MAK LABS — CTET 1 March 2026 Paper I (Classes I to V) Question Paper with Answer Key

1.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): At any age, the teacher should focus on what the child cannot do rather than what they can do with help or support.
Reason (R): Lev Vygotsky proposed that learning should include only those behaviours that the child can do independently.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true, but (R) false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Both statements invert Vygotsky. He argued the teacher should look at what the child can do with support — the zone of proximal development — not at deficits alone, so (A) is false. And he placed learning ahead of independent performance, inside that zone, so (R) is false as well.

2.Which of the following statements about gifted children is correct?

(1) Gifted children have superior academic, social as well as emotional skills.
(2) Gifted children excel in all areas of academics as well as in extra-curricular activities.
(3) Gifted children have a high degree of mental ability in specific domain of knowledge.
(4) Gifted children come up with novel and original solutions to given problems.

Why: Giftedness is domain-specific: a child may be exceptional in mathematics or music and quite ordinary elsewhere. The other options describe the popular myth of all-round superiority. Option 4 describes creativity, which overlaps with giftedness but does not define it.

3.At which level of Kohlberg’s moral reasoning, children typically do not fully understand rules set down by others and society?

(1) Post-operational level
(2) Pre-conventional level
(3) Conventional level
(4) Pre-operational level

Why: At the pre-conventional level the child judges an act by its consequences — punishment or reward — rather than by any grasp of social rules. Understanding and upholding those rules comes later, at the conventional level. Pre-operational and post-operational belong to Piaget, not Kohlberg.

4.What should be the purposes of assessement?
(i) To analyze students’ responses to find out what they know and understand
(ii) To identify gaps in knowledge
(iii) To identify effective learning activities
(iv) To assign comparative marks to students
Choose the correct option:

(1) (ii) (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (i) (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) (iii) and (iv)

Why: The first three are all uses of assessment for learning — they feed back into teaching. Ranking children against one another, (iv), turns assessment into a sorting device and is exactly what the NCF asks teachers to move away from.

5.According to Lev Vygotsky’s theory, what is meant by the term ‘scaffolding’?

(1) A resource material that aids in better recall of concepts.
(2) A measurement tool used to assess a student’s cognitive development.
(3) A metaphorical term for when students are left to learn on their own.
(4) A strategy in which a more knowledgeable person provides support and guidance to help a less knowledgeable person learn a new skill or concept.

Why: Scaffolding is the temporary support a more knowledgeable other gives inside the zone of proximal development, withdrawn as the learner takes over. Option 3 is its opposite — unaided discovery.

6.Which of the following factors contribute to growth and development during early childhood?
(i) Cultural practices
(ii) Nutrition
(iii) Play opportunities
(iv) Quality of education
Choose the correct option:

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(3) (i) and (ii) only
(4) (ii) and (iii) only

Why: Development in the early years is multi-determined. Culture shapes what a child is expected to do, nutrition sets the biological ceiling, play drives cognitive and social learning, and the quality of the setting shapes all three. None of the four can be dropped.

7.Children demonstrate ___________ when they add the new schema for recognizing ‘horses’ to their other systems for identifying animals.

(1) Scaffolding
(2) Accommodation
(3) Metacognition
(4) Assimilation

Why: A new schema is being built and slotted into the existing structure, which is accommodation. Assimilation would mean squeezing the horse into a schema the child already has — calling it a big dog, say.

8.Lev Vygotsky’s theory has been criticized for:

(1) Considering prominence of emotional factors in forming motivation for learning.
(2) Emphasizing biological influences in the process of development at the expense of socio-cultural factors.
(3) Giving importance to students instead of teachers in the process of learning.
(4) Overlooking the role of genetics and biology in the course of learning.

Why: The standard criticism is that Vygotsky leaned so far into the social and cultural that maturation and biology got too little room. Option 2 states the charge backwards — that is the criticism made of Piaget and of maturational theorists.

9.Growth of the body and brain, sensory capabilities and motor skills are a part of:

(1) Sensory motor development
(2) Physical development
(3) Cognitive development
(4) Social development

Why: All four things listed are bodily — size, brain growth, the senses, movement — which together make up the physical domain. Sensory-motor is Piaget’s name for a stage, not a domain of development.

10.The processes of problem-solving are hindered by:

(1) Use of algorithms
(2) Heuristics
(3) Functional fixedness
(4) Analogical thinking

Why: Functional fixedness is the block that stops a person seeing an object used in any way other than its usual one — a brick as a brick, never as a paperweight. The other three are aids to solving problems, not obstacles.

11.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Self-regulation and impulse control should be a vital component of school curriculum.
Reason (R): Socio-emotional skills help students to regulate their own learning.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Why: Both statements are sound, and the second gives the reason for the first: because socio-emotional skills let children manage their own learning, building them into the curriculum is worth doing.

12.Which of the following age-group corresponds to middle childhood?

(1) 6 – 11 years
(2) 12 – 16 years
(3) 3 – 5 years
(4) Birth to 2 years

Why: Middle childhood runs roughly from six to eleven — the primary school years. Three to five is early childhood, twelve to sixteen adolescence, and the first two years infancy.

13.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): To ensure assessment for learning, teacher-made tasks should be included for providing feedback to support student learning rather than the use of standardised outcome performances.
Reason (R): Standardized tests are more aligned with the assessment of learning rather than assessment for learning.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) (A) is true, but (R) false.

Why: [KEY] The Board’s final key marks (A) true and (R) false. (A) is straightforward: teacher-made tasks carry feedback, which is what assessment for learning needs. Many teachers would call (R) true as well, and so read the answer as option 1 — but the official key does not, and the key is what counts for scoring.

14.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Children’s development is a direct result of unfolding of genetic codes.
Reason (R): Childhood is a natural biological stage of development.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is true, but (R) false.

Why: Development is not genes unfolding on their own — it is the constant interaction of heredity with context, so (A) is false. And childhood is not a purely biological given either; what counts as childhood, and what children are expected to do, varies across cultures and periods, so (R) is false too.

15.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Teachers should not associate learning with strict discipline because children do not learn effectively in an environment of fear and stress.
Reason (R): Early childhood is a sensitive period for the development of language.

(1) (A) is true, but (R) false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Each statement is true on its own, but they are about different things. Fear blocking learning has nothing to do with early childhood being a sensitive period for language, so (R) cannot explain (A).

16.Learned patterns of culturally approved masculine and feminine behaviours are referred to as ‘Gender ____________’.

(1) stereotypes
(2) roles
(3) bias
(4) constancy

Why: Gender roles are the behaviours a culture treats as appropriate for each sex and that children learn from those around them. Stereotypes are the fixed beliefs about those roles, bias is acting on them unfairly, and constancy is the child’s realisation that gender does not change with clothes or haircut.

17.How should a teacher deal with students who are distracted in her class?

(1) Offer material rewards for every class that they are attentive in
(2) Give them severe punishment
(3) Call the parents and threaten to give severe punishment to the children
(4) Divide the class into manageable groups and let them learn cooperatively

Why: Smaller cooperative groups give each child something to do and someone to do it with, which is what holds attention. Punishment and threats suppress behaviour briefly at the cost of the child’s relationship with school, and material rewards shift the motivation outside the learning itself.

18.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Teachers in middle classes often have different expectations from boys and girls.
Reason (R): Beliefs about ‘sex’ differences inform stereotypes, which often leads to just two labels — boys and girls.

(1) (A) is true, but (R) false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Teachers do hold differing expectations of boys and girls, and the reason given is precisely why: beliefs about sex differences harden into stereotypes that sort every child into one of two boxes, and expectations follow the box.

19.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Inclusion incorporates acceptance of differences and ensuring that all forms of exclusion are removed.
Reason (R): Diversity should be valued rather than looking at it as an obstacle.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) (A) is true, but (R) false.

Why: Both are true, and the second is the ground of the first: it is because diversity is treated as a resource rather than a problem that inclusion means accepting difference and dismantling exclusion.

20.In order to nurture critical thinking skills among students, a teacher should design and deliver activities which demand:
(i) Logical reasoning and analysis.
(ii) Mere retrieval of previously learnt concepts.
(iii) Rote rehearsal and memorization.
(iv) Synthesis and evaluation of information.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (ii) and (iv)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (ii)

Why: Critical thinking sits at the analysing, synthesising and evaluating end of the scale, so (i) and (iv) qualify. Retrieval and rote rehearsal are the lowest rungs — useful, but they make no demand on judgement.

21.According to Jean Piaget, intelligence is the ability to make changes in __________, the basic building blocks for learning.

(1) Concepts
(2) Cognitive maps
(3) Schemas
(4) Associations

Why: Schemas are Piaget’s unit of knowledge, and intelligence for him is the ongoing adjustment of them through assimilation and accommodation. Cognitive maps come from Tolman and associations from behaviourism.

22.A constructivist classroom implies:

(1) Focus on reproduction of knowledge.
(2) Viewing learning as a passive process.
(3) Using multiple pedagogical strategies.
(4) Emphasis on the role of teacher as an instructor.

