MAK LABS — CTET 7 February 2026 Paper I (Classes I to V) Question Paper with Answer Key

1.Read the following statements:
Assertion (A): Some children have characteristics that resemble their parents while others are markedly different from their parents.
Reason (R): Working out how much of any characteristic is due to nature or genes and how much is due to nurture or environment is a complex issue.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: Both statements are true, and the reason accounts for the assertion: children resemble their parents in some respects and differ in others precisely because every characteristic is the product of heredity and environment working together, in proportions that are hard to untangle.

2.Which of the following statements about development is correct?

(1) Development in children can be predicted very accurately.
(2) Development is a simple and unitary process.
(3) Development can always be measured precisely.
(4) Development is multidimensional and multidirectional.

Why: Development runs along several dimensions at once — physical, cognitive, social, emotional — and in several directions, with gains in one area sometimes accompanied by losses in another. The other three options claim a precision and simplicity that developmental research does not support.

3.Read the following statements:
Assertion (A): The ability to comprehend and speak depends on the physical development of the mouth and brain.
Reason (R): Emotional development is related to physical growth.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: [KEY] The official key marks both statements true with the reason explaining the assertion. The assertion is uncontroversial — speech rests on the maturing of the mouth and the brain. The reason, however, is about emotional development, so many teachers would call it true but unrelated and answer option 2. Answer option 1 to match the key.

4.Most children can speak five-six coherent sentences at

(1) one year
(2) three years
(3) five years
(4) seven years

Why: By about three years most children move beyond single words and short phrases to strings of connected sentences. At one year speech is still at the single-word stage, and by five the sentences are longer and more complex than the milestone described here.

5.As per Lev Vygotsky, as children grow, their language develops from _____.

(1) inner speech to external speech
(2) private speech to egocentric speech
(3) silent speech to thinking aloud
(4) think out loud to inner speech

Why: For Vygotsky the direction is social to individual: speech begins as communication with others, becomes audible self-talk while the child works through a task, and finally goes underground as silent inner speech that guides thinking. Option (1) reverses this.

6.Piaget described cognitive development as occurring

(1) in four qualitatively different stages
(2) at three progressive levels
(3) as resolution of conflict at eight stages
(4) in a continuous manner from birth through adulthood

Why: Piaget proposed four stages — sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational and formal operational — each marked by a different kind of thinking rather than simply more of it. Eight stages of conflict resolution belongs to Erikson; three levels belongs to Kohlberg.

7.Rama was mean to her brother Tahir. Next day Tahir got sick. Rama concluded that she made her brother sick.
According to Piaget, which stage of cognitive development is Rama in?

(1) Sensorimotor stage
(2) Preoperational stage
(3) Concrete operational stage
(4) Formal operational stage

Why: Linking two events simply because one followed the other is transductive reasoning, characteristic of the preoperational child. A concrete operational child would look for an actual mechanism connecting her behaviour to his illness and would not find one.

8._____ is the process by which children become aware of their gender roles.

(1) Gender typing
(2) Gender equality
(3) Gender relatedness
(4) Gender homogeneity

Why: Gender typing is the process through which children pick up the behaviours, preferences and roles their culture attaches to being a girl or a boy. The other three are not recognised terms for this process.

9.Which of the following scenarios is aptly describing the application of Lev Vygotsky’s concept of ‘scaffolding’?

(1) A teacher gave half-solved problems to her students who were finding it difficult to solve them otherwise.
(2) A teacher has strictly prohibited students to have any kind of collaborations and communication with their peers.
(3) A teacher has written answers on the blackboard and has asked the students to copy the answers passively in their notebooks.
(4) A teacher has made it mandatory for her students to solve problems on their own in a set time period.

Why: Scaffolding means giving just enough support for the learner to manage what they could not manage alone, then withdrawing it. A half-solved problem does exactly that. Copying answers removes the thinking altogether, and forbidding collaboration or insisting on solo work removes the support.

10.Progressive education is an educational philosophy that emphasizes on _____.

(1) student-centred learning and active participation
(2) rote memorization and teacher-centred instruction
(3) standardized testing and strict curriculum guidelines
(4) competition and individual achievement

Why: Progressive education places the learner at the centre and treats learning as something done rather than received. The remaining options describe the traditional model it was formulated against.

11.Read the following statements:
Assertion (A): Children progress from understanding consequences of act to determine whether they are good/bad to understanding that rules and laws are flexible and can be changed.
Reason (R): According to Kohlberg, children’s moral development occurs in continuous manner and not a discontinuous one.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A correctly traces the movement from preconventional reasoning, where right and wrong are judged by consequences, to postconventional reasoning, where rules are seen as social agreements open to change. R is false: Kohlberg’s is a stage theory, and stages make development discontinuous.

12.According to Lev Vygotsky, cognitive development is guided by

(1) language in the form of private speech
(2) processes of attention and perception
(3) assimilation and accommodation that change ‘schemes’
(4) positive and negative reinforcement given by the environment

Why: Vygotsky treated language as the tool that reorganises thinking, with private speech the visible point where speech begins to steer thought. Assimilation and accommodation are Piaget’s; reinforcement is behaviourist.

13.Which of the following intelligence helps people to perceive, express, understand and regulate moods and feelings of others?

(1) Interpersonal
(2) Logical-mathematical
(3) Musical
(4) Naturalist

Why: In Gardner’s scheme, interpersonal intelligence is the capacity to read and respond to other people’s moods, motives and feelings. Reading one’s own inner states would be intrapersonal, which is not among the options.

14.A child’s first experience as well as expectations of what it means to be a ‘girl’ or a ‘boy’ comes from

(1) media
(2) relatives
(3) neighbourhood
(4) family

Why: The family is the child’s first socialising agency, and gender expectations reach the child there long before media, neighbourhood or the wider circle of relatives have any influence.

