy is the child’s realisation that gender does not change with clothes or haircut.

17.How should a teacher deal with students who are distracted in her class?

(1) Offer material rewards for every class that they are attentive in
(2) Give them severe punishment
(3) Call the parents and threaten to give severe punishment to the children
(4) Divide the class into manageable groups and let them learn cooperatively

Why: Smaller cooperative groups give each child something to do and someone to do it with, which is what holds attention. Punishment and threats suppress behaviour briefly at the cost of the child’s relationship with school, and material rewards shift the motivation outside the learning itself.

18.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Teachers in middle classes often have different expectations from boys and girls.
Reason (R): Beliefs about ‘sex’ differences inform stereotypes, which often leads to just two labels — boys and girls.

(1) (A) is true, but (R) false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Teachers do hold differing expectations of boys and girls, and the reason given is precisely why: beliefs about sex differences harden into stereotypes that sort every child into one of two boxes, and expectations follow the box.

19.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Inclusion incorporates acceptance of differences and ensuring that all forms of exclusion are removed.
Reason (R): Diversity should be valued rather than looking at it as an obstacle.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) (A) is true, but (R) false.

Why: Both are true, and the second is the ground of the first: it is because diversity is treated as a resource rather than a problem that inclusion means accepting difference and dismantling exclusion.

20.In order to nurture critical thinking skills among students, a teacher should design and deliver activities which demand:
(i) Logical reasoning and analysis.
(ii) Mere retrieval of previously learnt concepts.
(iii) Rote rehearsal and memorization.
(iv) Synthesis and evaluation of information.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (ii) and (iv)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (ii)

Why: Critical thinking sits at the analysing, synthesising and evaluating end of the scale, so (i) and (iv) qualify. Retrieval and rote rehearsal are the lowest rungs — useful, but they make no demand on judgement.

21.According to Jean Piaget, intelligence is the ability to make changes in __________, the basic building blocks for learning.

(1) Concepts
(2) Cognitive maps
(3) Schemas
(4) Associations

Why: Schemas are Piaget’s unit of knowledge, and intelligence for him is the ongoing adjustment of them through assimilation and accommodation. Cognitive maps come from Tolman and associations from behaviourism.

22.A constructivist classroom implies:

(1) Focus on reproduction of knowledge.
(2) Viewing learning as a passive process.
(3) Using multiple pedagogical strategies.
(4) Emphasis on the role of teacher as an instructor.

Why: If children build understanding in different ways, one method cannot serve them all, so a constructivist teacher works with several. The other three options describe the transmission classroom constructivism is defined against.

23.Dyslexia is a ___________.

(1) Developmental writing disorder
(2) Developmental reading disorder
(3) Developmental motor disorder
(4) Developmental autoimmune disorder

Why: Dyslexia affects the accurate and fluent reading of words. The writing equivalent is dysgraphia and the motor one is dyspraxia.

24.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Effective teaching involves presenting information to students in an organized manner and provide opportunities for discussion.
Reason (R): Learning is primarily a process of memorization and reproduction of information.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Organised presentation plus room for discussion is good teaching, so (A) stands. But (R) reduces learning to memorising and giving back, which is the view constructivism displaced — and it sits oddly with the discussion (A) itself calls for.

25.Which of the following is an effective teaching strategy for children with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder?

(1) Scheduling long and non-stop lectures
(2) Providing constant critical verbal feedback
(3) Giving tasks that require multi-tasking
(4) Using visual aids and hands-on activities

Why: Visual support and activity that involves the hands hold attention in short, concrete bursts, which is what a child with ADHD can sustain. Long lectures, constant criticism and multi-tasking all press on precisely the weak point.

26.Early symptoms of cerebral palsy can be identified by long delay in _____________.

(1) understanding and comprehension
(2) fine motor and gross motor skills
(3) reading and writing
(4) visual recognition of objects

Why: Cerebral palsy is a disorder of movement and posture, so the earliest signs are motor — late head control, sitting, crawling or walking, and difficulty with the small movements of the hands. Reading and writing come far too late to be early signs.

27.Development of children is:

(1) accurately predictable
(2) a simple unitary process
(3) disorderly and erratic
(4) a unified process

Why: The domains — physical, cognitive, social, emotional — move together and influence one another, which makes development unified without being simple. It follows a broad sequence, so it is not erratic, but individual variation makes it far from exactly predictable.

28.In Jean Piaget’s theory, intelligence is about the development of:

(1) Ability to use cultural tools
(2) Control over one’s basic instincts
(3) Emotional maturity
(4) Cognitive schemas

Why: For Piaget, growing intelligence is the building and reorganising of cognitive schemas. Cultural tools are Vygotsky’s, and control over instincts is Freud’s.

29.Which of the following order of presenting the concepts favours effective learning?

(1) Known to unknown
(2) Complex to simple
(3) Iconic to symbolic
(4) Abstract to concrete

Why: [KEY] The Board’s final key gives ‘iconic to symbolic’, following Bruner: a child works with images before handling symbols such as numerals and letters. ‘Known to unknown’ is the more familiar maxim and many teachers would pick option 1, but it is not what the key records. The remaining two options are both stated backwards.

30.Constructivist approaches of knowledge construction encourage students to:

(1) Rote-memorize the content.
(2) Interact and collaborate with peers.
(3) Follow singular way of solving a problem.
(4) Cast-off their cultural understandings.

Why: Knowledge is built in company — through talk, argument and joint work with peers. Rote learning, a single permitted method and discarding what a child brings from home all pull against that.

31.What is the sum of the next two numbers in the following pattern?
13, 17, 19, 23, 29, ____, ____

(1) 68
(2) 71
(3) 69
(4) 67

Why: The pattern is not built on a common difference — the gaps run 4, 2, 4, 6. These are consecutive prime numbers starting at 13. The next two primes after 29 are 31 and 37, and 31 + 37 = 68.

32.In Δ ABC, sides BC and BA are produced to D and E, respectively. If ∠ ACD = 120° and ∠ CAE = 130°, then what is the measure of ∠ ABC?

(1) 65°
(2) 70°
(3) 75°
(4) 80°

Why: Each given angle is an exterior angle, and an exterior angle equals the sum of the two remote interior angles. So ∠A + ∠B = 120° and ∠B + ∠C = 130°. The second gives ∠A = 180° − 130° = 50°, and substituting into the first leaves ∠B = 120° − 50° = 70°.

33.If 1001 × 121 = 11 × 12111 − 275 × ___________, then what is the number at the blank space?

(1) 42
(2) 88
(3) 44
(4) 22

Why: Work out both known products: 1001 × 121 = 121121 and 11 × 12111 = 133221. The blank must account for the gap, so 275 × ? = 133221 − 121121 = 12100, giving 12100 ÷ 275 = 44.

34.If 3024 = p⁴ × q³ × r, where p, q and r are prime numbers, then what is the value of (3p − 5q + r)?

(1) − 4
(2) − 2
(3) 0
(4) 2

Why: Factorising, 3024 = 2⁴ × 3³ × 7, so p = 2, q = 3 and r = 7. Then 3p − 5q + r = 6 − 15 + 7 = −2.

35.If the number of faces and edges of a polyhedron is 5 and 8 respectively, then the number of its vertices is:

(1) 8
(2) 5
(3) 10
(4) 15

Why: Apply Euler’s formula for polyhedra, F + V − E = 2. Substituting, 5 + V − 8 = 2, so V = 5.

36.If 112 ones + 12 thousands − 11012 = □ × 25, then the number in the place of □ is:

(1) 54
(2) 42
(3) 52
(4) 44

Why: 112 ones is 112 and 12 thousands is 12000, so the left side becomes 112 + 12000 − 11012 = 1100. Dividing, 1100 ÷ 25 = 44.

37.The LCM of 21, 36, and 66 is not a multiple of:

(1) 42
(2) 28
(3) 72
(4) 44

Why: The prime factorisations are 21 = 3 × 7, 36 = 2² × 3² and 66 = 2 × 3 × 11, giving an LCM of 2² × 3² × 7 × 11 = 2772. Since 72 needs 2³ and the LCM carries only 2², it cannot divide 2772. The other three all do.