Why: If children build understanding in different ways, one method cannot serve them all, so a constructivist teacher works with several. The other three options describe the transmission classroom constructivism is defined against.

23.Dyslexia is a ___________.

(1) Developmental writing disorder
(2) Developmental reading disorder
(3) Developmental motor disorder
(4) Developmental autoimmune disorder

Why: Dyslexia affects the accurate and fluent reading of words. The writing equivalent is dysgraphia and the motor one is dyspraxia.

24.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Effective teaching involves presenting information to students in an organized manner and provide opportunities for discussion.
Reason (R): Learning is primarily a process of memorization and reproduction of information.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Organised presentation plus room for discussion is good teaching, so (A) stands. But (R) reduces learning to memorising and giving back, which is the view constructivism displaced — and it sits oddly with the discussion (A) itself calls for.

25.Which of the following is an effective teaching strategy for children with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder?

(1) Scheduling long and non-stop lectures
(2) Providing constant critical verbal feedback
(3) Giving tasks that require multi-tasking
(4) Using visual aids and hands-on activities

Why: Visual support and activity that involves the hands hold attention in short, concrete bursts, which is what a child with ADHD can sustain. Long lectures, constant criticism and multi-tasking all press on precisely the weak point.

26.Early symptoms of cerebral palsy can be identified by long delay in _____________.

(1) understanding and comprehension
(2) fine motor and gross motor skills
(3) reading and writing
(4) visual recognition of objects

Why: Cerebral palsy is a disorder of movement and posture, so the earliest signs are motor — late head control, sitting, crawling or walking, and difficulty with the small movements of the hands. Reading and writing come far too late to be early signs.

27.Development of children is:

(1) accurately predictable
(2) a simple unitary process
(3) disorderly and erratic
(4) a unified process

Why: The domains — physical, cognitive, social, emotional — move together and influence one another, which makes development unified without being simple. It follows a broad sequence, so it is not erratic, but individual variation makes it far from exactly predictable.

28.In Jean Piaget’s theory, intelligence is about the development of:

(1) Ability to use cultural tools
(2) Control over one’s basic instincts
(3) Emotional maturity
(4) Cognitive schemas

Why: For Piaget, growing intelligence is the building and reorganising of cognitive schemas. Cultural tools are Vygotsky’s, and control over instincts is Freud’s.

29.Which of the following order of presenting the concepts favours effective learning?

(1) Known to unknown
(2) Complex to simple
(3) Iconic to symbolic
(4) Abstract to concrete

Why: [KEY] The Board’s final key gives ‘iconic to symbolic’, following Bruner: a child works with images before handling symbols such as numerals and letters. ‘Known to unknown’ is the more familiar maxim and many teachers would pick option 1, but it is not what the key records. The remaining two options are both stated backwards.

30.Constructivist approaches of knowledge construction encourage students to:

(1) Rote-memorize the content.
(2) Interact and collaborate with peers.
(3) Follow singular way of solving a problem.
(4) Cast-off their cultural understandings.

Why: Knowledge is built in company — through talk, argument and joint work with peers. Rote learning, a single permitted method and discarding what a child brings from home all pull against that.

31.What is the sum of the next two numbers in the following pattern?
13, 17, 19, 23, 29, ____, ____

(1) 68
(2) 71
(3) 69
(4) 67

Why: The pattern is not built on a common difference — the gaps run 4, 2, 4, 6. These are consecutive prime numbers starting at 13. The next two primes after 29 are 31 and 37, and 31 + 37 = 68.

32.In Δ ABC, sides BC and BA are produced to D and E, respectively. If ∠ ACD = 120° and ∠ CAE = 130°, then what is the measure of ∠ ABC?

(1) 65°
(2) 70°
(3) 75°
(4) 80°

Why: Each given angle is an exterior angle, and an exterior angle equals the sum of the two remote interior angles. So ∠A + ∠B = 120° and ∠B + ∠C = 130°. The second gives ∠A = 180° − 130° = 50°, and substituting into the first leaves ∠B = 120° − 50° = 70°.

33.If 1001 × 121 = 11 × 12111 − 275 × ___________, then what is the number at the blank space?

(1) 42
(2) 88
(3) 44
(4) 22

Why: Work out both known products: 1001 × 121 = 121121 and 11 × 12111 = 133221. The blank must account for the gap, so 275 × ? = 133221 − 121121 = 12100, giving 12100 ÷ 275 = 44.

34.If 3024 = p⁴ × q³ × r, where p, q and r are prime numbers, then what is the value of (3p − 5q + r)?

(1) − 4
(2) − 2
(3) 0
(4) 2

Why: Factorising, 3024 = 2⁴ × 3³ × 7, so p = 2, q = 3 and r = 7. Then 3p − 5q + r = 6 − 15 + 7 = −2.

35.If the number of faces and edges of a polyhedron is 5 and 8 respectively, then the number of its vertices is:

(1) 8
(2) 5
(3) 10
(4) 15

Why: Apply Euler’s formula for polyhedra, F + V − E = 2. Substituting, 5 + V − 8 = 2, so V = 5.

36.If 112 ones + 12 thousands − 11012 = □ × 25, then the number in the place of □ is:

(1) 54
(2) 42
(3) 52
(4) 44

Why: 112 ones is 112 and 12 thousands is 12000, so the left side becomes 112 + 12000 − 11012 = 1100. Dividing, 1100 ÷ 25 = 44.

37.The LCM of 21, 36, and 66 is not a multiple of:

(1) 42
(2) 28
(3) 72
(4) 44

Why: The prime factorisations are 21 = 3 × 7, 36 = 2² × 3² and 66 = 2 × 3 × 11, giving an LCM of 2² × 3² × 7 × 11 = 2772. Since 72 needs 2³ and the LCM carries only 2², it cannot divide 2772. The other three all do.

38.The cost of 8 pens is ₹ 116 and the cost of 15 pencils is ₹ 67·50. Surbhi has one ₹ 200 note. If she buys 6 pens and 8 pencils, then how many rupees are left with her?

(1) ₹ 70
(2) ₹ 77
(3) ₹ 80
(4) ₹ 74

Why: One pen costs 116 ÷ 8 = ₹14·50 and one pencil costs 67·50 ÷ 15 = ₹4·50. Six pens come to ₹87 and eight pencils to ₹36, a total of ₹123. So 200 − 123 = ₹77 remains.

39.The internal length, breadth and height of a rectangular box are 12 cm, 10 cm and 7 cm, respectively. How many such boxes are needed to pack 6720 centimetre cubes?

(1) 7
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 8

Why: Each box holds 12 × 10 × 7 = 840 cubic centimetres, so it takes 840 one-centimetre cubes. Dividing, 6720 ÷ 840 = 8 boxes.

40.Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) Sum of two acute angles can be equal to a straight angle.
(2) Sum of two acute angles can be equal to a right angle.
(3) Sum of two acute angles can be equal to an obtuse angle.
(4) Sum of an acute angle and an obtuse angle can be equal to a straight angle.

Why: An acute angle is less than 90°, so two of them must total less than 180° and can never make a straight angle. The others all work: 30° + 60° = 90°, 50° + 60° = 110°, and 30° + 150° = 180°.

41.Ravi gives one-fourth of a pizza to Sonu and one-third of the remaining pizza to Priya. He then distributes the remaining pizza equally to Anu, Bobby and Cheema. What fraction of the whole pizza does Cheema get?

(1) ¹⁄₆
(2) ¹⁄₁₂
(3) ¹⁄₉
(4) ⁵⁄₃₆

Why: After Sonu takes one-fourth, three-fourths is left. Priya gets one-third of that, which is one-fourth of the whole, leaving one-half. Splitting one-half three ways gives each of Anu, Bobby and Cheema one-sixth. The trap is reading “one-third of the remaining” as one-third of the whole.

The following table shows the number of students in School ABC, present on different days of a week. Study the table and answer the question:

Days	Number of students present
Monday	382
Tuesday	390
Wednesday	405
Thursday	411
Friday	388

42.The total number of students present on Tuesday and Thursday exceeds the total number of students present on Monday and Friday by:

(1) 37
(2) 31
(3) 32
(4) 33

Why: Tuesday and Thursday together give 390 + 411 = 801. Monday and Friday give 382 + 388 = 770. The excess is 801 − 770 = 31. Wednesday is not needed and is there to distract.

43.The difference between the remainder obtained on dividing 2002 by 101 and dividing 2201 by 102 lies between:

(1) 25 and 30
(2) 20 and 25
(3) 15 and 20
(4) 30 and 35

Why: Since 101 × 19 = 1919, dividing 2002 by 101 leaves 83. Since 102 × 21 = 2142, dividing 2201 by 102 leaves 59. The difference is 83 − 59 = 24, which falls between 20 and 25.

44.The weight of 20 laddoos is 1 kg. If 8 laddoos can be packed in one box, then how many boxes are required to pack 50 kg laddoos?