15.An essential characteristic of formative assessment is—

(1) to assign relative ranks and positions to learners.
(2) tests and exams at the end of the year.
(3) clarification of assessment criteria to the learners.
(4) to focus on quantitative means to achieve objectivity.

Why: Formative assessment works only if learners know what they are aiming at, so making the criteria explicit is central to it. Ranking learners and testing at the end of the year are features of summative assessment.

16.Dysgraphia is a

(1) neurodevelopmental disorder
(2) personality disorder
(3) physical disability
(4) learning disability

Why: Dysgraphia is a specific learning disability affecting written expression — handwriting, spelling and putting thoughts on paper — in children whose general ability is unimpaired. It is not a personality disorder, and the difficulty is not caused by physical impairment of the hand.
Note: the CBSE final key accepts both option 1 and option 4 for this question, so either was awarded the mark.

17.A teacher should cater to _____ needs of gifted children in the classrooms.

(1) cognitive
(2) cognitive and emotional
(3) cognitive and social
(4) cognitive, social and emotional

Why: Giftedness is often accompanied by social isolation and emotional intensity, so attending only to intellectual challenge leaves real needs unmet. The classroom has to address all three.

18.Which of the following are examples of pedagogical approaches to teach students with learning disabilities?
(i) Use of multisensory strategies
(ii) Standardized learning goals
(iii) Flexible and sequential instructions
(iv) Breaking down tasks into smaller parts
Choose the correct option.

(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Why: Multisensory input, flexible sequencing and task breakdown all respond to the individual profile of the learner. Standardised learning goals work in the opposite direction, holding every child to the same target and so defeating the purpose of the other three.

19.Which of the following statements about Autism Spectrum Disorder is correct?

(1) Children with Autism Spectrum Disorder have excellent communication skills but very poor memory.
(2) Sensory integration and regulation help children with Autism Spectrum Disorder.
(3) It is primarily the ability to hear that is affected in Autism Spectrum Disorder.
(4) Children with Autism Spectrum Disorder exhibit a preference for new stimuli every day.

Why: Difficulty processing sensory input is a recognised feature of autism, and structured sensory regulation helps. Communication is typically an area of difficulty rather than strength, hearing as such is not the impairment, and children on the spectrum usually prefer predictability to novelty.

20.While teaching in inclusive setups, it is important that teachers—

(1) see diversity as an obstacle to effective teaching.
(2) continuously examine their own implicit and preconceived bias.
(3) understand special children as needy and dependent on others.
(4) follow same curriculum and uniform pedagogy of all learners.

Why: Inclusion starts with the teacher’s own assumptions, which shape expectations before any method is chosen. Treating diversity as an obstacle, children as dependent, or every learner as identical each work against inclusion.

21.Read the following statements:
Assertion (A): Teachers should include a variety of children’s literature to create print-rich environment in the classroom.
Reason (R): Classrooms rich in literacy materials and literacy experiences are central to effective learning.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: Both statements are sound, and here R does explain A: because literacy-rich surroundings support learning, the teacher stocks the classroom with varied children’s literature. The reason gives the ground for the recommendation.

22.In order to facilitate students’ learning in a progressive classroom, a teacher should emphasize on the practice of

(1) behaviour conditioning
(2) passive replication
(3) reflective thinking
(4) obedient listening

Why: A progressive classroom asks learners to examine their own thinking and revise it. Conditioning, replication and obedient listening all cast the learner as a recipient rather than a thinker.

23.Seeing Raman, a 4th grade student stuck on a question, his teacher asked him to try the solution while speaking what is going on in his mind. Such verbalization is likely to be—

(1) futile because language hinders thought process.
(2) helpful because language facilitates thought process.
(3) supportive only for students with learning disabilities because they have difficulty in auditory processing.
(4) unproductive because language and thought are not related.

Why: Thinking aloud is private speech put to work: it slows the reasoning down and makes each step available for checking. This helps learners generally, not only those with difficulties.

24.A teacher who believes in constructivist pedagogy would—

(1) avoid connecting content to real world.
(2) avoid judgements of students solely on the basis of socio-cultural backgrounds.
(3) promote high levels of verbal instructions as primary pedagogy.
(4) promote ‘ability grouping’ of students.

Why: Constructivism treats the learner’s background as material to build on, not a basis for judging what they can achieve. Cutting content off from the real world, relying on verbal instruction and sorting children by ability all run against it.

25.Active engagement of learners implies that the students—

(1) inquire, explore and question.
(2) rote memorize facts and information.
(3) actively value marks and competition.
(4) consider textbook as the sole source of knowledge.

Why: Engagement is about what the learner does with the content. Inquiry, exploration and questioning are active; memorising, chasing marks and treating the textbook as the only source leave the learner receiving rather than working.

26.Radha reasons, “Clothes dry faster in the sun than in the shade, so the sun is helping them to dry”. She is showing an understanding of—

(1) cause and effect.
(2) reversible thinking.
(3) decentration.
(4) animism.

Why: Radha has linked a condition to an outcome — sun, therefore faster drying — which is causal reasoning. The word “helping” tempts a reading of animism, option 4, but she is describing an agent’s effect rather than granting the sun life or intention.

27.Which of the following is an example of intrinsic motivation?

(1) Studying for a test to get good grade
(2) Playing a game for the prize money
(3) Playing a sport for personal enjoyment
(4) Completing the homework to avoid being scolded by parents

Why: Intrinsic motivation comes from the activity itself. Grades, prize money and avoiding a scolding are all outcomes outside the activity, which makes those three extrinsic.

28.Read the following statements:
Assertion (A): Teachers who believe in constructivist pedagogy should provide a lot of materials to the children.
Reason (R): Young children depend solely on verbal instructions and lectures for meaningful learning.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A is sound: constructivist teaching depends on things children can handle and manipulate. R says the opposite of what that practice rests on — the word solely makes it false, since young children learn through action rather than through lectures alone.