38.The cost of 8 pens is ₹ 116 and the cost of 15 pencils is ₹ 67·50. Surbhi has one ₹ 200 note. If she buys 6 pens and 8 pencils, then how many rupees are left with her?

(1) ₹ 70
(2) ₹ 77
(3) ₹ 80
(4) ₹ 74

Why: One pen costs 116 ÷ 8 = ₹14·50 and one pencil costs 67·50 ÷ 15 = ₹4·50. Six pens come to ₹87 and eight pencils to ₹36, a total of ₹123. So 200 − 123 = ₹77 remains.

39.The internal length, breadth and height of a rectangular box are 12 cm, 10 cm and 7 cm, respectively. How many such boxes are needed to pack 6720 centimetre cubes?

(1) 7
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 8

Why: Each box holds 12 × 10 × 7 = 840 cubic centimetres, so it takes 840 one-centimetre cubes. Dividing, 6720 ÷ 840 = 8 boxes.

40.Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) Sum of two acute angles can be equal to a straight angle.
(2) Sum of two acute angles can be equal to a right angle.
(3) Sum of two acute angles can be equal to an obtuse angle.
(4) Sum of an acute angle and an obtuse angle can be equal to a straight angle.

Why: An acute angle is less than 90°, so two of them must total less than 180° and can never make a straight angle. The others all work: 30° + 60° = 90°, 50° + 60° = 110°, and 30° + 150° = 180°.

41.Ravi gives one-fourth of a pizza to Sonu and one-third of the remaining pizza to Priya. He then distributes the remaining pizza equally to Anu, Bobby and Cheema. What fraction of the whole pizza does Cheema get?

(1) ¹⁄₆
(2) ¹⁄₁₂
(3) ¹⁄₉
(4) ⁵⁄₃₆

Why: After Sonu takes one-fourth, three-fourths is left. Priya gets one-third of that, which is one-fourth of the whole, leaving one-half. Splitting one-half three ways gives each of Anu, Bobby and Cheema one-sixth. The trap is reading “one-third of the remaining” as one-third of the whole.

The following table shows the number of students in School ABC, present on different days of a week. Study the table and answer the question:

Days	Number of students present
Monday	382
Tuesday	390
Wednesday	405
Thursday	411
Friday	388

42.The total number of students present on Tuesday and Thursday exceeds the total number of students present on Monday and Friday by:

(1) 37
(2) 31
(3) 32
(4) 33

Why: Tuesday and Thursday together give 390 + 411 = 801. Monday and Friday give 382 + 388 = 770. The excess is 801 − 770 = 31. Wednesday is not needed and is there to distract.

43.The difference between the remainder obtained on dividing 2002 by 101 and dividing 2201 by 102 lies between:

(1) 25 and 30
(2) 20 and 25
(3) 15 and 20
(4) 30 and 35

Why: Since 101 × 19 = 1919, dividing 2002 by 101 leaves 83. Since 102 × 21 = 2142, dividing 2201 by 102 leaves 59. The difference is 83 − 59 = 24, which falls between 20 and 25.

44.The weight of 20 laddoos is 1 kg. If 8 laddoos can be packed in one box, then how many boxes are required to pack 50 kg laddoos?

(1) 150
(2) 100
(3) 120
(4) 125

Why: At 20 laddoos to the kilogram, 50 kg holds 20 × 50 = 1000 laddoos. Packing 8 to a box needs 1000 ÷ 8 = 125 boxes.

45.Which of the following statements is/are true?
(i) The number of minutes in 6 days is equal to number of seconds in 2²⁄₅ hours.
(ii) The number of minutes in 10 days is equal to the number of minutes in 120 hours.
(iii) The number of seconds in 2 hours is equal to the number of minutes in 5 days.
(iv) The number of hours in 5 days is equal to the number of seconds in 2 minutes.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (iii) only
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i) and (iii) only
(4) (ii) and (iii) only

Why: Check each: 6 days is 8640 minutes and 2²⁄₅ hours is 2·4 × 3600 = 8640 seconds, so (i) holds. 10 days is 14400 minutes but 120 hours is only 7200 minutes, so (ii) fails. 2 hours is 7200 seconds and 5 days is 7200 minutes, so (iii) holds. 5 days is 120 hours and 2 minutes is 120 seconds, so (iv) holds.

A primary class mathematics teacher gave his students the following problem to solve:
“If the price of one toy car is ₹ 50, then what would be the cost of 25 such toy cars?”
One of the students responded, “Ten cars will be ₹ 500; twenty cars will be ₹ 1,000; five cars will be ₹ 250; so the total cost is ₹ 1,250.”

46.What are the heuristics used by the student in the above algorithm?

(1) The commutative law of addition
(2) Decomposition and associative law
(3) Decomposition and repeated groupings
(4) The associative law of multipliation

Why: The child broke 25 into manageable parts — that is decomposition — and built each part by grouping tens and fives rather than multiplying directly. No formal law of association or commutation is being applied; the strategy is informal grouping.

47.‘Each prime number has only two factors.’ Which method is most appropriate to be followed to prove it in Class VI?

(1) Deductive method
(2) Synthesis method
(3) Inductive method
(4) Analysis method

Why: At Class VI the natural route is to list factors of several primes, notice the pattern, and generalise from it — moving from particular cases to a rule, which is the inductive method. A deductive proof from definitions is beyond the stage.

48.If a line is transversal to three lines, then how many angles will be formed?

(1) 3
(2) 12
(3) 9
(4) 6

Why: The transversal crosses each of the three lines at a separate point, and every crossing of two lines produces four angles. That gives 3 × 4 = 12 angles in all.

49.Who is the inventor of Multi-base Arithmetic Blocks (MAB) — mathematical manipulatives that can be used by students to build number sense, understand addition, place value and counting?

(1) Zoltán Dienes
(2) Van Hiele
(3) Hans Freudenthal
(4) Magdalene Lampert

Why: Zoltán Dienes designed the base blocks, which are still often called Dienes blocks. Van Hiele is associated with levels of geometric thinking and Freudenthal with realistic mathematics education.

A student has solved the problem on subtraction in the following way:

  604
−  86
  524

50.Choose the most apropriate option in the light of solution given by the student:

(1) The student has done a careless mistake.
(2) The student has extended the algorithm of addition to subtraction.
(3) The student does not know how to do subtraction of two numbers.
(4) The student has regrouped both the places of tens and ones as ‘10’.

Why: Trace the digits and the error is systematic, not careless. The child treated the ones place as 10 and got 10 − 6 = 4, treated the tens place as 10 and got 10 − 8 = 2, then reduced the hundreds by one to give 5 — producing 524 instead of 518. The regrouping rule has been misapplied consistently.

51.‘Infinite series of π’ was invented by __________.

(1) Mahavira
(2) Aryabhata
(3) Ramanujan
(4) Bhaskara I

Why: Srinivasa Ramanujan produced the rapidly converging infinite series for π that still underpin modern high-precision computation of its digits. Aryabhata gave an accurate approximation rather than a series.

52.Which of the following are the misconceptions regarding Comprehensive and Continuous Evaluation (CCE)?
(i) CCE is nothing but converts marks into grades.
(ii) Teachers have to give home assignment every day to assess children’s learning.
(iii) It helps in reducing stress and anxiety in mathematics.
(iv) In CCE, assessment is a part of teaching and learning.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (iv) only

Why: Statements (iii) and (iv) describe what CCE actually is and does, so they are not misconceptions. The first two are the familiar misreadings — that CCE merely relabels marks as grades, and that continuous assessment means daily written homework.

53.Madhu has begun to reason logically and can perform conservation-based activities mentally. According to Jean Piaget, in which stage of cognitive development is Madhu?

(1) Formal-operational
(2) Pre-operational
(3) Concrete-operational
(4) Sensori-motor

Why: [KEY] The Board’s final key records ‘Formal-operational’. On the question as printed, conservation and logical reasoning about concrete situations are the hallmarks of the concrete-operational stage, option 3, which is what most teachers would answer. Formal-operational thinking is about hypothetical and abstract reasoning, which the question does not describe. Answer option 1 if you are matching the official key.