(1) 150
(2) 100
(3) 120
(4) 125

Why: At 20 laddoos to the kilogram, 50 kg holds 20 × 50 = 1000 laddoos. Packing 8 to a box needs 1000 ÷ 8 = 125 boxes.

45.Which of the following statements is/are true?
(i) The number of minutes in 6 days is equal to number of seconds in 2²⁄₅ hours.
(ii) The number of minutes in 10 days is equal to the number of minutes in 120 hours.
(iii) The number of seconds in 2 hours is equal to the number of minutes in 5 days.
(iv) The number of hours in 5 days is equal to the number of seconds in 2 minutes.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (iii) only
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i) and (iii) only
(4) (ii) and (iii) only

Why: Check each: 6 days is 8640 minutes and 2²⁄₅ hours is 2·4 × 3600 = 8640 seconds, so (i) holds. 10 days is 14400 minutes but 120 hours is only 7200 minutes, so (ii) fails. 2 hours is 7200 seconds and 5 days is 7200 minutes, so (iii) holds. 5 days is 120 hours and 2 minutes is 120 seconds, so (iv) holds.

A primary class mathematics teacher gave his students the following problem to solve:
“If the price of one toy car is ₹ 50, then what would be the cost of 25 such toy cars?”
One of the students responded, “Ten cars will be ₹ 500; twenty cars will be ₹ 1,000; five cars will be ₹ 250; so the total cost is ₹ 1,250.”

46.What are the heuristics used by the student in the above algorithm?

(1) The commutative law of addition
(2) Decomposition and associative law
(3) Decomposition and repeated groupings
(4) The associative law of multipliation

Why: The child broke 25 into manageable parts — that is decomposition — and built each part by grouping tens and fives rather than multiplying directly. No formal law of association or commutation is being applied; the strategy is informal grouping.

47.‘Each prime number has only two factors.’ Which method is most appropriate to be followed to prove it in Class VI?

(1) Deductive method
(2) Synthesis method
(3) Inductive method
(4) Analysis method

Why: At Class VI the natural route is to list factors of several primes, notice the pattern, and generalise from it — moving from particular cases to a rule, which is the inductive method. A deductive proof from definitions is beyond the stage.

48.If a line is transversal to three lines, then how many angles will be formed?

(1) 3
(2) 12
(3) 9
(4) 6

Why: The transversal crosses each of the three lines at a separate point, and every crossing of two lines produces four angles. That gives 3 × 4 = 12 angles in all.

49.Who is the inventor of Multi-base Arithmetic Blocks (MAB) — mathematical manipulatives that can be used by students to build number sense, understand addition, place value and counting?

(1) Zoltán Dienes
(2) Van Hiele
(3) Hans Freudenthal
(4) Magdalene Lampert

Why: Zoltán Dienes designed the base blocks, which are still often called Dienes blocks. Van Hiele is associated with levels of geometric thinking and Freudenthal with realistic mathematics education.

A student has solved the problem on subtraction in the following way:

  604
−  86
  524

50.Choose the most apropriate option in the light of solution given by the student:

(1) The student has done a careless mistake.
(2) The student has extended the algorithm of addition to subtraction.
(3) The student does not know how to do subtraction of two numbers.
(4) The student has regrouped both the places of tens and ones as ‘10’.

Why: Trace the digits and the error is systematic, not careless. The child treated the ones place as 10 and got 10 − 6 = 4, treated the tens place as 10 and got 10 − 8 = 2, then reduced the hundreds by one to give 5 — producing 524 instead of 518. The regrouping rule has been misapplied consistently.

51.‘Infinite series of π’ was invented by __________.

(1) Mahavira
(2) Aryabhata
(3) Ramanujan
(4) Bhaskara I

Why: Srinivasa Ramanujan produced the rapidly converging infinite series for π that still underpin modern high-precision computation of its digits. Aryabhata gave an accurate approximation rather than a series.

52.Which of the following are the misconceptions regarding Comprehensive and Continuous Evaluation (CCE)?
(i) CCE is nothing but converts marks into grades.
(ii) Teachers have to give home assignment every day to assess children’s learning.
(iii) It helps in reducing stress and anxiety in mathematics.
(iv) In CCE, assessment is a part of teaching and learning.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (iv) only

Why: Statements (iii) and (iv) describe what CCE actually is and does, so they are not misconceptions. The first two are the familiar misreadings — that CCE merely relabels marks as grades, and that continuous assessment means daily written homework.

53.Madhu has begun to reason logically and can perform conservation-based activities mentally. According to Jean Piaget, in which stage of cognitive development is Madhu?

(1) Formal-operational
(2) Pre-operational
(3) Concrete-operational
(4) Sensori-motor

Why: [KEY] The Board’s final key records ‘Formal-operational’. On the question as printed, conservation and logical reasoning about concrete situations are the hallmarks of the concrete-operational stage, option 3, which is what most teachers would answer. Formal-operational thinking is about hypothetical and abstract reasoning, which the question does not describe. Answer option 1 if you are matching the official key.

“If the price of a shirt is ₹ 800 and the shopkeeper sells it at a discount of 16%, what will be the selling price?” Two of the students of Class VI, answered it in the following ways:

Student I: Selling price = ₹ 800 − 16% of ₹ 800
= ₹ 800 − ₹ (80 + 48)
= ₹ 800 − ₹ 128 = ₹ 672

Student II: Selling price = ₹ 800 − 16% of ₹ 800
= ₹ 800 − ₹ (^{800 × 16}⁄₁₀₀)
= ₹ 800 − ₹ 8 × 16
= ₹ 800 − ₹ 128 = ₹ 672

54.Which of the following is most appropriate for the above situation?

(1) Mathematical processes used by both student I and student II are correct, but process used by student I cannot be used in the examination.
(2) Mathematical process used by student I is incorrect.
(3) Mathematical processes used by both student I and student II are correct.
(4) Mathematical process used by only student II is correct.

Why: Student I split 16% into 10% and 6%, giving 80 + 48 = 128 — a valid mental strategy. Student II used the standard formula and reached the same figure. Both are mathematically sound, and there is no basis for ruling either out of an examination.

55.Which of the following is not true for anecdotal records as a tool for assessment?

(1) Refers to written descriptions of a child’s progress that a teacher keeps on a daily basis
(2) Includes many interesting classroom events
(3) It is a collection of a child’s selected best pieces of work
(4) Provides observational narrative records of significant incidents in a child’s life

Why: A collection of selected best work is a portfolio, not an anecdotal record. Anecdotal records are the teacher’s own written observations of incidents as they happen — narrative, dated and descriptive.

56.National Education Policy, 2020 (NEP 2020) does not lay emphasis on ____________.

(1) Conceptual understanding
(2) Experiential learning
(3) Learning through activities
(4) Rote learning

Why: NEP 2020 explicitly moves away from rote memorisation towards conceptual understanding, experiential learning and activity-based work. The other three are among its stated priorities.

57.Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) The Hindu-Arabic numeration system is based on the concept of place value that uses ten as a ‘base’.
(2) There is no distinction between a ‘number’ and a ‘numeral’.
(3) One-to-one correspondence is a pre-number concept.
(4) In Hindu-Arabic numeration system, all numbers can be represented using a finite set of digits.

Why: A number is the idea of quantity; a numeral is the written symbol that stands for it. The quantity five can be written as 5, V or ५ — one number, several numerals — so the distinction is real and statement (2) is false.

58.Identify the most appropriate strategy to introduce the concept of multiplication at primary level.

(1) They should be introduced to multiplication symbol.
(2) They should be told to practice at least 10 multiplication problems every day.
(3) Children should be told to memorize multiplication tables till 20.
(4) Children need to be given ample day-to-day examples of multiplication as repetitive addition.

Why: Multiplication is best introduced through the meaning it carries — repeated addition met in familiar everyday situations. Symbols, drill and memorised tables come after the concept is understood, not before.

59.Identify the statement which is not correct among the following:

(1) Mathematics is not the study of algorithms only.
(2) Mathematics is the study of patterns.
(3) Estimation is not a mathematical skill.
(4) Mathematics helps in solving problems.

Why: Estimation is very much a mathematical skill, and an important one — it lets a learner judge whether an answer is reasonable before checking it exactly. The other three statements are all sound.

60.Which of the following represents a non-traditional view of mathematics education at primary level?

(1) It is to prepare learners for higher mathematics.
(2) It is about making sense of mathematical objects, data, spatial forms and patterns.
(3) It is about rules and methods of solving problems.
(4) It is a set of problems to be solved in a prescribed manner.

Why: The traditional view treats mathematics as rules, prescribed procedures and preparation for later study. Treating it instead as making sense of quantity, shape, data and pattern is the shift the question is pointing at.

61.Which of the following are used for “Cheraw”, a special dance form of Mizoram?