29.Avoiding the appearance of low ability in front of peers and teachers is an example of

(1) mastery goals
(2) performance approach goals
(3) task-involved goals
(4) performance avoidance goals

Why: The aim here is not to look incompetent, which is a performance avoidance goal. A performance approach goal would aim to look capable; mastery and task-involved goals focus on learning the material rather than on how one appears.

30.Which of the following is an effective way to promote critical thinking in the classroom?

(1) Encouraging rote memorization of facts.
(2) Discouraging students from asking questions.
(3) Encouraging students to think independently and questioning assumptions.
(4) Providing students with a set of predetermined answers to choose from.

Why: Critical thinking grows where assumptions can be examined and conclusions reached independently. Memorising, suppressing questions and supplying ready-made answers each remove the work that critical thinking consists of.

31.What is the sum of all the prime numbers between 12 and 49?

(1) 299
(2) 300
(3) 301
(4) 302

Why: The primes concerned are 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43 and 47, and they total 300. Note that 49 is not prime (7 × 7), a common slip in this kind of item.

32.If 101 210 120 102 99 104 □, then what is the number at □?

(1) 1326
(2) 1327
(3) 1329
(4) 1336

Why: PENDING — the operators in this expression are not legible in the source scan and must be filled in from the printed page before this explanation is written.

33.The sum of all the common factors of 36 and 48 (excluding 1) is

(1) 26
(2) 27
(3) 28
(4) 29

Why: The common factors of two numbers are exactly the factors of their HCF. Here the HCF is 12, whose factors are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 12. Leaving out 1 gives 2 + 3 + 4 + 6 + 12 = 27.

34.What is the difference between the greatest 4-digit number and the least 4-digit number formed by using the digits 1, 5, 0 and 7 once?

(1) 6093
(2) 6003
(3) 6453
(4) 6531

Why: The greatest is 7510. For the least, 0 cannot occupy the thousands place or the number stops being four-digit, so the smallest non-zero digit leads and 0 moves to the hundreds place: 1057. The difference is 7510 − 1057 = 6453.

35.Kanta has five dozen chocolates. She gives 1/6 of these to Aruna and 1/5 of the remaining chocolates to Radha. She then gives 1/8 of the remaining chocolates to each of her other three friends. How many chocolates does Kanta have now?

(1) 15
(2) 20
(3) 25
(4) 10

Why: Five dozen is 60. Aruna gets 10, leaving 50. Radha gets one-fifth of 50, that is 10, leaving 40. Each of the three friends gets one-eighth of that 40, so 5 each and 15 in all. Kanta keeps 40 − 15 = 25. The fraction each friend receives is of the 40, not of a shrinking remainder.

36.(LCM of 96, 120 and 160) ÷ (HCF of 72 and 168) is equal to

(1) 12
(2) 15
(3) 20
(4) 30

Why: For the LCM, 96 = 2⁵ × 3, 120 = 2³ × 3 × 5 and 160 = 2⁵ × 5, giving 2⁵ × 3 × 5 = 480. The HCF of 72 and 168 is 24. So 480 ÷ 24 = 20.

37.The cost of 8 Samosas is ₹156 and that of 4 Idlis is ₹98. Sunita has a ₹200 note only and buys 3 Samosas and 3 Idlis. How much money is left with her now?

(1) ₹65
(2) ₹66
(3) ₹68
(4) ₹72

Why: One samosa costs 156 ÷ 8 = ₹19.50 and one idli 98 ÷ 4 = ₹24.50. Three of each comes to 58.50 + 73.50 = ₹132, so ₹68 is left. The half-rupee unit prices cancel out in the total.

38.24 L 650 mL of milk is filled in 29 bottles each of same size. The quantity of milk in 15 such bottles is

(1) 11 L 900 mL
(2) 12 L 750 mL
(3) 13 L 600 mL
(4) 15 L 300 mL

Why: Working in millilitres, 24650 ÷ 29 = 850 mL per bottle. Fifteen bottles hold 12750 mL, which is 12 L 750 mL.

39.The internal length, breadth and height of a cuboidal box are 12 cm, 10 cm and 8 cm, respectively. A cubical box has side (internal) 9 cm. Avin tries to pack 1800 cubical dice of side 1 cm each in these two boxes. The number of dice which are left unpacked is:

(1) 111
(2) 121
(3) 123
(4) 129

Why: Since each die is 1 cm on a side and every box dimension is a whole number of centimetres, the boxes fill exactly. The cuboid takes 12 × 10 × 8 = 960 dice and the cube 9³ = 729, a total of 1689. That leaves 1800 − 1689 = 111.

40.A bag containing potatoes, onions and lemons weighs 46 kg 160 g. The weight of potatoes is 17 kg 115 g and that of onions is 15 kg 325 g. The weight of empty bag is 120 g. If 30 lemons weigh 1 kg, then what is the number of lemons in the bag?

(1) 396
(2) 402
(3) 408
(4) 414

Why: In grams, 46160 − 17115 − 15325 − 120 = 13600 g of lemons. At 30 lemons to the kilogram, that is 13.6 × 30 = 408 lemons. The weight of the empty bag is easy to overlook and shifts the answer if it is.

41.Which of the following has/have only two lines of symmetry?
A. Equilateral triangle
B. Rectangle
C. Rhombus
D. Isosceles triangle
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B
(2) Only B
(3) B and C
(4) C and D

Why: A rectangle has two lines of symmetry, through the midpoints of opposite sides, and a rhombus has two, along its diagonals. An equilateral triangle has three and an isosceles triangle only one. Note that the rectangle’s diagonals are not lines of symmetry, though the rhombus’s are.

42.Which of the following letters has a rotational symmetry but no line symmetry?

(1) X
(2) M
(3) O
(4) Z

Why: Z maps onto itself after a half turn but has no axis of reflection. X and O have both kinds of symmetry, and M has a vertical line of symmetry but no rotational symmetry.