“If the price of a shirt is ₹ 800 and the shopkeeper sells it at a discount of 16%, what will be the selling price?” Two of the students of Class VI, answered it in the following ways:

Student I: Selling price = ₹ 800 − 16% of ₹ 800
= ₹ 800 − ₹ (80 + 48)
= ₹ 800 − ₹ 128 = ₹ 672

Student II: Selling price = ₹ 800 − 16% of ₹ 800
= ₹ 800 − ₹ (^{800 × 16}⁄₁₀₀)
= ₹ 800 − ₹ 8 × 16
= ₹ 800 − ₹ 128 = ₹ 672

54.Which of the following is most appropriate for the above situation?

(1) Mathematical processes used by both student I and student II are correct, but process used by student I cannot be used in the examination.
(2) Mathematical process used by student I is incorrect.
(3) Mathematical processes used by both student I and student II are correct.
(4) Mathematical process used by only student II is correct.

Why: Student I split 16% into 10% and 6%, giving 80 + 48 = 128 — a valid mental strategy. Student II used the standard formula and reached the same figure. Both are mathematically sound, and there is no basis for ruling either out of an examination.

55.Which of the following is not true for anecdotal records as a tool for assessment?

(1) Refers to written descriptions of a child’s progress that a teacher keeps on a daily basis
(2) Includes many interesting classroom events
(3) It is a collection of a child’s selected best pieces of work
(4) Provides observational narrative records of significant incidents in a child’s life

Why: A collection of selected best work is a portfolio, not an anecdotal record. Anecdotal records are the teacher’s own written observations of incidents as they happen — narrative, dated and descriptive.

56.National Education Policy, 2020 (NEP 2020) does not lay emphasis on ____________.

(1) Conceptual understanding
(2) Experiential learning
(3) Learning through activities
(4) Rote learning

Why: NEP 2020 explicitly moves away from rote memorisation towards conceptual understanding, experiential learning and activity-based work. The other three are among its stated priorities.

57.Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) The Hindu-Arabic numeration system is based on the concept of place value that uses ten as a ‘base’.
(2) There is no distinction between a ‘number’ and a ‘numeral’.
(3) One-to-one correspondence is a pre-number concept.
(4) In Hindu-Arabic numeration system, all numbers can be represented using a finite set of digits.

Why: A number is the idea of quantity; a numeral is the written symbol that stands for it. The quantity five can be written as 5, V or ५ — one number, several numerals — so the distinction is real and statement (2) is false.

58.Identify the most appropriate strategy to introduce the concept of multiplication at primary level.

(1) They should be introduced to multiplication symbol.
(2) They should be told to practice at least 10 multiplication problems every day.
(3) Children should be told to memorize multiplication tables till 20.
(4) Children need to be given ample day-to-day examples of multiplication as repetitive addition.

Why: Multiplication is best introduced through the meaning it carries — repeated addition met in familiar everyday situations. Symbols, drill and memorised tables come after the concept is understood, not before.

59.Identify the statement which is not correct among the following:

(1) Mathematics is not the study of algorithms only.
(2) Mathematics is the study of patterns.
(3) Estimation is not a mathematical skill.
(4) Mathematics helps in solving problems.

Why: Estimation is very much a mathematical skill, and an important one — it lets a learner judge whether an answer is reasonable before checking it exactly. The other three statements are all sound.

60.Which of the following represents a non-traditional view of mathematics education at primary level?

(1) It is to prepare learners for higher mathematics.
(2) It is about making sense of mathematical objects, data, spatial forms and patterns.
(3) It is about rules and methods of solving problems.
(4) It is a set of problems to be solved in a prescribed manner.

Why: The traditional view treats mathematics as rules, prescribed procedures and preparation for later study. Treating it instead as making sense of quantity, shape, data and pattern is the shift the question is pointing at.

61.Which of the following are used for “Cheraw”, a special dance form of Mizoram?

(1) Clay pots, Wooden clubs
(2) Bamboo sticks, Drums
(3) Whistle, Dhol
(4) Bamboo sticks, Flute

Why: Cheraw is the Mizo bamboo dance. Pairs of long bamboo staves are tapped and clapped together in rhythm while dancers step between them, and the beat is carried by drums and gongs. Both options with bamboo are half right, so the accompanying instrument decides it.

62.Which one of the following products is not obtained from Petroleum?

(1) Kerosene oil
(2) Wax
(3) Grease
(4) Jatropa oil

Why: Jatropha oil is pressed from the seeds of the jatropha plant and is used as a biodiesel feedstock, so its origin is a crop rather than a well. Kerosene, wax and grease all come out of the refining of crude petroleum.

63.Which of the following statements is true about weaver birds?

(1) They are only found in South America.
(2) They are nocturnal birds.
(3) The male and female weaver birds together make beautifully woven nests.
(4) The female bird chooses the nest she likes the most and decides to lay her eggs there.

Why: The male weaver builds the nest alone, often several of them, and the female then inspects his work and settles on the one she prefers. That is why option (3) fails — the weaving is not joint work — while option (4) describes what actually happens.

64.When moist bread is kept in a closed container for 3 – 4 days, greenish black patches grow on bread. The greenish black patches growing on it is ___________.

(1) Mushroom
(2) Bacteria
(3) Yeast
(4) Bread Mold

Why: Bread mould is a fungus that thrives on damp bread in warm, closed conditions, showing first as cottony growth and then as green-black patches once it produces spores. Yeast and bacteria do not form visible patches like this.

Match the Classical dances with the States associated:

Classical Dance	State
A. Bharatanatyam	i. Andhra Pradesh
B. Kathak	ii. Kerala
C. Mohiniattam	iii. Uttar Pradesh
D. Kuchipudi	iv. Tamil Nadu

65.Choose the correct option from the following:

(1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

Why: Bharatanatyam belongs to Tamil Nadu, Kathak to Uttar Pradesh, Mohiniattam to Kerala and Kuchipudi to Andhra Pradesh — the last two are the ones most often swapped, since both are southern and similarly named village-derived forms.

66.The bordering states of Madhya Pradesh are:

(1) Gujarat, Chhattisgarh, Bihar
(2) Rajasthan, Gujarat, Haryana
(3) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat
(4) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Jharkhand

Why: Madhya Pradesh touches Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Chhattisgarh. Each wrong option smuggles in one state that does not touch it — Bihar, Haryana and Jharkhand respectively.

Consider the following description of the common houses built in a part of our country:
“Houses made of stones or wood with slanting roofs”.

67.This part is:

(1) Assam
(2) Ladakh
(3) Rajasthan
(4) Himachal Pradesh

Why: A slanting roof sheds heavy snow and rain, which is why it is standard in the Himalayan hill states, and stone and timber are the materials at hand there. Ladakh is cold but very dry, so its houses have flat roofs; Assam favours raised bamboo houses and Rajasthan thick mud walls.

68.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Bhimbetka is famous for caves and shelters.
Reason (R): These rock shelters are close to the Narmada Valley.

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Both statements are factually correct — Bhimbetka is known for its rock shelters and prehistoric paintings, and it does lie near the Narmada valley. But being near a valley is a location, not a reason for fame, so the second cannot explain the first.

A doctor is located at X and his clinic is located at Y. Since there is no straight road between the two locations, the doctor first goes to A which is about 250 m due South of X, then goes to B which is about 400 m due East of A, then to C which is about 125 m South of B, and finally reaches the clinic at Y which is about 650 m due West of C.

69.With respect to the clinic at Y, the actual direction of the doctor’s house at X is:

(1) South-West
(2) North-East
(3) South-East
(4) North-West

Why: Track the movement on a grid from X. Going 250 m south then 125 m south puts the clinic 375 m below X, and going 400 m east then 650 m west puts it 250 m to the left of X. So Y sits south-west of X, which means X sits north-east of Y. The trap is answering from X’s point of view instead of the clinic’s.

70.Which of the following look after and guard the ants’ nest?

(1) Soldier Ants
(2) Pharaoh Ant
(3) Queen Ant
(4) Worker Ants

Why: Soldier ants are the larger-jawed caste whose task is defending the colony and its nest against intruders. The queen only lays eggs, and Pharaoh ant is the name of a species rather than a role within the nest.