(1) Clay pots, Wooden clubs
(2) Bamboo sticks, Drums
(3) Whistle, Dhol
(4) Bamboo sticks, Flute

Why: Cheraw is the Mizo bamboo dance. Pairs of long bamboo staves are tapped and clapped together in rhythm while dancers step between them, and the beat is carried by drums and gongs. Both options with bamboo are half right, so the accompanying instrument decides it.

62.Which one of the following products is not obtained from Petroleum?

(1) Kerosene oil
(2) Wax
(3) Grease
(4) Jatropa oil

Why: Jatropha oil is pressed from the seeds of the jatropha plant and is used as a biodiesel feedstock, so its origin is a crop rather than a well. Kerosene, wax and grease all come out of the refining of crude petroleum.

63.Which of the following statements is true about weaver birds?

(1) They are only found in South America.
(2) They are nocturnal birds.
(3) The male and female weaver birds together make beautifully woven nests.
(4) The female bird chooses the nest she likes the most and decides to lay her eggs there.

Why: The male weaver builds the nest alone, often several of them, and the female then inspects his work and settles on the one she prefers. That is why option (3) fails — the weaving is not joint work — while option (4) describes what actually happens.

64.When moist bread is kept in a closed container for 3 – 4 days, greenish black patches grow on bread. The greenish black patches growing on it is ___________.

(1) Mushroom
(2) Bacteria
(3) Yeast
(4) Bread Mold

Why: Bread mould is a fungus that thrives on damp bread in warm, closed conditions, showing first as cottony growth and then as green-black patches once it produces spores. Yeast and bacteria do not form visible patches like this.

Match the Classical dances with the States associated:

Classical Dance	State
A. Bharatanatyam	i. Andhra Pradesh
B. Kathak	ii. Kerala
C. Mohiniattam	iii. Uttar Pradesh
D. Kuchipudi	iv. Tamil Nadu

65.Choose the correct option from the following:

(1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

Why: Bharatanatyam belongs to Tamil Nadu, Kathak to Uttar Pradesh, Mohiniattam to Kerala and Kuchipudi to Andhra Pradesh — the last two are the ones most often swapped, since both are southern and similarly named village-derived forms.

66.The bordering states of Madhya Pradesh are:

(1) Gujarat, Chhattisgarh, Bihar
(2) Rajasthan, Gujarat, Haryana
(3) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat
(4) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Jharkhand

Why: Madhya Pradesh touches Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Chhattisgarh. Each wrong option smuggles in one state that does not touch it — Bihar, Haryana and Jharkhand respectively.

Consider the following description of the common houses built in a part of our country:
“Houses made of stones or wood with slanting roofs”.

67.This part is:

(1) Assam
(2) Ladakh
(3) Rajasthan
(4) Himachal Pradesh

Why: A slanting roof sheds heavy snow and rain, which is why it is standard in the Himalayan hill states, and stone and timber are the materials at hand there. Ladakh is cold but very dry, so its houses have flat roofs; Assam favours raised bamboo houses and Rajasthan thick mud walls.

68.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Bhimbetka is famous for caves and shelters.
Reason (R): These rock shelters are close to the Narmada Valley.

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Both statements are factually correct — Bhimbetka is known for its rock shelters and prehistoric paintings, and it does lie near the Narmada valley. But being near a valley is a location, not a reason for fame, so the second cannot explain the first.

A doctor is located at X and his clinic is located at Y. Since there is no straight road between the two locations, the doctor first goes to A which is about 250 m due South of X, then goes to B which is about 400 m due East of A, then to C which is about 125 m South of B, and finally reaches the clinic at Y which is about 650 m due West of C.

69.With respect to the clinic at Y, the actual direction of the doctor’s house at X is:

(1) South-West
(2) North-East
(3) South-East
(4) North-West

Why: Track the movement on a grid from X. Going 250 m south then 125 m south puts the clinic 375 m below X, and going 400 m east then 650 m west puts it 250 m to the left of X. So Y sits south-west of X, which means X sits north-east of Y. The trap is answering from X’s point of view instead of the clinic’s.

70.Which of the following look after and guard the ants’ nest?

(1) Soldier Ants
(2) Pharaoh Ant
(3) Queen Ant
(4) Worker Ants

Why: Soldier ants are the larger-jawed caste whose task is defending the colony and its nest against intruders. The queen only lays eggs, and Pharaoh ant is the name of a species rather than a role within the nest.

71.Consider the following statements:
(i) Dr. Beaumont is the person who on the basis of his experiments found many secrets about digestion of food.
(ii) He found that a stomach churns the food to digest it with the help of digestive juices secreted by it.
(iii) He also found that the juice in our stomach is basic.
(iv) Dr. Beaumont did experiments on the stomach of the same person for nineteen years.
The correct statements are:

(1) (ii) and (iv)
(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (ii)

Why: Statement (iii) is the clear error: gastric juice is strongly acidic, not basic. That rules out option (2), and since (i) and (ii) are both plainly true, the pair must be option (4). The nineteen-year figure in (iv) overstates the length of Beaumont’s study.

72.Consider the following statements and select which one of the statements is not correct.

(1) A herd usually has 10 to 12 female elephants and young ones.
(2) Oldest female elephant is the leader of the herd.
(3) An elephant herd has only females and baby elephants.
(4) Male elephants leave the herd when they are 24-25 years old.

Why: The other three match the standard description of a matriarchal elephant herd. The age at which young males leave is far lower than stated here — they separate in their mid-teens, not in their mid-twenties.

73.Gandhiji went on a long march called ‘Dandi March’ in 1930 to break the Salt law imposed by the British. His march (yatra) was from ___________ to ___________ in Gujarat.

(1) Dandi seashore, Ahmedabad
(2) Ahmedabad, Dandi seashore
(3) Ahmedabad, Gandhi Nagar
(4) Gandhi Nagar, Sabarmati

Why: The march set out from Sabarmati Ashram at Ahmedabad and ended at the coastal village of Dandi, where Gandhiji broke the salt law by picking up salt from the shore. Option (1) has the right two places in the wrong order.

74.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Sometimes, kings got their orders inscribed so that people could see, read and obey them.
Reason (A): There are other kinds of inscriptions as well where kings and queens recorded what they did.

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Both statements about inscriptions are true. But the second simply adds a further category of inscription; it does nothing to explain why rulers had their orders carved up for public reading, so it is not the explanation of the first.

75.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Solar energy and Tidal energy are called renewable energy sources.
Reason (R): Non-renewable energy sources take thousands of years to be renewed.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Why: Solar and tidal energy renew themselves continuously, so (A) is true, and (R) correctly states why the label matters — non-renewable sources take thousands of years to form, which is the contrast that defines the renewable category. The key treats (R) as the explanation of (A).

Dev is teaching environmental issues to class V children. He takes the children of his class for field trips. For assessment of children, he seeks to use an assessment tool that clearly indicates achievement criteria in all components of children’s work of any kind, from written to oral.

76.Which of the following is an assessment tool?

(1) Rating Scale
(2) Rubrics
(3) Narratives of teachers
(4) Check-list

Why: A rubric sets out the criteria for each component of the work together with descriptions of what each level of achievement looks like, which is exactly what the question describes. A checklist only records presence or absence, and a rating scale gives a number without stating the criteria.

77.For studying environmental issues, a teacher tells the story of the stomach of the mosquito in the words of a scientist. Which of the following is the most appropriate reason to have this story in the textbook?

(1) Telling children what the scientific process is and after which tireless efforts the scientists complete their discovery.
(2) Very small bacteria are seen with a microscope.
(3) Malaria spreads only through mosquitoes.
(4) Ronald Ross got a big prize in the field of medicine in 1902.

Why: The point of narrating the discovery in the scientist’s own voice is to let children see how science is actually done — the patient observation and repeated attempts behind a finding. The other options are isolated facts, not reasons for choosing a story format.

78.Which of the following should not be the most appropriate while studying the world around as?

(1) Teacher centered approach
(2) Development of qualities like problem solving
(3) Development of positive attitude and values
(4) Child centered approach

Why: EVS is built on children exploring their own surroundings, so a teacher-centred approach works against the subject. The other three are all aims the subject is meant to serve.

79.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Conversations with people with different understanding on the same subject make us feel the need to think more critically so that our knowledge is refined.
Reason (R): According to constructivism, the process of knowledge creation is basically a social process, in which the views and beliefs of others play an important role.

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Here the reason genuinely does the explanatory work. Because constructivism treats knowledge building as a social process in which other people’s views matter, encountering a different understanding is precisely what pushes a learner to think harder and refine what they know.

Which of the following should be an objective of studying the environment by children? Fill in the blanks given in this objective by choosing the appropriate options given below in the correct order:
To enhance the child’s ____________ understanding and efficiency so that curiosity about ____________ facts is awakened in him, which is helpful in moving from ____________ environment to ____________ environment.

80.Choose the correct option:

(1) Psychodynamic, Familial, Social, Natural
(2) Cognitive, Social, Familial, Extended
(3) Social, Cognitive, Extended, Familial
(4) Emotional, Natural, Cultural, Social

Why: Read the sentence with each set inserted and only one holds together: cognitive understanding, curiosity about social facts, and movement outward from the familial to the extended environment. The last pair is the giveaway — EVS always widens from home to the world beyond, never the reverse.