43.A pentagonal pyramid has

(1) five faces and five vertices
(2) six faces and six edges
(3) six vertices and five faces
(4) six vertices and six faces

Why: The pentagonal base plus five triangular sides make six faces, and the five base corners plus the apex make six vertices. It has ten edges, so the count of six edges in option (2) is wrong.

44.The following table shows the number of visitors to a library in the first six days of a week:

Days	Number of visitors
Monday	86
Tuesday	114
Wednesday	141
Thursday	95
Friday	124
Saturday	151

On which day, the number of visitors to the library was 29 more than its previous day?

(1) Tuesday
(2) Wednesday
(3) Friday
(4) Saturday

Why: The day-on-day rises are 28 on Tuesday, 27 on Wednesday, 29 on Friday and 27 on Saturday, with a fall on Thursday. Only Friday gives 124 − 95 = 29.

45.The sum of next two numbers in the pattern 3, 10, 32, 99, _____, _____ is

(1) 1119
(2) 1121
(3) 1209
(4) 1211

Why: Each term is three times the one before plus a step that grows by one each time: 3 × 3 + 1 = 10, 10 × 3 + 2 = 32, 32 × 3 + 3 = 99. Continuing, 99 × 3 + 4 = 301 and 301 × 3 + 5 = 908, so the two terms sum to 1209.

46.A teacher writes the number 308 on the blackboard and asks the children to read the number loudly. A child says, “It is thirty-eight.” Which among the following is the most appropriate strategy to rectify the error committed by the child?

(1) Ask another child to read the number loudly.
(2) Provide few practical examples to the child to understand the position of digits in a number.
(3) Teacher can read the number once and ask the child to repeat.
(4) Ask the child to start counting from 99 up to 308 in continuity.

Why: Reading 308 as thirty-eight means the zero has been ignored, which is a place value misconception rather than a slip. Hearing the number read correctly, by the teacher or another child, leaves the misconception untouched, and counting up to 308 does not address it either.

47.A class II mathematics teacher gives the following word problem on addition to the students to solve:
“A bag contains 4 mangoes and 6 more mangoes are added to it. How many total mangoes are there in the bag?”
This type of word problem belongs to which of the following structures of addition?

(1) Augmentation
(2) Segregation
(3) Repeated addition
(4) Aggregation

Why: One quantity already exists and is increased, which is the augmentation structure. Aggregation would mean two separate collections being combined, as in four mangoes in one bag and six in another. Repeated addition underlies multiplication.

48.Which of the following pre-number concepts are relevant for building the understanding of mathematical concepts at foundational stage?

(1) Basic operations
(2) Place value and numeration
(3) Geometrical shapes
(4) Classification and ordering

Why: Pre-number work is what a child does before counting carries meaning: sorting objects by a property, matching, comparing and arranging in order. Operations, place value and numeration all come after number sense is in place.

49.Which of the following is least desirable in a primary school mathematics classroom?

(1) Encouragement of intuitive concepts in the classroom
(2) Building linkages with real-life situations involving mathematical ideas
(3) Solving algorithm-based questions from workbook
(4) Including open discussions on problem solving in the classroom

Why: Working through workbook items by a set procedure asks for practice of a routine rather than mathematical thinking. The other three all invite the child to reason, connect and articulate.

50.Which of the following is/are appropriate in the context of social perspectives on assessment in mathematics?
A. Bringing the experiences of children outside the school in assessment
B. Making standardized tests
C. Using folk algorithms from different cultures
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and C
(2) Only B
(3) A and B
(4) Only A

Why: A social view of assessment treats the mathematics children bring from home and community as legitimate, so out-of-school experience and folk methods of calculation both belong. Standardised testing works from a single yardstick and pulls in the opposite direction.

51.Which of the following is least appropriate about contextual problems in mathematics?

(1) They are connected closely to children’s lives.
(2) They can help in developing the children’s ability of mathematical modelling.
(3) Children tend to focus on getting a correct answer while solving them.
(4) They might be derived from recent experiences in the classroom like a field trip, a discussion in art, science, or social studies classrooms.

Why: The value of a contextual problem lies in the reasoning and modelling it provokes, so describing it as a hunt for the right answer misses its point. The other three statements are accurate descriptions of what such problems are and do.

52.The statements given below are marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (B):
A: It is important to introduce data representation and analysis in the primary stage and to strengthen it in the upper primary stage.
B: Data analysis exposes children at primary level to uncertainty and changeability in information as opposed to the fixed nature of mathematical facts they mostly study.
Choose the correct option.

(1) A is true and B is false.
(2) A is false and B is true.
(3) A is true but B is not the correct reason of A.
(4) A is true and B is the correct reason of A.

Why: Both statements hold, and B supplies the reason for A: data work introduces children to information that is uncertain and open to interpretation, unlike the settled facts that fill most of the mathematics they meet, and that is precisely why it earns a place from the primary stage onward.

53.Which of the following is not an expected learning outcome for class III as per NCERT recommendations?

(1) Is 15 × 4 equal to 4 × 15?
(2) Solve 1/2 + 1/3.
(3) Extend the sequence A, DE, HIJ, _____ .
(4) There are 12 balls in a box. How many balls will be there in 5 such boxes?

Why: At class III fractions go no further than halves, quarters and thirds of a whole or a collection. Operating on two fractions with unlike denominators comes much later. Commutativity of multiplication, pattern extension and simple multiplicative word problems are all class III work.

54.Which of the following mathematical statements is true?

(1) Zero is called an additive identity for whole numbers.
(2) Mathematics is based only on observations and experiments.
(3) Zero is called the multiplicative identity for whole numbers.
(4) Commutative law holds true for the operation of ‘division’.

Why: Adding zero leaves a number unchanged, which is what an additive identity means. The multiplicative identity is 1, not 0. Division is not commutative, since 6 ÷ 3 and 3 ÷ 6 differ, and mathematics rests on deduction rather than on observation alone.