71.Consider the following statements:
(i) Dr. Beaumont is the person who on the basis of his experiments found many secrets about digestion of food.
(ii) He found that a stomach churns the food to digest it with the help of digestive juices secreted by it.
(iii) He also found that the juice in our stomach is basic.
(iv) Dr. Beaumont did experiments on the stomach of the same person for nineteen years.
The correct statements are:

(1) (ii) and (iv)
(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (ii)

Why: Statement (iii) is the clear error: gastric juice is strongly acidic, not basic. That rules out option (2), and since (i) and (ii) are both plainly true, the pair must be option (4). The nineteen-year figure in (iv) overstates the length of Beaumont’s study.

72.Consider the following statements and select which one of the statements is not correct.

(1) A herd usually has 10 to 12 female elephants and young ones.
(2) Oldest female elephant is the leader of the herd.
(3) An elephant herd has only females and baby elephants.
(4) Male elephants leave the herd when they are 24-25 years old.

Why: The other three match the standard description of a matriarchal elephant herd. The age at which young males leave is far lower than stated here — they separate in their mid-teens, not in their mid-twenties.

73.Gandhiji went on a long march called ‘Dandi March’ in 1930 to break the Salt law imposed by the British. His march (yatra) was from ___________ to ___________ in Gujarat.

(1) Dandi seashore, Ahmedabad
(2) Ahmedabad, Dandi seashore
(3) Ahmedabad, Gandhi Nagar
(4) Gandhi Nagar, Sabarmati

Why: The march set out from Sabarmati Ashram at Ahmedabad and ended at the coastal village of Dandi, where Gandhiji broke the salt law by picking up salt from the shore. Option (1) has the right two places in the wrong order.

74.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Sometimes, kings got their orders inscribed so that people could see, read and obey them.
Reason (A): There are other kinds of inscriptions as well where kings and queens recorded what they did.

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Both statements about inscriptions are true. But the second simply adds a further category of inscription; it does nothing to explain why rulers had their orders carved up for public reading, so it is not the explanation of the first.

75.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Solar energy and Tidal energy are called renewable energy sources.
Reason (R): Non-renewable energy sources take thousands of years to be renewed.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Why: Solar and tidal energy renew themselves continuously, so (A) is true, and (R) correctly states why the label matters — non-renewable sources take thousands of years to form, which is the contrast that defines the renewable category. The key treats (R) as the explanation of (A).

Dev is teaching environmental issues to class V children. He takes the children of his class for field trips. For assessment of children, he seeks to use an assessment tool that clearly indicates achievement criteria in all components of children’s work of any kind, from written to oral.

76.Which of the following is an assessment tool?

(1) Rating Scale
(2) Rubrics
(3) Narratives of teachers
(4) Check-list

Why: A rubric sets out the criteria for each component of the work together with descriptions of what each level of achievement looks like, which is exactly what the question describes. A checklist only records presence or absence, and a rating scale gives a number without stating the criteria.

77.For studying environmental issues, a teacher tells the story of the stomach of the mosquito in the words of a scientist. Which of the following is the most appropriate reason to have this story in the textbook?

(1) Telling children what the scientific process is and after which tireless efforts the scientists complete their discovery.
(2) Very small bacteria are seen with a microscope.
(3) Malaria spreads only through mosquitoes.
(4) Ronald Ross got a big prize in the field of medicine in 1902.

Why: The point of narrating the discovery in the scientist’s own voice is to let children see how science is actually done — the patient observation and repeated attempts behind a finding. The other options are isolated facts, not reasons for choosing a story format.

78.Which of the following should not be the most appropriate while studying the world around as?

(1) Teacher centered approach
(2) Development of qualities like problem solving
(3) Development of positive attitude and values
(4) Child centered approach

Why: EVS is built on children exploring their own surroundings, so a teacher-centred approach works against the subject. The other three are all aims the subject is meant to serve.

79.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Conversations with people with different understanding on the same subject make us feel the need to think more critically so that our knowledge is refined.
Reason (R): According to constructivism, the process of knowledge creation is basically a social process, in which the views and beliefs of others play an important role.

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Here the reason genuinely does the explanatory work. Because constructivism treats knowledge building as a social process in which other people’s views matter, encountering a different understanding is precisely what pushes a learner to think harder and refine what they know.

Which of the following should be an objective of studying the environment by children? Fill in the blanks given in this objective by choosing the appropriate options given below in the correct order:
To enhance the child’s ____________ understanding and efficiency so that curiosity about ____________ facts is awakened in him, which is helpful in moving from ____________ environment to ____________ environment.

80.Choose the correct option:

(1) Psychodynamic, Familial, Social, Natural
(2) Cognitive, Social, Familial, Extended
(3) Social, Cognitive, Extended, Familial
(4) Emotional, Natural, Cultural, Social

Why: Read the sentence with each set inserted and only one holds together: cognitive understanding, curiosity about social facts, and movement outward from the familial to the extended environment. The last pair is the giveaway — EVS always widens from home to the world beyond, never the reverse.

81.Which of the following is not the appropriate indicator for assessment in studying environmental issues?

(1) Discussion
(2) Observation
(3) Analysis
(4) Remembering

Why: EVS assessment looks at what a child does with their surroundings — observing, discussing and analysing. Recall of memorised content sits outside that, and is the one indicator the subject deliberately moves away from.

82.A good EVS teacher always talks about environmental issues by taking examples from the children’s environment. This environment of children helps a lot in their learning. This environment of the child is ____________.

(1) Tertiary context
(2) Secondary context
(3) Natural context
(4) Primary context

Why: The child’s immediate surroundings — home, family, street, school — form the primary context, the first-hand world learning starts from. Contexts further out are secondary and tertiary.

83.Many messages related to the environment can be given through puppets, but for this, the teacher should train the children and develop special skills. Which of the following strategies by the teacher for making puppets in the classroom can motivate the children to make puppets?
(i) Make small groups of children so that fear and hesitation can be removed from among them.
(ii) Promote the development of children’s self-confidence and positive thinking skills.
(iii) Create a structured environment for the children in the classroom.
(iv) Create a competitive environment for puppet making in the class.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (i) and (iv)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (iii) and (iv)

Why: Small groups lower the fear of trying, and building confidence keeps children willing to attempt something new. Competition in (iv) discourages the hesitant child, and a tightly structured environment in (iii) leaves little room for the creativity puppet-making depends on.

84.As per the theme “Travel” given in NCERT textbook, children are made to understand the technology, design, use of metals, etc. of the olden times through historical buildings. Which general objective of studying the environment is being achieved through this theme?

(1) Making a report on how the survey of the buildings is done
(2) Estimating and measuring work as a preparatory step, keeping in view the development of quantitative skills in later stages
(3) Filling out the map of historical buildings
(4) Connecting children with the experiences of identifying directions

Why: Only option (2) is phrased as a general objective of the subject; the others describe particular classroom activities. Looking at how old buildings were designed and constructed draws children into estimating sizes and materials, which lays groundwork for quantitative skills later on.

85.The curriculum of EVS can be made much richer and more creative only if it is based on the principle of moving from the concrete to the abstract. Which of the following is indicating the principle of concrete to abstract in the context of learning EVS?
(i) The knowledge of the class should be linked to the children’s own life experience.
(ii) The natural and social environment of the child should be explained first.
(iii) Emphasis should be placed on the need to protect the child’s natural environment.
(iv) Emphasis should be given on the participation of children in the knowledge construction of children.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (i) and (iv)
(2) (i) only
(3) (ii) only
(4) (ii) and (iii)

Why: Concrete to abstract means starting from what the child has actually lived. Statement (i) ties class knowledge to the child’s own experience and (iv) puts the child inside the knowledge-building, which is how the concrete becomes abstract. Statement (ii) has the teacher explaining first, and (iii) is about conservation rather than sequence.

86.Which one of the following learning indicators is related to the “expression” area of assessment?

(1) Expressing ideas through pictures
(2) Participation
(3) Hypothesising
(4) Prediction

Why: Expression covers the ways a child communicates what they think — through drawing, speaking or writing. Hypothesising and prediction belong to the enquiry indicators, and participation to involvement.

87.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): In environmental studies, the actions of children are not to be judged as right/wrong. Children should get a chance to express their views, report observations and express their own experiences. Such a recommendation has been made by the National Curriculum Framework 2005 and 2023.
Reason (R): The National Curriculum Framework 2005 and 2023 recommend qualitative assessment of children.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Why: The reason supplies exactly why the assertion holds. Qualitative assessment means describing what a child does and thinks rather than scoring it right or wrong, so the recommendation in the assertion follows directly from it.