81.Which of the following is not the appropriate indicator for assessment in studying environmental issues?

(1) Discussion
(2) Observation
(3) Analysis
(4) Remembering

Why: EVS assessment looks at what a child does with their surroundings — observing, discussing and analysing. Recall of memorised content sits outside that, and is the one indicator the subject deliberately moves away from.

82.A good EVS teacher always talks about environmental issues by taking examples from the children’s environment. This environment of children helps a lot in their learning. This environment of the child is ____________.

(1) Tertiary context
(2) Secondary context
(3) Natural context
(4) Primary context

Why: The child’s immediate surroundings — home, family, street, school — form the primary context, the first-hand world learning starts from. Contexts further out are secondary and tertiary.

83.Many messages related to the environment can be given through puppets, but for this, the teacher should train the children and develop special skills. Which of the following strategies by the teacher for making puppets in the classroom can motivate the children to make puppets?
(i) Make small groups of children so that fear and hesitation can be removed from among them.
(ii) Promote the development of children’s self-confidence and positive thinking skills.
(iii) Create a structured environment for the children in the classroom.
(iv) Create a competitive environment for puppet making in the class.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (i) and (iv)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (iii) and (iv)

Why: Small groups lower the fear of trying, and building confidence keeps children willing to attempt something new. Competition in (iv) discourages the hesitant child, and a tightly structured environment in (iii) leaves little room for the creativity puppet-making depends on.

84.As per the theme “Travel” given in NCERT textbook, children are made to understand the technology, design, use of metals, etc. of the olden times through historical buildings. Which general objective of studying the environment is being achieved through this theme?

(1) Making a report on how the survey of the buildings is done
(2) Estimating and measuring work as a preparatory step, keeping in view the development of quantitative skills in later stages
(3) Filling out the map of historical buildings
(4) Connecting children with the experiences of identifying directions

Why: Only option (2) is phrased as a general objective of the subject; the others describe particular classroom activities. Looking at how old buildings were designed and constructed draws children into estimating sizes and materials, which lays groundwork for quantitative skills later on.

85.The curriculum of EVS can be made much richer and more creative only if it is based on the principle of moving from the concrete to the abstract. Which of the following is indicating the principle of concrete to abstract in the context of learning EVS?
(i) The knowledge of the class should be linked to the children’s own life experience.
(ii) The natural and social environment of the child should be explained first.
(iii) Emphasis should be placed on the need to protect the child’s natural environment.
(iv) Emphasis should be given on the participation of children in the knowledge construction of children.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (i) and (iv)
(2) (i) only
(3) (ii) only
(4) (ii) and (iii)

Why: Concrete to abstract means starting from what the child has actually lived. Statement (i) ties class knowledge to the child’s own experience and (iv) puts the child inside the knowledge-building, which is how the concrete becomes abstract. Statement (ii) has the teacher explaining first, and (iii) is about conservation rather than sequence.

86.Which one of the following learning indicators is related to the “expression” area of assessment?

(1) Expressing ideas through pictures
(2) Participation
(3) Hypothesising
(4) Prediction

Why: Expression covers the ways a child communicates what they think — through drawing, speaking or writing. Hypothesising and prediction belong to the enquiry indicators, and participation to involvement.

87.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): In environmental studies, the actions of children are not to be judged as right/wrong. Children should get a chance to express their views, report observations and express their own experiences. Such a recommendation has been made by the National Curriculum Framework 2005 and 2023.
Reason (R): The National Curriculum Framework 2005 and 2023 recommend qualitative assessment of children.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Why: The reason supplies exactly why the assertion holds. Qualitative assessment means describing what a child does and thinks rather than scoring it right or wrong, so the recommendation in the assertion follows directly from it.

88.Experiments with water develop various process skills in children. Which one of the following is not a process skill?

(1) Retrieving facts
(2) Analyzing
(3) Discussion
(4) Drawing conclusions

Why: Process skills are the things a child does while investigating — observing, discussing, analysing, concluding. Retrieving facts is recall of what is already stored, so no process of enquiry is involved.

89.Which one of the following sub-themes related to “Food” should be most suitable for class III children?

(1) Cooking food and eating with family
(2) What carnivorous animals eat?
(3) When food gets spoiled
(4) From farm to market

Why: At Class III the curriculum stays close to the child’s own life, and eating with the family is something every child has direct experience of. The other three ask the child to reason about processes and places outside their immediate world, which come in later classes.

90.Many social issues have been kept in the NCERT Environmental Studies textbooks like who does the cleaning in the school/house, with whom the children share water/food. For such social issues, what should be the pedagogy of studying environment?
(i) The teacher should not impose his/her views on the children about what is right and what is wrong.
(ii) Allow free sharing of children’s experiences and ideas.
(iii) Such social issues should definitely be discussed in the class but should not be discussed too much.
(iv) Children feel that such experiences have happened not only to them.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Why: Statement (iii) is the odd one out — limiting how much a sensitive social issue is discussed defeats the purpose of raising it. The other three describe an open classroom where the teacher withholds judgement, children speak freely, and each child realises their experience is shared.

91.कक्षा-तीन की अध्यापिका पूरे सत्र के दौरान अपने विद्यार्थियों से अपठित अनुच्छेद, कार्यपत्रक, लेखन कार्य, चित्र वर्णन गतिविधियाँ, कविता पाठ व कथा वाचन करवाती है। उसने सभी शिक्षार्थियों के प्रदर्शन उपलब्धि के सभी रिकॉर्ड रखे हैं और उन्हें उनकी समग्र उपलब्धि प्रदर्शन में शामिल करेगी। आकलन के इस प्रकार के रिकॉर्ड को क्या कहेंगे?

(1) पोर्टफोलियो
(2) योगात्मक आकलन
(3) रचनात्मक आकलन
(4) प्रदर्शन

Why: [KEY] आधिकारिक उत्तरकुंजी में ‘रचनात्मक आकलन’ दिया गया है — अर्थात् सत्र के दौरान, सीखने के साथ-साथ किया जाने वाला आकलन। पूरे सत्र में एकत्र किए गए कार्य के संग्रह को सामान्यतः पोर्टफोलियो (विकल्प 1) कहा जाता है और अनेक शिक्षक यही उत्तर देंगे। परीक्षा की दृष्टि से विकल्प 3 ही मान्य है।

92.एक बालिका अपनी रुचि की कहानी की पुस्तक पढ़ती है। इस प्रकार के पठन को क्या कहेंगे?

(1) विस्तृत पठन (एक्सटैंसिव)
(2) गहन पठन (इंटैन्सिव)
(3) सरसरी तौर पर पठन (स्किमिंग)
(4) बारीकी से पठन (स्कैनिंग)

Why: विस्तृत पठन अपनी पसंद से, आनंद के लिए और बड़ी मात्रा में किया जाने वाला पठन है, जिसमें पाठ का सूक्ष्म विश्लेषण नहीं होता। गहन पठन इसके विपरीत है — छोटा पाठ, बारीकी से।

93.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा बुनियादी चरण में कहानी पठन का उद्देश्य नहीं होना चाहिए?

(1) प्रत्यक्ष रूप से नैतिक मूल्य बताना
(2) पठन कौशलों का संवर्धन करना
(3) पठन की संस्कृति विकसित करना
(4) शब्द संपदा का संवर्धन करना

Why: कहानी को केवल उपदेश देने का साधन बना देने से पठन का आनंद समाप्त हो जाता है, जबकि यही आनंद बच्चे को पाठक बनाता है। शेष तीनों इस चरण पर कहानी पढ़ने के वास्तविक उद्देश्य हैं।

94.एक बालिका एक अपठित अनुच्छेद पढ़ती है। उसे इस अपठित अनुच्छेद के बाद दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने हैं। इस प्रकार के पठन को क्या कहेंगे?

(1) सरसरी तौर पर पठन (स्किमिंग)
(2) बारीकी से पठन (स्कैनिंग)
(3) विशिष्ट पठन (एक्सक्लूसिव)
(4) विस्तृत पठन (एक्सटैन्सिव)

Why: किसी विशेष सूचना को खोजने के लिए पढ़ना स्कैनिंग कहलाता है, और प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने के लिए यही करना पड़ता है। स्किमिंग में केवल समग्र भाव ग्रहण किया जाता है।

95.पठन कौशलों पर दिए गए कथन पढ़िए:
A. पठन केवल डिकोड करने की योग्यता भर है।
B. बच्चे पठन की क्रिया में संलग्न होकर पठन सीखते हैं।
उपयुक्त विकल्प का चयन कीजिए:

(1) केवल B सही है।
(2) केवल A सही है।
(3) A और B दोनों सही हैं।
(4) A और B दोनों ग़लत हैं।

Why: डिकोडिंग पठन का एक अंश भर है; अर्थ-ग्रहण उसका मूल है, इसलिए A ग़लत है। B सही है — बच्चे पढ़ते हुए ही पढ़ना सीखते हैं।

96.प्रक्रिया लेखन उपागम में पूर्व-लेखन क्या है?