55.In mathematics, the primary stage curriculum is focussed on _____.

(1) rote learning
(2) nurturing curiosity
(3) written algorithms
(4) solving textbook questions

Why: At the primary stage the aim is to keep children interested in asking mathematical questions and exploring answers. Rote work, algorithms and textbook exercises are means at best, and none of them is what the curriculum is directed towards.

56.A child writes five hundred three as 5003. It shows that

(1) the child needs to learn counting
(2) the child does not know how to write numbers in words
(3) the child does not know the concept of place value
(4) the child needs to learn recognition of digits

Why: The child has written the number as it sounds, five hundred then three, treating 500 and 3 as separate pieces to be joined. That is a place value error: the zeros holding the tens and units are not understood as positions.

57.According to Van Hiele’s levels of development of geometrical thinking, which of the following represents level–2 (relationships)?

(1) A child cannot classify various shapes that look similar.
(2) A child identifies and classifies shapes based only on their size or orientation.
(3) A child can informally deduce general properties of a given geometrical shape and is able to see the linkages among these properties.
(4) A student can follow the deductive axiomatic systems of geometry.

Why: At the relationships level the learner not only knows the properties of a figure but sees how they connect, and can reason informally from one to another. Judging shapes by appearance belongs to the earlier visualisation level, and formal axiomatic proof to a later one.

58.Which of the following is the most appropriate example of incorporation of local/cultural knowledge in mathematics teaching-learning?

(1) Colourful mathematics textbooks with pictures from various cultures
(2) Including only traditional methods of calculations in textbooks
(3) Remedial teaching for learners from different cultures
(4) Including examples of different methods of calculation used by the people from various occupations and communities

Why: Bringing in the calculation methods that shopkeepers, weavers and other working people actually use puts local knowledge into the mathematics itself. Pictures only decorate, the word only in option (2) shuts out other methods, and remedial teaching treats cultural difference as a deficiency.

59.One of the main guiding principles of the National Education Policy, 2020 is “The highest priority is to achieve foundational literacy and numeracy at _____ by all the students”.

(1) grade 1
(2) grade 3
(3) grade 2
(4) grade 5

Why: NEP 2020 sets grade 3 as the point by which every child should have attained foundational literacy and numeracy, and calls this the highest priority of the school system.

60.A primary class mathematics teacher brings in two jars of different shapes, with water in one of them, to her classroom. She pours water completely from the taller, thin jar to the shorter, broad jar. She then asks the question, “Which jar can hold more water?”
This activity is most appropriate to teach

(1) how to calculate the area of two jars with different shapes
(2) formula for calculating volume
(3) volume and its conservation
(4) the concept of standard units of measurement of liquids

Why: Pouring the same water into a jar of a different shape shows that the amount stays the same even though its appearance changes — conservation of volume, in Piaget’s sense. No measurement, formula or standard unit enters the activity at all.

61.The approximate distance between the capital of Madhya Pradesh (Bhopal) and the capital of Maharashtra (Mumbai) is 756 km. If a train covers this distance in nearly 14 hours, the average speed of the train in metre per second is

(1) 900 m/s
(2) 15 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 54 m/s

Why: 756 ÷ 14 gives 54 km per hour. Converting, 54 × 1000 ÷ 3600 = 15 m/s. Option (4) is the speed left in kilometres per hour, which is the trap here.

62.Consider the following characteristics of houses:
A. Wooden floor and wooden flat ceilings
B. Ground floor without window for animals and storing necessary materials
C. Elevated houses made with slanting roofs and the stone pillars
D. Thick walls made of stones, mud and lime
The characteristics found in the houses of Leh and Ladakh are

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) A, B and D

Why: Ladakhi houses are built against extreme cold: thick stone-and-mud walls hold heat, wooden floors and flat ceilings suit a region of very little rain, and the windowless lower storey shelters animals and stores fodder. Houses raised on pillars with sloping roofs belong to heavy-rainfall regions, not to a cold desert.

63.Select from the following a state where the meaning of ‘Torang’ is jungle

(1) Assam
(2) Jharkhand
(3) Mizoram
(4) Meghalaya

Why: Torang is the word for forest in the Kudukh language of Jharkhand. It appears in the account of Suryamani, who worked to keep her community’s connection with the forest alive.

64.Consider the following statements about Nepenthes/Pitcher plant:
A. This plant has leaves which are pitcher-shaped and the mouth is covered with a leaf.
B. This plant has a special smell that attracts insects to it.
C. This plant is very common in the cold deserts of Ladakh and Russia.
D. This plant can trap and eat small insects, frogs and even mice. These animals when land on the mouth of the plant, they get trapped and cannot get out of it.
The correct statements are

(1) only A and B
(2) only A and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, B and D

Why: The pitcher plant grows in warm, wet places with poor soil — in India it is found in Meghalaya — and it traps insects to make up for the nitrogen its soil lacks. A cold desert is the opposite of the habitat it needs, so C is false.

65.Which one of the following statements is not true about the houses of Srinagar in Kashmir?

(1) The old houses here are made of stone, bricks and wood.
(2) Some old houses have special type of windows which come out of the wall. These are called ‘dab’.
(3) Houseboats on Dal Lake are one of the attractions of Srinagar.
(4) Many families in Srinagar live in ‘Dongas’ which are built in hilly areas.

Why: A donga is a boat that families live on, so it belongs to the water of the Dal and Jhelum, not to hilly areas. The other three statements describe Srinagar accurately, including the dab, the projecting wooden window of old houses.

66.Consider the following statements about beehives:
A. Every beehive has only one queen bee that lays eggs.
B. There are a few males in the hive who make the hive.
C. The number of females is much more than the males in the hive. These female bees are the worker bees who work all day. They also look after the baby bees.
D. The worker bees fly around flowers in search of nectar for honey. On finding flowers with nectar, they do a special kind of dance by which other bees also join them to collect the nectar.
The correct statements are

(1) A and B
(2) A, B and C
(3) A, C and D
(4) A and D

Why: [KEY] The official key accepts only A and D. Statement B is plainly false, since the hive is built by female workers rather than the few males. Statement C, that females greatly outnumber males and do the work of the hive, reads as true and on that basis option 3 looks right — but the key does not include it. Answer option 4 to match the key.