88.Experiments with water develop various process skills in children. Which one of the following is not a process skill?

(1) Retrieving facts
(2) Analyzing
(3) Discussion
(4) Drawing conclusions

Why: Process skills are the things a child does while investigating — observing, discussing, analysing, concluding. Retrieving facts is recall of what is already stored, so no process of enquiry is involved.

89.Which one of the following sub-themes related to “Food” should be most suitable for class III children?

(1) Cooking food and eating with family
(2) What carnivorous animals eat?
(3) When food gets spoiled
(4) From farm to market

Why: At Class III the curriculum stays close to the child’s own life, and eating with the family is something every child has direct experience of. The other three ask the child to reason about processes and places outside their immediate world, which come in later classes.

90.Many social issues have been kept in the NCERT Environmental Studies textbooks like who does the cleaning in the school/house, with whom the children share water/food. For such social issues, what should be the pedagogy of studying environment?
(i) The teacher should not impose his/her views on the children about what is right and what is wrong.
(ii) Allow free sharing of children’s experiences and ideas.
(iii) Such social issues should definitely be discussed in the class but should not be discussed too much.
(iv) Children feel that such experiences have happened not only to them.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Why: Statement (iii) is the odd one out — limiting how much a sensitive social issue is discussed defeats the purpose of raising it. The other three describe an open classroom where the teacher withholds judgement, children speak freely, and each child realises their experience is shared.

91.A teacher of class III gives her sudents unseen passage worksheets, writing tasks, picture description activities, recitation and storytelling by them across the term. She has recorded the performance of the learners to include in the overall performance assessment of the learners. This record of assessment is known as:

(1) Portfolio
(2) Summative assessment
(3) Formative assessment
(4) Performance

Why: [KEY] The Board’s final key gives ‘Formative assessment’ — assessment gathered during the term, as learning happens, rather than at the end of it. A collected record of a learner’s work across a term is normally called a portfolio, option 1, and many teachers would answer that. Answer option 3 if you are matching the official key.

92.A child reads a storybook of her interest. This type of reading is referred to as:

(1) Extensive reading
(2) Intensive reading
(3) Skimming
(4) Scanning

Why: Extensive reading is reading at length, for pleasure and of one’s own choosing, with no close study of the text. Intensive reading is the opposite — a short text worked over carefully.

93.Which of the following should not be the objective of reading stories at foundational stage?

(1) Explicitly tell moral values
(2) Enhance reading skills
(3) Develop culture of reading
(4) Enhance vocabulary

Why: A story read only to deliver a moral turns reading into instruction and drains the pleasure that builds readers. The other three are exactly what stories are for at this stage.

94.A child reads an unseen passage. He is expected to answer the questions that follow. This type of reading is referred to as:

(1) Skimming
(2) Scanning
(3) Exclusive reading
(4) Extensive reading

Why: Scanning is reading to locate particular information — which is what answering set questions on a passage requires. Skimming is running the eye over a text for its general sense.

95.Read the following statements about reading skills.
A. Reading is just the ability to decode.
B. Children learn to read through involvement in the act of reading.
Which of the above statements is/are True/False?

(1) Only B is true.
(2) Only A is true.
(3) Both A and B are true.
(4) Both A and B are false.

Why: Decoding is only part of reading — comprehension and making meaning are the rest — so A is false. B is true: children become readers by reading, not by waiting until the skills are complete.

96.In process writing approach, pre-writing is:

(1) One element of the writing process during which writers consider what they have written and make changes in the content.
(2) One element of the writing process during which writers generate potential topics and writing ideas.
(3) One element of the writing process during which writers formally share their work with a wider audience.
(4) One element of the writing process during which writers capture preliminary ideas.

Why: Pre-writing is the stage before any draft exists, where the writer casts about for topics and ideas. Option 1 describes revising and option 3 publishing.

97.A classroom makes the learners notice language through various means, viz. on the wall, class library, audio and videos. This can be described as:

(1) Language comprehension
(2) Input-rich environment
(3) Language practice through senses
(4) Language acquisition

Why: Print on the walls, books within reach and audio and video together surround the child with language to notice — that surrounding supply is what ‘input-rich’ names.

98.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Language is an effective tool for communication.
Reason (R): Language helps to convey social messages.

(1) (A) is true, but (R) false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (R) is true, but (A) is false.

Why: Both are true, and the second explains the first: language works as a tool for communication precisely because it carries social meaning between people.

99.A teacher does actions which learners follow as directed and learners are not expected to speak or use language. What is this method known as?

(1) Dramatics
(2) Total Physical Response
(3) Communicative approach
(4) Imitation method

Why: Total Physical Response has learners respond bodily to commands while speech is allowed to emerge in its own time — the silent period is deliberate, not accidental.

100.A teacher believes that free writing will help her students to strengthen their language skills. Free writing can be understood as writing that:

(1) is taken from any free source.
(2) is based on noting down everything that comes to the mind, without concern for form, style or grammar.
(3) is based on free drawing.
(4) is planned and written for a free source, with focus on grammatically correct sentences.

Why: Free writing means writing without stopping and without editing, so that ideas come out before the internal critic can block them. Correctness is attended to later, if at all.

101.Which approach makes use of carefully selected and graded items?

(1) Structural approach
(2) Constructivism approach
(3) Skill-based approach
(4) Communicative approach

Why: Selection and grading of structures — deciding which patterns to teach and in what order — is the defining machinery of the structural approach.

102.Which one of the following is a characteristic of the language disorder ‘Dyslexia’?

(1) Inconsistent spacing between letters/words
(2) Reversals in reading
(3) Difficulty forming letter shapes
(4) Students have good verbal but poor writing skills

Why: Reversing letters and words while reading is the classic dyslexic marker. Spacing, letter formation and the verbal-versus-written gap all point to dysgraphia instead.

103.Which of the following principles of emerging literacy is not supported by Vygotsky?

(1) Child-directed exploration
(2) Cooperative learning
(3) Adult-guided learning
(4) Drill and practice

Why: Drill belongs to behaviourism. Vygotsky’s literacy is social and mediated — the child exploring, working with peers, and being guided by a more knowledgeable adult.

104.Comprehensible input includes:

(1) Using a variety of techniques such as gestures, body language, pictures, and objects.
(2) Objectives displayed in the classroom.
(3) Grouping students appropriately.
(4) The syllabus and language objectives displayed for the parents to ensure what is being taught to their children.

Why: Input is comprehensible when the learner can make sense of it, and gesture, pictures and objects are how a teacher carries meaning past the limits of the learner’s current language.

105.The deductive approach to teaching grammar says we should first ___________.

(1) present rules
(2) provide practice in communication
(3) provide practice through drills
(4) present examples

Why: Deductive teaching moves from the general to the particular: the rule is stated first, then applied to examples. Starting from examples and letting the rule emerge is the inductive route.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

106.Why was Lata frowning?

(1) Because she had not done well in the examination.
(2) Because she had quarrelled with her friend.
(3) Because she had been scolded by her parents.
(4) Because she could not take the examination.

Why: She stands apart from the others, close to tears, and dreads the questions waiting for her at home. Nothing in the extract mentions a quarrel, a scolding or a missed paper.

107.Which exam had Lata taken?

(1) History
(2) French literature
(3) Physical Science
(4) English literature

Why: She is among the English students on the steps, and the paper being picked over includes a question on ‘King Lear’. The history students are a separate group standing nearby.

108.Which of the following statements is True/False?
A. Lata had done well in the examination.
B. She feared she would be asked how she had fared in the examination at home.

(1) Both A and B are true.
(2) Both A and B are false.
(3) B is true but A is false.
(4) A is true but B is false.

Why: A is false — everything about her bearing says the paper went badly. B is true: she expects a hundred questions about it at lunch.

109.Which of the following statements is True/False?
A. Some history students too were discussing their paper.
B. The young man too had not fared well in his exam.

(1) Both A and B are true.
(2) Both A and B are false.
(3) A is true but B is false.
(4) B is true but A is false.

Why: Both hold. A knot of history students is discussing the paper they sat at the same time, and the young man looks worried because cricket and other activities have cost him his preparation.