(1) लेखन प्रक्रिया का वह तत्त्व है जिसके दौरान लेखक समझ बनाते हैं कि उन्होंने क्या लिखा है और विषय-वस्तु में परिवर्तन करते हैं।
(2) लेखन प्रक्रिया का वह तत्त्व है जिसमें लेखक संभाव्य टॉपिक और लेखन विचारों की उत्पत्ति करते हैं।
(3) लेखन प्रक्रिया का वह तत्त्व जिसके दौरान लेखक औपचारिक रूप से अपना कार्य पाठकों तक साझा करते हैं।
(4) लेखन प्रक्रिया का वह तत्त्व है जिसके दौरान लेखक प्रारंभिक विचारों की पहचान करते हैं।

Why: पूर्व-लेखन वह चरण है जब कोई प्रारूप बना ही नहीं होता और लेखक विषय तथा विचार टटोलता है। विकल्प 1 पुनरीक्षण है और विकल्प 3 प्रकाशन।

97.एक कक्षा में यह प्रयास किया जाता है कि बच्चों का ध्यान भाषा के स्वरूप पर जाए। इसके लिए दीवारों, कक्षा पुस्तकालय, ऑडियो व वीडियो सभी का प्रयोग किया जाता है। इसे किस रूप में वर्णित करेंगे?

(1) भाषा बोधगम्यता
(2) निवेश समृद्ध परिवेश
(3) इन्द्रियों के माध्यम से भाषा अभ्यास
(4) भाषा अर्जन

Why: दीवारों पर छपी सामग्री, पास रखी पुस्तकें और ऑडियो-वीडियो मिलकर बच्चे को भाषा से घेर देते हैं। भाषा की इसी प्रचुर उपलब्धता को निवेश समृद्ध परिवेश कहते हैं।

98.नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, जिनमें एक को अभिकथन (A) तथा दूसरे को कारण (R) के रूप में अंकित किया गया है। कथनों को पढ़िए और सही विकल्प चुनिए।
अभिकथन (A): भाषा सम्प्रेषण के लिए एक प्रभावशाली उपकरण है।
कारण (R): भाषा सामाजिक संदेश सम्प्रेषित करने में मदद करती है।

(1) (A) सही है, लेकिन (R) ग़लत है।
(2) (A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं, लेकिन (A) की (R) सही व्याख्या नहीं करता है।
(3) (A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं और (A) की (R) सही व्याख्या करता है।
(4) (R) सही है, लेकिन (A) ग़लत है।

Why: दोनों कथन सही हैं और दूसरा पहले का कारण भी बताता है — भाषा सम्प्रेषण का प्रभावी उपकरण इसीलिए है क्योंकि वह सामाजिक अर्थ को एक व्यक्ति से दूसरे तक पहुँचाती है।

99.एक अध्यापक कुछ क्रियाएँ (एक्शन) करता है, शिक्षार्थियों को निर्देशानुसार उनका अनुपालन करना है। शिक्षार्थियों से अपेक्षा है कि वे किसी भी प्रकार का भाषिक व्यवहार न करें। इस विधि को क्या कहा जाएगा?

(1) ड्रामा
(2) कुल भौतिक प्रतिक्रिया
(3) सम्प्रेषणात्मक उपागम
(4) अनुकरण विधि

Why: कुल भौतिक प्रतिक्रिया (टोटल फ़िज़िकल रिस्पॉन्स) में शिक्षार्थी निर्देशों पर शारीरिक प्रतिक्रिया देते हैं और बोलना अपने समय पर आता है। यह मौन अवधि विधि का सुनियोजित अंग है।

100.एक अध्यापक का यह मानना है कि मुक्त लेखन द्वारा उसके विद्यार्थियों को अपने भाषायी कौशल पुष्ट करने में मदद मिलेगी। मुक्त लेखन को लेखन के किस रूप में जाना जा सकता है?

(1) वह लेखन जो किसी भी नि:शुल्क स्रोत से लिया गया हो।
(2) वह लेखन जो इस बात पर आधारित है कि जो भी मस्तिष्क में आए उसे नियमों पर ध्यान दिए बगैर नोट किया जाए।
(3) वह लेखन जो मुक्त चित्रकारी पर निर्भर करता हो।
(4) वह लेखन जो किसी स्वच्छन्द स्रोत के लिए योजित व लिखा जाए, जिसमें व्याकरणिक रूप से सही वाक्यों पर ध्यान दिया जाए।

Why: मुक्त लेखन में बिना रुके और बिना सुधारे लिखा जाता है, ताकि विचार रूप और व्याकरण की चिंता में अटके बिना बाहर आ सकें। शुद्धता पर ध्यान बाद में दिया जाता है।

101.कौन-सा उपागम सावधानीपूर्वक चयनित और स्तरवार सामग्री का प्रयोग करता है?

(1) संरचनात्मक उपागम
(2) रचनावादी उपागम
(3) कौशल आधारित उपागम
(4) सम्प्रेषणात्मक उपागम

Why: कौन-सी संरचनाएँ पढ़ाई जाएँ और किस क्रम में — इसी चयन और स्तर-निर्धारण पर संरचनात्मक उपागम टिका हुआ है।

102.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा भाषायी विकार डिस्लेक्सिया (पठन वैकल्य) का लक्षण है?

(1) अक्षरों/शब्दों के मध्य असंगत स्पेस
(2) पठन में उलटाव
(3) अक्षरों की आकृति बनाने में कठिनाई
(4) विद्यार्थी मौखिक कौशलों में तो अच्छे हैं परन्तु लेखन कौशलों में कमज़ोर हैं

Why: पढ़ते समय अक्षरों और शब्दों का उलट जाना डिस्लेक्सिया का प्रमुख लक्षण है। शेष तीनों लेखन से जुड़े हैं और डिसग्राफ़िया की ओर संकेत करते हैं।

103.उद्गामी साक्षरता के किस सिद्धान्त को वायगोत्सकी का समर्थन नहीं मिला है?

(1) बालक निर्देशित खोजबीन
(2) सहयोगात्मक अधिगम
(3) वयस्क निर्देशित अधिगम
(4) ड्रिल और अभ्यास

Why: ड्रिल व्यवहारवाद की देन है। वायगोत्सकी की साक्षरता सामाजिक है — बालक की खोजबीन, साथियों के साथ काम और अधिक जानकार वयस्क का मार्गदर्शन।

104.बोधगम्य निवेश में क्या शामिल है?

(1) विभिन्न प्रकार की तकनीकों का प्रयोग जैसे कि हाव-भाव, देह-भाषा, चित्र और वस्तुएँ
(2) कक्षा में उद्देश्यों की लिखित प्रस्तुति
(3) विद्यार्थियों का उपयुक्त रूप से समूहीकरण
(4) अभिभावकों के लिए पाठ्यक्रम और भाषा उद्देश्यों की लिखित प्रस्तुति जिससे कि उन्हें पता रहे कि उनके बच्चों को क्या पढ़ाया जाता है

Why: निवेश तभी बोधगम्य है जब शिक्षार्थी उसका अर्थ समझ सके, और हाव-भाव, चित्र तथा वस्तुएँ ही वह साधन हैं जिनसे शिक्षक अर्थ को बच्चे की वर्तमान भाषा-सीमा के पार पहुँचाता है।

105.व्याकरण शिक्षण का निगमनात्मक उपागम कहता है कि हमें पहले ___________।

(1) नियम प्रस्तुत करने चाहिए
(2) सम्प्रेषण हेतु अभ्यास के अवसर देने चाहिए
(3) ड्रिल के माध्यम से अभ्यास करवाना चाहिए
(4) उदाहरण प्रस्तुत करने चाहिए

Why: निगमनात्मक शिक्षण सामान्य से विशिष्ट की ओर चलता है — पहले नियम, फिर उसका उदाहरणों पर प्रयोग। उदाहरणों से नियम तक पहुँचना आगमनात्मक उपागम है।

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106.कैलाश प्रतिदिन स्वामीजी के दर्शन के लिए आता था क्योंकि:

(1) उसे स्वामीजी की सेवा करना अच्छा लगता था
(2) स्वामीजी प्रसिद्ध व्यक्ति थे
(3) उसे स्वामीजी के प्रति आस्था थी
(4) उसे वहाँ आना अच्छा लगता था

Why: गद्यांश में स्पष्ट कहा गया है कि कैलाश की स्वामीजी पर बड़ी श्रद्धा थी। श्रद्धा अर्थात् आस्था ही उसके प्रतिदिन आने का कारण है।

107.‘स्वामी दयानंद ने गंगा किनारे एक झोपड़ी में डेरा डाल रखा था। एक प्रकार से वह एकांतवास कर रहे थे।’ वाक्य से आशय है:

(1) स्वामीजी को अकेले रहना अच्छा लगता था
(2) स्वामीजी गंगा किनारे अकेले रह रहे थे
(3) स्वामीजी को सांसारिक बातें बहुत अप्रिय थीं
(4) स्वामीजी गंगा किनारे नगर की भीड़-भाड़ से दूर रहना चाहते थे

Why: एकांतवास का सीधा अर्थ है अकेले रहना। शेष विकल्प उनकी रुचि या अरुचि के बारे में अनुमान लगाते हैं, जो वाक्य में कहीं नहीं है।

108.स्वामीजी गंगा किनारे साधना कर रहे थे क्योंकि:

(1) वे मोक्ष प्राप्त करना चाहते थे
(2) वे जीवन से शांतिपूर्वक मुक्ति पाना चाहते थे
(3) वे मोक्ष प्राप्ति में विश्वास नहीं रखते थे
(4) वे स्वयं के साथ अन्यों को भी मोक्ष दिलाना चाहते थे

Why: स्वामीजी स्वयं कहते हैं कि वे मुक्त होंगे तो सबको साथ लेकर, अन्यथा उन्हें मुक्ति नहीं चाहिए। विकल्प 1 और 2 का खंडन वे स्वयं कर देते हैं।

109.गद्यांश के अनुसार स्वामी दयानंद जी को संसार की चिंता थी क्योंकि:

(1) संसार में शांति थी
(2) संसार में सभी जन सुखपूर्वक रह रहे थे
(3) संसार में सभी जन किसी न किसी कारण से दुखी थे
(4) संसार में सभी जन साधना करना नहीं जानते थे

Why: गद्यांश में संसार को अश्रु सागर में डूबता, दुखों की अग्नि में झुलसता और अत्याचारों से त्रस्त बताया गया है — यही व्यापक दुख उनकी चिंता का कारण है।

110.कैसे लोगों को मोक्ष नहीं मिलता है?

(1) जो सदैव दुखी रहते हैं
(2) जो दूसरों से प्रेम नहीं करते हैं
(3) जो साधना नहीं करते हैं
(4) जो ईश्वर में आस्था नहीं रखते हैं

Why: अंतिम पंक्तियों के अनुसार जो परमात्मा की कृति अर्थात् जनता से प्रेम नहीं करते, उन्हें कितनी भी साधना के बाद मोक्ष नहीं मिलता। साधना की मात्रा यहाँ निर्णायक नहीं है।

111.‘गंगा’ का पर्यायवाची नहीं है:

(1) सुरसरि
(2) जाह्नवी
(3) भागीरथी
(4) सरिता

Why: सरिता का अर्थ है नदी — कोई भी नदी, इसलिए वह गंगा का पर्यायवाची नहीं। सुरसरि, जाह्नवी और भागीरथी तीनों गंगा के ही नाम हैं।

112.यह संसार अश्रु सागर में डूब रहा है। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद के स्थान पर कौन-सा शब्द प्रयोग कर सकते हैं?

(1) जलोढ़
(2) जलद
(3) जलज
(4) जलधि

Why: जलधि अर्थात् जल का धारक — सागर। जलद बादल है, जलज कमल और जलोढ़ नदी द्वारा बहाकर लाई गई मिट्टी।

113.‘परमात्मा’ में समास है:

(1) कर्मधारय
(2) अव्ययीभाव
(3) द्वंद्व
(4) बहुव्रीहि

Why: परम + आत्मा अर्थात् परम है जो आत्मा — विशेषण और विशेष्य का मेल, इसलिए कर्मधारय समास।

114.समूह से भिन्न शब्द है:

(1) साधक
(2) साधना
(3) मोक्ष
(4) स्वार्थ

Why: साधक व्यक्तिवाचक है — साधना करने वाला। शेष तीनों भाववाचक संज्ञाएँ हैं, जो किसी भाव या स्थिति को बताती हैं।

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

115.कविता का मुख्य स्वर है:

(1) श्रृंगार
(2) आशा
(3) विषमता
(4) वीरता

Why: पूरी कविता कर्म, आत्मनिर्भरता और निर्भीकता का गुणगान करती है — ऐसे लोग जो किसी का मुँह नहीं ताकते और हर काम कर सकते हैं। यही वीर रस का स्वर है।

116.कविता के अनुसार मनुष्य को अपनी मदद:

(1) स्वयं करनी चाहिए
(2) दूसरों के भरोसे छोड़नी चाहिए
(3) अपनों से करवानी चाहिए
(4) स्वयं नहीं करनी चाहिए

Why: कविता कहती है कि वे इस जगत में अपनी मदद आप ही करते हैं। आत्मनिर्भरता ही उसका केंद्रीय संदेश है।

117.‘वीर मनुष्य कठिन से कठिन कार्य कर सकते हैं।’ यह भाव कविता की किस पंक्ति में निहित है?

(1) मानते जो भी हैं सुनते हैं सदा सबकी कही
(2) आज करना है जिसे करते उसे हैं आज ही
(3) भूलकर वे दूसरों का मुँह कभी तकते नहीं
(4) कौन ऐसा काम है वे कर जिसे सकते नहीं

Why: अंतिम पंक्ति प्रश्न के रूप में कही गई है, पर उसका अर्थ है कि ऐसा कोई काम नहीं जो वे न कर सकें — यही कठिन से कठिन कार्य कर सकने का भाव है।

118.वीर मानव के स्वभाव में सम्मिलित नहीं है:

(1) समय पर कार्य करना
(2) दूसरों के भरोसे न रहना
(3) दूसरों को नीचा दिखाना
(4) सबकी बात ध्यान से सुनना

Why: शेष तीनों गुण कविता की पंक्तियों में सीधे मिलते हैं। दूसरों को नीचा दिखाने की बात कविता में कहीं नहीं है — आत्मनिर्भरता का अर्थ दूसरों का अपमान नहीं।

119.‘मुँह ताकना’ मुहावरे का अर्थ है:

(1) दूसरों की प्रशंसा करना
(2) दूसरों की निंदा करना
(3) दूसरों से मदद की अपेक्षा करना
(4) दूसरों का मुँह निहारना

Why: मुहावरे का अर्थ उसके शब्दों से नहीं, रूढ़ प्रयोग से निकलता है — मुँह ताकना अर्थात् दूसरों से सहायता की आस लगाना। विकल्प 4 शाब्दिक अर्थ है, इसलिए वही जाल है।

120.समूह से भिन्न शब्द है:

(1) तकते
(2) करते
(3) कहते
(4) काम

Why: तकते, करते और कहते तीनों क्रिया रूप हैं। काम संज्ञा है, इसलिए समूह से भिन्न।

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

121.Where had Venkatashami gone?

(1) He had gone to the city for work.
(2) He had gone for higher studies.
(3) He had gone into hiding.
(4) He had eloped with a girl.

Why: Nobody knew where he was until enquiries turned up the truth: he had run away with the Dombara girl. The troupe leader coming to the Gowda in grief confirms it.

122.When Venkatashami was brought back home, _____________.

(1) he looked hale and hearty
(2) he was running high fever
(3) he looked the same as he had left
(4) he looked weak and emaciated

Why: The passage says plainly that the boy was burning with fever when he was left at his parents’ house. Emaciation is never mentioned — his physique is in fact described as powerfully built.

123.What was Venkatashami’s attitude towards the girl?

(1) He did not care for her.
(2) He deserted her and came home.
(3) He was indifferent towards her.
(4) He loved her passionately.

Why: Even in delirium his talk returns to her, and whenever he is conscious he begs them to call her. He did not desert her either — her father took her home and he was carried back ill.

124.What was Venkatashami’s final fate?

(1) He returned home to live a long life.
(2) He suffered from a mysterious illness all his life.
(3) He migrated and lived in another city.
(4) He died a tragic death.

Why: A fortnight after being brought home he passed away, still calling for the girl. The illness was not lifelong and not truly mysterious — the passage notes it would be called typhoid today.

125.Which of the following statements is True/False?
A. The family was willing to marry Venkatashami to the Dombara girl.
B. Venkatashami came home on his own accord.

(1) Both A and B are true.
(2) Both A and B are false.
(3) B is true but A is false.
(4) A is true but B is false.

Why: Both fail. The closing lines make the family’s refusal clear — they will not fetch the girl who led him astray — and he did not come home himself but was brought back by a Gowda from another village.

126.What literary device has been used in the expression ‘... like a flash of lightning among the clouds’?

(1) Hyperbole
(2) Paradox
(3) Simile
(4) Parallelism

Why: His smile against his dark face is compared to lightning against clouds, and the comparison is made openly with ‘like’ — the mark of a simile.

127.Identify the tense of the given expression: ‘... led him astray.’

(1) Past Continuous
(2) Simple Present
(3) Past Perfect
(4) Simple Past

Why: ‘Led’ standing alone is the past form of the verb with no auxiliary, which makes the expression as quoted simple past.

128.Choose the word nearest in meaning to ‘ramble’.