67.Consider the following statements about elephants:
A. Elephants live in herds.
B. A herd may have 20 to 25 female elephants and their young ones.
C. Male elephants live in the herd till they are 9–10 years.
D. The oldest female takes all the decisions of the herd.
The correct statements are

(1) A and C
(2) B and D
(3) A and D
(4) A, C and D

Why: A herd is made up of about ten to twelve females with their young, led by the oldest female, and young males leave it at around fourteen or fifteen years. The figures in B and C are both off, leaving A and D.

68.More than a thousand years ago, Al-Biruni, a traveller from Uzbekistan, had described his observations about India. Which of the following observations were recorded in Al-Biruni’s book?
A. People of India are very skilled at making ponds.
B. Horses are used to draw carts in India.
C. Step-wells have separate steps for going up and coming down.
D. Lakes and Johads are built to collect water.
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and C

Why: Al-Biruni wrote admiringly of Indian skill in building ponds and of step-wells with separate flights of steps for going down and coming up. Bullocks, not horses, drew carts, and the johad is a later term rather than one from his account.

69.People who have been living in the forests for at least _____ have a right over the forest land and what is grown on it, according to the Right to Forest Act, 2007.

(1) 20 years
(2) 25 years
(3) 30 years
(4) 35 years

Why: The figure carried in the EVS textbook account of forest rights is twenty-five years of living in the forest, after which the community has a right over the land and its produce.

70.Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully:
Assertion (A): Domestication of animals was a gradual process that took place in many parts of the world.
Reason (R): The earliest domesticated animals include sheep and goat.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

Why: Both statements are correct. But naming which animals came first says nothing about why the process was slow or why it happened independently in several regions, so R leaves A unexplained.

71.Which one of the following animals was not reared by the Harappans?

(1) Sheep
(2) Goat
(3) Buffalo
(4) Horse

Why: Sheep, goats and buffaloes are all attested at Harappan sites. Evidence for the horse is absent from them, which is why its arrival in the subcontinent is dated later.

72.Which of the following States/Union Territories were carved out in the Indian Union in the last 25 years?

(1) Puducherry, Goa, Sikkim
(2) Telangana, Chhattisgarh, Ladakh
(3) Uttarakhand, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand
(4) Jammu and Kashmir, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh

Why: Chhattisgarh was formed in 2000, Telangana in 2014 and Ladakh became a Union Territory in 2019. Option (3) fails because Madhya Pradesh is an old state, and Sikkim, which appears in two other options, joined the Union in 1975.

73.You must have heard about the famous Olympian Karnam Malleswari. What game did she play in international events?

(1) Wrestling
(2) Cricket (Women’s)
(3) Weight lifting
(4) Chess

Why: Karnam Malleswari is a weightlifter, and her bronze at Sydney in 2000 made her the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal.

74.Which one of the following statements is true about Madhubani paintings and the area in which they originated?

(1) It is an old form of folk art that originated in the State of Rajasthan.
(2) These paintings are done on the floor using brush and indigo in the Mithila region of Bihar.
(3) These paintings are mainly influenced by the Mughal art and culture.
(4) It has its roots in the Mithila region of Bihar and these are made out of paste of powdered rice in which colours are mixed.

Why: Madhubani belongs to the Mithila region of Bihar, and the painting is done with a paste of powdered rice into which colours are mixed. It is a folk tradition carried on by women, independent of Mughal court art.

75.Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully:
Assertion (A): Mixture of cow dung and mud is used to coat the floor of houses.
Reason (R): Cow dung helps to regulate the temperature inside the house and keeps the insects away.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

Why: The practice is real and the reason given is exactly why it is followed: the coating keeps the floor cool in heat and warm in cold, and it repels insects. Here the reason does account for the practice.

76.Match Column—A with Column—B:
Column—A
(a) Peer assessment
(b) Rubric-based rating scale
(c) Assessment as learning
(d) Paper-pencil test
Column—B
(i) Tool of assessment
(ii) Self-learning
(iii) Summative assessment
(iv) Technique of assessment
Choose the correct option.

(1) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)
(2) (a)–(i), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(ii)
(3) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iii)
(4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)

Why: Peer assessment is a way of going about assessment, so a technique; a rubric-based rating scale is an instrument, so a tool; assessment as learning puts the learner in charge of judging their own work, which is self-learning; and a paper-pencil test at the end of a unit is summative.

77.Which of the following statements are correct about learning of EVS?
A. Children are naturally curious to learn.
B. Children are passive recipients in learning.
C. Children need teacher for learning.
D. Children learn better in collaborative groups.
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and D
(4) A and C

Why: EVS is built on the curiosity children already bring and on their working things out together. Calling them passive recipients contradicts that, and saying they need a teacher in order to learn denies the learning that happens through observation and peers.

78.Which of the following components best describe the meaning of EVS?
A. Accumulation of facts
B. Observation
C. Asking questions
D. Experimentation
Choose the correct option.

(1) A, B and C
(2) A, C and D
(3) A, B and D
(4) B, C and D

Why: EVS is a way of finding out — looking closely, asking questions and trying things. Collecting facts is the one item that describes a product rather than a process, and it is what the subject deliberately moves away from.

79.The knowledge of which of the following is the most important for an EVS teacher?

(1) Facts, principles and laws of EVS
(2) How children learn EVS?
(3) How to teach EVS?
(4) Concepts and curriculum of EVS

Why: Method and content both follow from knowing how children make sense of their surroundings. A teacher who understands that can choose an approach for the class in front of her; one who knows only content or only technique cannot.