110.‘... the young man who had brought himself to Lata’s attention ...’
Identify the clause in the underlined part of the sentence.

(1) Principal Clause
(2) Adjective Clause
(3) Adverb Clause
(4) Noun Clause

Why: The clause begins with the relative pronoun ‘who’ and tells us which young man is meant, so it is doing the work of an adjective on the noun before it.

111.‘The edge of her middle finger ...’
Name the Part of Speech of the underlined word in the given sentence part.

(1) Noun
(2) Pronoun
(3) Preposition
(4) Adjective

Why: It names a thing and takes ‘the’ before it, which marks it as a noun — here the head of the phrase, with the rest telling us whose edge.

112.‘... how well she had done.’
Identify the tense of the given expression.

(1) Present Perfect Tense
(2) Simple Past Tense
(3) Past Perfect Tense
(4) Simple Future Tense

Why: ‘Had done’ is had plus the past participle, the past perfect — it places her performance before the later moment of being asked about it.

113.‘A knot of history students ...’
What does ‘knot’ mean in this expression?

(1) group
(2) string
(3) loop
(4) joint

Why: Used of people, a knot is a small cluster standing close together. The other meanings belong to rope, not to students.

114.‘A post-mortem of the paper was being held ...’
Identify the literary device used in the expression.

(1) Simile
(2) Hyperbole
(3) Parallelism
(4) Metaphor

Why: The examination is spoken of as though it were a body being dissected after death — one thing called another outright, with no ‘like’ or ‘as’, which makes it a metaphor.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

115.Who is the narrator in the poem?

(1) The poet
(2) A villager
(3) A common man
(4) The reader

Why: The voice speaks of ‘my mother’ and ‘my father’ and watches the night unfold as their child — the poet recalling his own childhood.

116.What was the condition of the mother?

(1) She was in acute pain.
(2) She had high fever.
(3) She had recovered from illness.
(4) She was hale and hearty.

Why: She twists on the mat and groans for twenty hours before the poison loses its sting. That is pain, not fever, and certainly not recovery.

117.By conviction, the father was ____________.

(1) a confirmed atheist
(2) a devotee of God
(3) an upholder of reason and rationality
(4) a believer in destiny

Why: He is named a sceptic and a rationalist. That he ends up trying every curse and blessing is the poem’s irony — desperation overriding conviction — not a change of belief.

118.The mother thanked God for ____________.

(1) her quick recovery
(2) sparing her children
(3) being able to get a doctor in time
(4) escaping the scorpion’s bite

Why: Her only words in the whole poem are thanks that the scorpion chose her and left the children alone — twenty hours of pain answered by a mother’s relief.

119.Which literary device has been used in the expression: ‘to tame the poison’?

(1) Metaphor
(2) Anaphora
(3) Oxymoron
(4) Simile

Why: Poison is treated as a wild animal that can be tamed — an implied comparison with no ‘like’ or ‘as’, which is metaphor.

120.Which figure of speech is there in ‘the flame feeding on my mother’?

(1) Simile
(2) Personification
(3) Irony
(4) Alliteration

Why: The flame is given the living act of feeding, so a lifeless thing is made to behave like a creature. That is personification.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

121.भारत के नए शरणार्थी कौन हैं?

(1) बाढ़ के कारण विस्थापित लोग
(2) औद्योगीकरण के कारण विस्थापित लोग
(3) अकाल के कारण विस्थापित लोग
(4) भूकंप के कारण विस्थापित लोग

Why: गद्यांश की पहली ही पंक्ति में कहा गया है कि नए शरणार्थी वे हैं जिन्हें औद्योगीकरण के झंझावात ने घर-ज़मीन से उखाड़ दिया। बाढ़ और भूकंप का उल्लेख तुलना के लिए है, कारण के रूप में नहीं।

122.‘औद्योगीकरण के झंझावात ने अपनी घर-ज़मीन से उखाड़कर हमेशा के लिए निर्वासित कर दिया है।’ वाक्य से आशय है:

(1) घर-ज़मीन बेचकर पैसा कमाने में लगे रहना
(2) निर्वासित होने के दुख को झेलने की विवशता
(3) आँधी-तूफान के कारण घर छोड़ने की विवशता
(4) औद्योगीकरण के कारण अपने घर छोड़ने की विवशता

Why: झंझावात यहाँ रूपक है, वास्तविक आँधी नहीं — इसलिए विकल्प 3 शाब्दिक जाल है। वाक्य का सीधा आशय औद्योगीकरण के कारण घर छोड़ने की विवशता है।

123.गद्यांश के अनुसार कौन-सा कथन सत्य है?

(1) प्रकृति के कारण हुआ विस्थापन स्थायी होता है।
(2) उद्योग-धंधों के कारण हुआ विस्थापन अस्थायी होता है।
(3) उद्योगों के कारण हुआ विस्थापन स्थायी होता है।
(4) प्रकृति लोगों को विस्थापित नहीं करती है।

Why: यही गद्यांश का केंद्रीय अंतर है — बाढ़ या भूकंप के बाद लोग लौट आते हैं, किंतु विकास के नाम पर उन्मूलित लोग फिर कभी अपने घर नहीं लौट पाते। विकल्प 1 और 2 इसी बात को उलटकर कहते हैं।

124.‘औद्योगीकरण के झंझावात ने अपनी घर-ज़मीन से निर्वासित कर दिया है।’ वाक्य में रेखांकित शब्द से आशय है:

(1) झंझट
(2) तूफान
(3) झंकार
(4) झमेले

Why: झंझावात का अर्थ है प्रचंड आँधी-तूफान। झंझट और झमेले केवल ध्वनि में निकट हैं, अर्थ में नहीं, और झंकार तो ध्वनि-संबंधी शब्द है।

125.गद्यांश के अनुसार __________, __________ और __________ लोगों के विस्थापन के लिए उत्तरदायी हैं।

(1) बाढ़, भूकंप, प्रकृति
(2) बाढ़, भूकंप, उद्योग
(3) प्रकृति, उद्योग, शरणार्थी
(4) बाढ़, भूकंप, रोजगार

Why: गद्यांश में विस्थापन के तीन ठोस कारण आते हैं — बाढ़, भूकंप और औद्योगीकरण। शरणार्थी कारण नहीं, परिणाम हैं।

126.समूह से भिन्न शब्द-युग्म है:

(1) घर-ज़मीन
(2) उद्योग-धंधे
(3) गाँव-शहर
(4) जाने-पहचाने

Why: पहले तीनों संज्ञा-युग्म हैं। जाने-पहचाने क्रिया से बना विशेषण-युग्म है, इसलिए समूह से भिन्न।

127.‘घर’ का पर्यायवाची शब्द नहीं है:

(1) निकेत
(2) भुवन
(3) आलय
(4) गेह

Why: भुवन का अर्थ है संसार या लोक, घर नहीं। निकेत, आलय और गेह तीनों घर के पर्यायवाची हैं।

128.विशेषण-विशेष्य का उदाहरण नहीं है:

(1) आधुनिक भारत
(2) जाने-पहचाने परिवेश
(3) घर-बार
(4) नए शरणार्थी

Why: शेष तीनों में पहला पद विशेषण है और दूसरा विशेष्य। घर-बार में दोनों पद संज्ञा हैं — यह द्वंद्व प्रकार का युग्म है, विशेषण-विशेष्य नहीं।

129.निम्नलिखित कथन पढ़िए:
A. लेखन अनुभव पठन बोध को समुन्नत करते हैं।
B. लेखन शब्द संपदा के ज्ञान को विकसित करने में मदद करते हैं।
शुरूआती वर्षों में लेखन के महत्त्व के बारे में कौन-से कथन सही हैं?

(1) A और B दोनों सही हैं।
(2) केवल B सही है।
(3) A और B दोनों ही ग़लत हैं।
(4) केवल A सही है।

Why: पठन और लेखन एक-दूसरे को पुष्ट करते हैं। लिखते समय बच्चा पाठ की बनावट समझता है और शब्दों की खोज करता है, जिससे पठन बोध और शब्द संपदा दोनों बढ़ते हैं।

130.कक्षा III की अध्यापिका विद्यार्थियों को दिए गए लेखन कार्य के रूप में पूर्व-लेखन गतिविधि आयोजित करना चाहती है। निम्नलिखित में से किस गतिविधि को पूर्व-लेखन गतिविधि के रूप में आयोजित नहीं किया जा सकता?