(1) jump
(2) walk
(3) quieten
(4) wander

Why: Of a mind or of speech, to ramble is to wander without direction — which is exactly what the passage describes of his delirious talk.

129.Read the following statements.
A. Writing experiences promote reading comprehension.
B. Writing helps in developing vocabulary knowledge.
Which of the above statements is/are true for importance of writing in early years?

(1) Both A and B are true.
(2) Only B is true.
(3) Both A and B are false.
(4) Only A is true.

Why: Reading and writing feed each other. Composing text sharpens a child’s grasp of how text works, and reaching for words to write is one of the main ways vocabulary grows.

130.A teacher of class III wants to conduct a pre-writing activity as a part of the writing task assigned to students. Which of the following activity cannot be conducted as a pre-writing activity?

(1) Revising the drafts of their partners
(2) Talking to their partner on ideas related to the topic
(3) Brainstorming ideas, and jotting them on the board
(4) Giving reading material related to the topic

Why: Revising a draft presupposes a draft, so it belongs after the writing, not before it. The other three all gather ideas while the page is still blank.

131.A reading activity in which learners hear or read different parts of a text, then exchange information with others in order to complete a task, is referred to as:

(1) Running dictation
(2) Jigsaw dictation
(3) Running text
(4) Dumb charades

Why: Each learner holds one piece and the whole picture appears only when the pieces are pooled — the jigsaw arrangement, which makes the exchange of information necessary rather than optional.

132.Navomita, a teacher of class II, has maintained a classroom library and she encourages the students to read stories.
This practice should be followed to _____________.

(1) explicitly discuss and memorize moral values of the stories
(2) develop a culture of reading
(3) make students memorize more stories
(4) keep students busy for a long time while the teacher completes her pending work

Why: Books within reach and freedom to choose are how the habit of reading takes root. Turning the library into a moral lesson or a memory drill defeats its purpose, and option 4 is not a pedagogic aim at all.

133.Which of the following is true for emergent literacy?

(1) Literacy begins with memorizing of rhymes.
(2) Literacy begins with writing of alphabets.
(3) Literacy comes as naturally as crawling and jumping.
(4) Literacy emerges before children are formally taught to read.

Why: The whole idea of emergent literacy is that children are already reading signs, handling books and making marks long before formal instruction begins. Unlike crawling, though, literacy is not biologically automatic — it needs a print-rich world around the child.

134.‘Peer review’ is understood as an important strategy for improving students’ writing process. The purpose of ‘peer review’ is to:

(1) connect ideas and build paragraphs for writing.
(2) help the teacher in evaluation of writing of students.
(3) offer formative feedback to their peers, which further helps them to improve their drafts.
(4) encourage in finding faults of their peers.

Why: Peer review exists to give the writer usable feedback while the draft can still change. It is not a way of offloading the teacher’s marking, and fault-finding is what it must be taught to avoid.

135.Read the following statements:
A. Dialect is a variety of a language, spoken in one part of a country.
B. Languages have written literature but dialects have oral tradition.
Which of these statements is/are linguistically correct about language and dialect?

(1) Only A is true.
(2) Both A and B are true.
(3) Both A and B are false.
(4) Only B is true.

Why: A is the standard definition. B is not a linguistic distinction at all — many dialects have rich written literatures, and the line between language and dialect is drawn by politics and status rather than by writing.

136.“Understands and uses new words” can be a rubric for assessing:

(1) Pronunciation
(2) Grammar
(3) Fluency
(4) Vocabulary

Why: The descriptor is about words — taking in new ones and putting them to use — which is vocabulary. Pronunciation concerns how they sound and grammar how they combine.

137.A teacher of class III asks the children to draw a story as she narrates it. Through this activity, which language skill can be assessed?

(1) Reading Skill
(2) Speaking Skill
(3) Listening Skill
(4) Writing Skill

Why: The children take the story in by ear and show their understanding through the drawing. Nothing is read, spoken or written, so listening is the skill on display.

138.Which of the following about language development is supported by Piaget?

(1) The development of language is a cause, not a consequence of cognitive development.
(2) Certain language concepts must be taught when the child has reached the appropriate stage of cognitive maturity.
(3) Children need to memorize grammatical rules in order to learn a language.
(4) Language development is just like habit formation.

Why: For Piaget thought comes first and language follows it, so teaching has to wait for the cognitive stage that can carry the concept. Option 1 reverses him, and option 4 is Skinner’s position.

139.The basic premise of Vygotskian principles does not include:

(1) Zone of proximal development
(2) Enculturation
(3) Scaffolding
(4) Assimilation

Why: Assimilation belongs to Piaget’s account of how schemas absorb new experience. The other three are the core of Vygotsky’s social view of learning.

140.The idea that ‘The language provides the framework for our thoughts’ is supported by:

(1) Jean Piaget
(2) Jerome Bruner
(3) Sapir-Whorf Hypothesis
(4) Noam Chomsky

Why: Linguistic relativity — the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis — holds that the language we speak shapes how we perceive and think. Piaget argued the reverse order, and Chomsky was concerned with innate grammar.

141.Which of the following is the characteristic of the learning disorder ‘Dysgraphia’?

(1) Difficulty forming letter shapes
(2) Reversals in writing
(3) Delays in speaking and acquiring language
(4) Difficulty in learning the names of the letters and sounds of the alphabet

Why: Dysgraphia is a writing disorder, and trouble forming the letters themselves is its defining feature. Options 3 and 4 point to language delay and to dyslexia.

142.Given below are two statements, one marked as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Learners of second language take more time to develop basic interpersonal communicative skills than cognitive academic language proficiency.
Reason (R): Conversational proficiency is more context-embedded than academic proficiency.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: [KEY] The Board’s final key gives option 3. On Cummins’ account the assertion is the wrong way round — conversational skill (BICS) arrives in about two years while academic language (CALP) takes five to seven — and the reason, that conversation is more context-embedded, is correct and is exactly why BICS comes faster. That reading points to option 2. Answer option 3 if you are matching the official key.

143.Which of the following is true for nature of reading?

(1) Children learn to read through involvement in the act of reading.
(2) We need to understand all the words in order to understand the meaning of the text.
(3) Maturation in sensorimotor skills is assumed to transfer to reading skills.
(4) Reading is just the ability to decode.

Why: Reading is learned by reading. A reader can carry meaning past unknown words, decoding is only one part of the act, and sensorimotor maturation does not by itself produce readers.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

144.Who was the immediate successor of Chandragupta Maurya?

(1) Antiochus
(2) Bindusara
(3) Seleucus
(4) Ashoka

Why: The passage names Bindusara as his son, during whose reign the western contacts continued. Ashoka was the grandson, and the other two were foreign rulers.

145.In the Mauryan period, what principal factor led to India opening up to the outside world?

(1) Spread of Buddhism
(2) Exports of other countries
(3) Ambassadors of many countries coming to India
(4) Intellectual attainments

Why: India became an international centre in Ashoka’s time chiefly because Buddhism was spreading rapidly. The ambassadors were a sign of the contact rather than its principal cause.

146.Before Ashoka, the Mauryan empire excluded __________.

(1) the North-West
(2) the North
(3) the East
(4) the South-East and a part of the South

Why: The empire already reached into Central Asia and held most of India; only the South-East and part of the South lay outside it. The North-West was firmly inside — Ashoka had served there as Viceroy.

147.Which of the following statements is True/False?
A. After the Kalinga war, Ashoka became a pacifist.
B. Ashoka established his sway over the whole of India.

(1) Both A and B are true.
(2) Both A and B are false.
(3) A is true, but B is false.
(4) B is true, but A is false.

Why: A holds — he abandoned warfare at the height of victory. B does not: the southern tip stayed outside his empire, his for the taking but never taken.

148.What does the underlined idiom in the expression ‘... that tip was his for the taking’ mean?

(1) difficult to get
(2) to take at face value
(3) to take for granted
(4) available for taking

Why: The phrase means it could be had for no effort at all — which is the point of the sentence, since he chose not to take it. Option 1 says the opposite.

149.Identify the Part of Speech of the underlined word in the expression ‘terrible slaughter’.

(1) Noun
(2) Adverb
(3) Adjective
(4) Verb

Why: It stands before the noun ‘slaughter’ and tells us what kind, which is the work of an adjective. ‘Slaughter’ is the noun here.

150.Choose the word nearest in meaning to ‘refrained’.

(1) confined
(2) stopped
(3) agreed
(4) found

Why: To refrain is to hold back from doing something — here, to stop short of further aggression. ‘Confined’ is close in sound but means restricted or shut in.

CTET February 2026 — Paper I (Classes I to V)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper I (Classes I to V)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part II — Mathematics

Part III — Environmental Studies

Part IV — Language I — Hindi

Part V — Language II — English

Answer Key

CTET February 2026 — Paper I (Classes I to V)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026Paper I (Classes I to V)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part II — Mathematics

Part III — Environmental Studies

Part IV — Language I — Hindi

Part V — Language II — English

Answer Key

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper I (Classes I to V)