80.Harleen asked her teacher, “Why do roses have thorns?” What must be the pedagogy of an EVS teacher towards this curiosity?

(1) Tell that roses have thorns to protect itself from animals.
(2) Tell that all roses do not have thorns.
(3) Tell her to find out which other plants have thorns.
(4) Ask her to observe animals eating plants with and without thorns.

Why: Watching what animals do with thorny and thornless plants lets Harleen arrive at the answer to her own question through evidence. Simply telling her the answer ends the enquiry, and listing other thorny plants changes the question from why to which.

81.Isha of class IV asked her teacher, “Why cow does not lay eggs?” What is your most appropriate response if you are Isha’s teacher?

(1) Reply that cows are mammals which give birth to young ones.
(2) Ask her to relate laying of eggs/giving birth to their visible ears and whose ears cannot be seen.
(3) Ask her to find out herself the reason for this.
(4) Ask other students of the class to answer Isha’s question.

Why: Sorting animals by whether their ears show gives Isha an observable pattern she can test herself: animals with visible ears generally give birth to young, those without generally lay eggs. Naming the category mammal answers with a label, and leaving her to find out alone offers no way in.

82.An EVS teacher wants to use storytelling as a strategy for teaching and learning. Which of the following are the most suitable for this?
A. Contextual stories
B. Folk stories
C. Student-written stories
D. Stories focussing on morals
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and D
(2) B and D
(3) C and D
(4) A, B and C

Why: Stories rooted in the children’s own setting, stories from their community, and stories they write themselves all connect EVS to the world they know. Moral tales are told to deliver a lesson, which is a different purpose from exploring the environment.

83.Teacher asked students to draw an animal. Poonam draws an animal, having body parts of different animals. What should the teacher do?
A. Scold Poonam for drawing an absurd animal.
B. Ask Poonam why she has drawn parts of different animals.
C. Tell Poonam that no such animal exists.
D. Ask Poonam the name of the animal she has drawn.
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and C
(2) B and D
(3) C and D
(4) Only A

Why: Asking about her reasons and the name she has given brings out the thinking behind the drawing and treats her imagination as worth hearing. Scolding her or declaring the animal impossible shuts down exactly what the activity was meant to draw out.

84.If a teacher wants that students learn about the plant diversity, which of the following are the most suitable activities for this?
A. Ask students to look for objects which have patterns of leaves on them in their house.
B. Recite a poem to students written on different types of plants and their characteristics.
C. Blindfold students and ask the students to identify plants by smelling crushed leaves.
D. Ask students to collect the leaves of plants and make pictures of different animals using the leaves.
Choose the correct option.

(1) B and C
(2) A and D
(3) A and B
(4) C and D

Why: Both activities put children in direct contact with a range of real plants: identifying them by smell alone draws attention to a property they would otherwise ignore, and gathering leaves to build pictures makes them notice differences in shape, size and texture. Hunting for leaf patterns on household objects and listening to a poem keep the plants themselves out of the children’s hands.

85.Which of the following elements best describe the nature of EVS?
A. Established facts
B. Logical information
C. Observation
D. Scientific terminology
E. Experimentation
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and C
(2) B and D
(3) D and E
(4) C and E

Why: The subject is characterised by what children do in it — observing closely and trying things out. Established facts and scientific terminology describe the finished content of a discipline, which is not what EVS at this stage is about.

86.Read the following statements A and B carefully:
A. Recommendation of NCF (2005) is to discourage rote learning of information.
B. Recommendation of NCF (2005) is to discourage maintenance of sharp boundaries between different subject areas.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and B are true.
(2) Both A and B are false.
(3) A is true but B is false.
(4) A is false but B is true.

Why: Both are positions NCF 2005 takes. Moving away from rote learning is among its central concerns, and EVS itself exists as an integrated subject precisely because it rejects hard walls between science, social science and the environment.

87.Chinu wants to know how day and night occur. Which of the following methods will be the best to explain this to Chinu?

(1) Explanation with diagrams
(2) Working model
(3) PowerPoint presentation
(4) Storytelling

Why: Day and night depend on rotation, which is motion, and a working model shows the turning earth against a fixed source of light. A diagram or a slide can only freeze one moment of it.

88.Read the following statements A and B carefully:
A. In EVS learning, the challenge is to respect the multicultural dimensions of diverse classrooms.
B. In EVS learning, every student should feel important—community, culture and his way of life.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and B are true.
(2) Both A and B are false.
(3) A is true but B is false.
(4) A is false but B is true.

Why: EVS draws on what children bring from home, so a classroom of varied backgrounds is both a resource and a demand on the teacher. Each child seeing their own community and way of living treated as worth attention is part of what makes that work.

89.Discussion is used by the EVS teachers in their classes because
A. discussion develops social interaction among children
B. discussion supports authentic and meaningful learning
C. meaningful construction of knowledge occurs when ideas are shared
D. discussion is suitable for the emotionally balanced children
Choose the correct option.

(1) B, C and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) A, B and D
(4) A, C and D

Why: Discussion builds interaction, grounds learning in real exchange and lets understanding form as ideas are shared. Statement D would restrict discussion to a subset of children, which is neither true nor a reason for using it.

90.An environmental studies teacher asked his class III children to visit the school garden and collect different types of leaves. Which of the following process skills does the teacher want to develop among children?

(1) Observation and classification
(2) Only experimentation
(3) Only classification
(4) Creative expression and experimentation with leaves

Why: Collecting different types of leaves requires looking carefully and then deciding what makes one type different from another — observation followed by classification. No experiment is being set up, and classification alone leaves out the looking that precedes it.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

91.Who is the narrator in the story?

(1) Aunt
(2) A young boy
(3) Uncle
(4) Uncle’s friend

Why: The narrator speaks of my uncle and my aunt throughout and is addressed by the neighbour as the young fellow. He is the nephew, a boy accompanying his uncle, not one of the adults.

92.What task was the uncle supposed to perform that day?