(1) अपने सहपाठी के प्रारूप को संशोधित करना
(2) टॉपिक से संबंधित विचार बिन्दुओं पर अपने सहपाठी से बात करना
(3) विचार बिंदुओं पर मानस मंथन करना और बिन्दुओं को बोर्ड पर लिखना
(4) टॉपिक से संबंधित पठन सामग्री देना

Why: प्रारूप को संशोधित करने के लिए प्रारूप का होना आवश्यक है, इसलिए यह लेखन के बाद की गतिविधि है। शेष तीनों तब होती हैं जब पन्ना अभी कोरा है।

131.पठन की ऐसी गतिविधि जिसमें शिक्षार्थी किसी पाठ्य-सामग्री के विभिन्न भागों को सुनते या पढ़ते हैं, उसके बाद कार्य को पूरा करने के लिए एक दूसरे के साथ जानकारी साझा करते हैं, इसे किस रूप में जाना जाएगा?

(1) जारी (रनिंग) श्रुतलेख
(2) जिगसॉ श्रुतलेख
(3) जारी (रनिंग) पाठ्य-सामग्री
(4) मूक अभिनय (डम्ब शराड)

Why: प्रत्येक शिक्षार्थी के पास एक टुकड़ा होता है और पूरा चित्र तभी बनता है जब सब मिलकर जानकारी साझा करें — यही जिगसॉ की संरचना है, जो आदान-प्रदान को अनिवार्य बना देती है।

132.कक्षा II की अध्यापिका नवोमिता ने कक्षा पुस्तकालय का बहुत अच्छी तरह से प्रबंध किया है और वह विद्यार्थियों को कहानियाँ पढ़ने के लिए प्रेरित करती है।
इस अभ्यास के साथ और किसका अनुपालन होना चाहिए?

(1) कहानियों में निहित नैतिक मूल्यों पर प्रत्यक्ष रूप से चर्चा करना और उन्हें कंठस्थ करना।
(2) पठन की संस्कृति का विकास करना।
(3) विद्यार्थियों को और अधिक कहानियाँ कंठस्थ करने के लिए कहना चाहिए।
(4) विद्यार्थियों को लंबे समय तक व्यस्त रखना चाहिए, जिससे कि अध्यापक अपने लंबित कार्य को पूरा कर सके।

Why: पुस्तकें पास हों और चुनने की स्वतंत्रता हो, तभी पढ़ने की आदत बनती है। पुस्तकालय को उपदेश या कंठस्थीकरण का साधन बना देना उसका उद्देश्य ही नष्ट कर देता है, और विकल्प 4 तो शैक्षिक उद्देश्य है ही नहीं।

133.उद्गामी साक्षरता के संदर्भ में कौन-सा कथन सही है?

(1) साक्षरता शिशु गीतों को कंठस्थ करने के साथ आरंभ होती है।
(2) साक्षरता अक्षरों को लिखने के साथ आरंभ होती है।
(3) साक्षरता घुटने चलने (क्रालिंग) और कूदने के समान स्वाभाविक रूप से आरंभ होती है।
(4) साक्षरता बच्चों को औपचारिक रूप से पठन सिखाने से पहले आरंभ हो जाती है।

Why: उद्गामी साक्षरता का मूल विचार यही है कि बच्चा औपचारिक शिक्षण से बहुत पहले ही संकेत पढ़ने, पुस्तक पलटने और निशान बनाने लगता है। किंतु यह घुटने चलने जैसी जैविक प्रक्रिया नहीं — इसके लिए आसपास लिखित सामग्री का होना आवश्यक है।

134.‘सहपाठी समीक्षा’ को विद्यार्थियों की लेखन प्रक्रिया में सुधार लाने के लिए एक महत्त्वपूर्ण युक्ति माना जाता है। ‘सहपाठी समीक्षा’ का क्या उद्देश्य है?

(1) विचारों को सम्बद्ध करना और लेखन हेतु अनुच्छेद तैयार करना।
(2) विद्यार्थियों के लेखन के मूल्यांकन में अध्यापक की मदद करना।
(3) अपने सहपाठियों को रचनात्मक पृष्ठपोषण देना, जिसके माध्यम से उन्हें अपने प्रारूप में सुधार लाने के लिए मदद मिलेगी।
(4) अपने सहपाठियों की गलतियों को निकालने के लिए प्रोत्साहित करना।

Why: सहपाठी समीक्षा का उद्देश्य लेखक को ऐसा पृष्ठपोषण देना है जिसका उपयोग वह प्रारूप सुधारने में कर सके। यह अध्यापक का मूल्यांकन-कार्य बाँटने का साधन नहीं, और दोष ढूँढ़ना तो वह प्रवृत्ति है जिससे बचना सिखाना पड़ता है।

135.निम्नलिखित कथन पढ़िए:
A. बोली किसी देश के एक हिस्से में बोली जा रही भाषा का प्रकार है।
B. भाषा में लिखित साहित्य उपलब्ध है, लेकिन बोली की वाचिक परम्परा है।
भाषा और बोली के बारे में भाषिक रूप से कौन-सा कथन सही हैं?

(1) केवल A सही है।
(2) A और B दोनों सही हैं।
(3) A और B दोनों ही ग़लत हैं।
(4) केवल B सही है।

Why: A बोली की मानक परिभाषा है। B भाषिक दृष्टि से सही नहीं — अनेक बोलियों का समृद्ध लिखित साहित्य है, और भाषा व बोली का भेद लेखन से नहीं, सामाजिक-राजनीतिक प्रतिष्ठा से तय होता है।

136.‘नए शब्द समझते हैं और प्रयोग में लाते हैं’ यह किसके आकलन का रूबरिक है?

(1) उच्चारण
(2) व्याकरण
(3) प्रवाह
(4) शब्द संपदा

Why: यह कसौटी शब्दों से जुड़ी है — नए शब्द ग्रहण करना और उनका प्रयोग करना, अर्थात् शब्द संपदा। उच्चारण ध्वनि से और व्याकरण शब्दों के संयोजन से संबंधित है।

137.कक्षा III की अध्यापिका अपने बच्चों को कहती है कि मैं आपको एक कहानी सुना रही हूँ, आप इस पर आधारित चित्र बनाएँ। इस गतिविधि के माध्यम से किस भाषा कौशल का आकलन किया जा सकता है?

(1) पठन कौशल
(2) बोलने का कौशल
(3) श्रवण कौशल
(4) लेखन कौशल

Why: बच्चे कहानी केवल सुनकर ग्रहण करते हैं और चित्र के माध्यम से अपनी समझ दिखाते हैं। यहाँ न कुछ पढ़ा जाता है, न बोला, न लिखा — इसलिए आकलन श्रवण कौशल का होता है।

138.भाषा विकास के बारे में किस कथन को पियाज़े का समर्थन मिला है?

(1) भाषा का विकास संज्ञानात्मक विकास का कारण है न कि परिणाम।
(2) कुछ भाषायी अवधारणाओं को तभी सिखाना चाहिए, जब बच्चे संज्ञानात्मक परिपक्वता की उपयुक्त अवस्था में पहुँच जाए।
(3) बच्चों को भाषा सीखने के लिए व्याकरणिक नियमों को कंठस्थ करने की ज़रूरत है।
(4) भाषा विकास आदत निर्माण के समान ही है।

Why: पियाज़े के अनुसार चिंतन पहले आता है और भाषा उसका अनुसरण करती है, इसलिए शिक्षण को उस संज्ञानात्मक अवस्था की प्रतीक्षा करनी पड़ती है। विकल्प 1 उन्हीं का उलटा कथन है और विकल्प 4 स्किनर का मत।

139.वायगोत्सकी के सिद्धान्तों के मूल आधारवाक्य में क्या शामिल नहीं है?

(1) निकटस्थ विकास का क्षेत्र
(2) सांस्कृतिकरण (एनकल्चरेशन)
(3) सहारा देना (स्काफोल्डिंग)
(4) आत्मसात्करण (एसीमिलेशन)

Why: आत्मसात्करण पियाज़े की संकल्पना है, जिसमें नया अनुभव पुरानी स्कीमा में समा जाता है। शेष तीनों वायगोत्सकी के सामाजिक अधिगम-सिद्धांत के मूल स्तंभ हैं।

140.यह विचार कि ‘भाषा हमारे विचारों को ढाँचा प्रदान करती है’ किसके द्वारा समर्थित है?

(1) जीन पियाज़े
(2) जिरोम ब्रूनर
(3) सपिर-वॉर्फ परिकल्पना
(4) नॉम चॉमस्की

Why: भाषिक सापेक्षता अर्थात् सपिर-वॉर्फ परिकल्पना के अनुसार हम जो भाषा बोलते हैं वही हमारी सोच और धारणा को आकार देती है। पियाज़े ने इसका उलटा क्रम माना और चॉमस्की का सरोकार जन्मजात व्याकरण से था।

141.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा ‘डिस्ग्राफिया (लेखन वैकल्य)’ का लक्षण है?

(1) अक्षरों की आकृति बनाने में कठिनाई
(2) लेखन में उलटाव (रिवर्सल)
(3) वाचन और भाषा अर्जन में विलम्ब
(4) अक्षरों के नाम और वर्णमाला की ध्वनियों को सीखने में कठिनाई

Why: डिस्ग्राफिया लेखन से जुड़ा विकार है और अक्षरों की आकृति बनाने में कठिनाई उसका प्रमुख लक्षण है। विकल्प 3 भाषा-विलंब की ओर और विकल्प 4 डिस्लेक्सिया की ओर संकेत करते हैं।

142.नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, जिनमें एक को अभिकथन (A) तथा दूसरे को कारण (R) के रूप में अंकित किया गया है। कथनों को पढ़िए और सही विकल्प चुनिए।
अभिकथन (A): द्वितीय भाषा के शिक्षार्थी संज्ञानात्मक अकादमिक भाषा निपुणता की तुलना में बुनियादी अंत:वैयक्तिक सम्प्रेषणात्मक कौशल विकसित करने में अधिक समय लेते हैं।
कारण (R): संवादात्मक निपुणता अकादमिक निपुणता की तुलना में अधिक संदर्भ-आधारित है।

(1) (A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं, लेकिन (A) की (R) सही व्याख्या नहीं करता है।
(2) (R) सही है, लेकिन (A) ग़लत है।
(3) (A) सही है, लेकिन (R) ग़लत है।
(4) (A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं और (A) की (R) सही व्याख्या करता है।

Why: [KEY] आधिकारिक उत्तरकुंजी में विकल्प 3 दिया गया है। कमिंस के अनुसार अभिकथन उलटा है — संवादात्मक कौशल (BICS) लगभग दो वर्ष में आ जाता है जबकि अकादमिक भाषा (CALP) में पाँच से सात वर्ष लगते हैं — और कारण सही है तथा यही BICS के शीघ्र आने का स्पष्टीकरण भी है। इस दृष्टि से उत्तर विकल्प 2 बनता है। परीक्षा की दृष्टि से विकल्प 3 ही मान्य है।

143.पठन की प्रकृति के बारे में कौन-सा सही है?

(1) बच्चे पठन की क्रिया में संलग्न होकर पठन सीखते हैं।
(2) पाठ्य-सामग्री के अर्थ को समझने के लिए सभी शब्दों को समझने की आवश्यकता है।
(3) संवेदी-गत्यात्मक कौशलों में परिपक्वता को पठन कौशलों में अंतरण के रूप में पूर्वानुमानित किया जाता है।
(4) पठन केवल डिकोड करने की योग्यता भर है।

Why: पढ़ना पढ़ते हुए ही सीखा जाता है। पाठक अपरिचित शब्दों के बावजूद अर्थ तक पहुँच सकता है, डिकोडिंग पठन का एक अंश भर है, और संवेदी-गत्यात्मक परिपक्वता अपने आप पाठक नहीं बनाती।

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

144.आध्यात्मिक चेतना से जुड़ने पर मनुष्य दूसरों से व्यवहार करता है:

(1) प्रेम और विद्वेष का
(2) प्रेम और आदर का
(3) प्रेम और समानता का
(4) प्रेम और स्नेह का

Why: गद्यांश में स्पष्ट कहा गया है कि हम दूसरों के साथ प्रेम और सम्मान के साथ व्यवहार करना शुरू कर देते हैं। सम्मान और आदर एक ही अर्थ रखते हैं।

145.‘जब हमारा अहंकार कम हो जाता है और हम महसूस करते हैं कि आत्मा के स्तर पर हम सभी एकसमान हैं।’ वाक्य से आशय है:

(1) व्यक्ति अहंकारयुक्त होने पर सभी को एकसमान समझने लगता है।
(2) व्यक्ति अहंकारमुक्त होने पर सभी को एकसमान समझने लगता है।
(3) व्यक्ति अहंकारवश स्वयं को दूसरों से अलग समझता है।
(4) सभी व्यक्तियों में अहंकार होता है और वे सभी को एकसमान समझने लगते हैं।

Why: वाक्य में अहंकार का घटना और समानता का बोध साथ-साथ आते हैं, अर्थात् अहंकार से मुक्त होने पर ही सबको एकसमान देखने की दृष्टि बनती है। विकल्प 1 इसी बात को उलट देता है।

146.‘यदि प्रत्येक व्यक्ति अपने अंदर इस अनुभूति को प्राप्त कर लेता है कि एक जमा एक बराबर एक होता है, तो यह दुनिया एक दिन शांति और प्रेम का स्थल बन जाएगी।’
इससे आप क्या समझते हैं?

(1) एक में एक मिलाने पर दो बनते हैं।
(2) मनुष्य में द्वैत भाव की समाप्ति पर ही प्रेम और शांति की स्थापना संभव है।
(3) एक में एक मिलाने पर शांति प्राप्त होती है।
(4) एक में एक मिलाने पर एक ही बनता है।

Why: यहाँ गणित नहीं, प्रतीक है — एक जमा एक बराबर एक का अर्थ है द्वैत का मिट जाना। विकल्प 1, 3 और 4 वाक्य को शाब्दिक अर्थ में पढ़ते हैं और इसीलिए चूक जाते हैं।

147.‘द्वैत भाव खो देना’ से आशय है:

(1) अपने पराए का भेद न कर पाना
(2) अहं को त्यागना
(3) वैर भाव मिट जाना
(4) स्वयं और परमात्मा का भेद मिटना

Why: गद्यांश में वाक्य आगे स्वयं कहता है — जब हम अपना द्वैत भाव खो देते हैं, तो हम परमात्मा के साथ एक हो जाते हैं। इसलिए आशय आत्मा और परमात्मा का भेद मिटना है।

148.‘चेतना’ का विलोम शब्द है:

(1) जड़ता
(2) जड़
(3) निर्जीव
(4) चैतन्य

Why: चेतना भाववाचक संज्ञा है, इसलिए उसका विलोम भी भाववाचक ही होगा — जड़ता। जड़ और निर्जीव विशेषण हैं, और चैतन्य तो पर्यायवाची है, विलोम नहीं।

149.समूह से भिन्न शब्द है:

(1) अनुभव
(2) अनुसार
(3) अनुभूति
(4) अनुमति

Why: अनुभव, अनुभूति और अनुमति तीनों संज्ञाएँ हैं। अनुसार अव्यय है, जो सदैव किसी अन्य पद के साथ आता है — इसलिए समूह से भिन्न।

150.‘सम्मान’ का विलोम शब्द है:

(1) सम्मानित
(2) असमान
(3) निरादर
(4) असम्मान

Why: निरादर सम्मान का मानक विलोम है। असमान का अर्थ है जो समान न हो, और सम्मानित विशेषण है। विकल्प 4 अर्थ में निकट है, किंतु उत्तरकुंजी निरादर को ही मान्यता देती है।

CTET February 2026 — Paper I (Classes I to V)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper I (Classes I to V)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part II — Mathematics

Part III — Environmental Studies

Part IV — Language I — English

Part V — Language II — Hindi

Answer Key

CTET February 2026 — Paper I (Classes I to V)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026Paper I (Classes I to V)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part II — Mathematics

Part III — Environmental Studies

Part IV — Language I — English

Part V — Language II — Hindi

Answer Key

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper I (Classes I to V)