(1) To play cards
(2) To go round the city
(3) To frame a photograph
(4) To meet his engineer friend

Why: The passage states plainly that the main job for the day was to mount and frame the photograph, which the uncle carries in an envelope. Meeting the engineer happens by chance on the way.

93.Why was the aunt angry at the uncle’s entertaining friends at home?

(1) Because he lost money in card games
(2) Because they created a lot of noise
(3) Because she had to serve them coffee and snacks repeatedly
(4) Both (1) and (3)

Why: Both grievances appear in the passage: the money lost at cards and the endless rounds of coffee and snacks she had to carry in. Since options 1 and 3 are each supported, the combined option is the complete answer.

94.State which of the following statements is True/False.
A: The friends’ sessions gradually came to an end.
B: The uncle stubbornly refused to listen to his wife.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and B are true.
(2) Both A and B are false.
(3) A is true but B is false.
(4) B is true but A is false.

Why: The company dwindled and disappeared, so A holds. B is the opposite of what happened: worn out by her attacks, the uncle began avoiding his friends. He kept dreaming of cards, but he did not defy her.

95.Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) The engineer-friend worked at a far-off place.
(2) The aunt was happy at the friends’ meetings taking place at their place.
(3) My uncle was a gentle person.
(4) The photograph was kept safely in an envelope.

Why: The aunt complained bitterly after every session, so she was anything but happy about them. The engineer did work on distant hill projects, the photograph was carried in an old envelope, and the uncle’s yielding manner marks him as gentle.

96.Identify the clause of the underlined part:
“... an engineer who worked in some distant projects ...”

(1) Noun clause
(2) Adjective clause
(3) Adverb clause
(4) Principal clause

Why: The clause begins with the relative pronoun who and tells us which engineer is meant, so it does the work of an adjective by qualifying the noun.

97.Identify the type of the following sentence.
“What madness seizes you ...!”

(1) Declarative
(2) Interrogative
(3) Exclamatory
(4) Optative

Why: Despite opening with what, this expresses strong feeling rather than asking anything, and it closes with an exclamation mark. An optative sentence would express a wish or a blessing.

98.Choose the word opposite in meaning to ‘fragile’.

(1) aggressive
(2) durable
(3) reckless
(4) tall

Why: Fragile means easily broken, so its opposite is something that lasts and withstands handling. The other three words are unrelated in sense rather than opposed.

99.What does the expression, ‘We sallied out ...’ mean in the context?

(1) To go out for a jaunt
(2) To rush out in a hurry
(3) To walk in a lethargic manner
(4) To leave in a determined manner

Why: To sally out is to set off briskly and with purpose. The two had a definite job to do that afternoon, which rules out an aimless outing or a listless walk, and nothing in the scene suggests haste.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

100.‘The huts of history’s shame’ refers to

(1) a shameful event in history
(2) abject poverty
(3) modest living standards
(4) comfortable existence

Why: The phrase names the shame of history itself — slavery and the conditions it forced on people — rather than poverty in general. Abject poverty, option 2, describes the huts but misses the word “history’s”, which fixes the shame to a historical wrong.

101.Which of the following describes the theme of the poem correctly?

(1) Feminism
(2) Relationship
(3) Oppression
(4) Environment

Why: The extract moves through hatefulness, a past rooted in pain, nights of terror and the condition of the slave, and sets the speaker’s rising against all of it. Oppression, and the refusal to be held down by it, is what the lines are about.

102.“I am the dream and the hope of the slave” shows that the poet is a/an

(1) pessimist
(2) optimist
(3) cynic
(4) nihilist

Why: To call oneself the dream and the hope of those who were enslaved is to claim that what they longed for has come about. The line looks forward with confidence, which is the mark of an optimist.

103.“A past that’s rooted in pain” refers to a past

(1) that has always been pleasurable
(2) that has been pleasurable once but is now in pain
(3) that has always been painful
(4) that has had alternate periods of pain and pleasure

Why: Rooted means the pain goes to the origin, not that it came later. The image is of suffering present from the beginning, which rules out the alternating and the once-pleasurable readings.

104.The use of ‘I rise’ in the poem is an example of:

(1) hyperbole
(2) parallelism
(3) alliteration
(4) repetition

Why: The same two words return again and again, ending the extract three times over. That is repetition. Parallelism would require matching grammatical structures rather than the identical phrase.

105.Which literary device has been used in the following line?
“But still, like air, I’ll rise.”

(1) Metaphor
(2) Simile
(3) Oxymoron
(4) Metonymy

Why: The word like makes the comparison explicit, which is what distinguishes a simile from a metaphor. A metaphor would state the speaker is air rather than rises like it.

106.Chomsky propounded that an innate capacity to acquire language is the result of our uniquely human biological inheritance. This inheritance is known as

(1) language adaptation degree
(2) language acquire domain
(3) language acceptance desire
(4) language acquisition device

Why: Chomsky named this inborn endowment the language acquisition device, his explanation for how children master a grammar far richer than the speech they hear. The other three are invented phrases.

107.The term for the smallest meaningful unit of sound in a language is

(1) semantics
(2) phoneme
(3) morpheme
(4) syntax

Why: A phoneme is the smallest unit of sound that can change meaning, as the difference between pin and bin shows. A morpheme is the smallest meaningful unit of language, but the question asks about sound.

108.Infants around 2 to 3 months of age are capable of producing open vowel sounds. These sounds are examples of

(1) cooing
(2) babbling
(3) shouting
(4) one-word utterances

Why: Cooing is the early stage of drawn-out vowel sounds at around two to three months. Babbling comes later, at about six months, when consonants join in and syllables such as ba-ba appear.

109.Ankita can understand and speak six different languages. Her language ability makes her a

(1) monolingual speaker
(2) linguist
(3) multilingual speaker
(4) bilingual speaker

Why: Command of more than two languages makes a speaker multilingual. A linguist studies language as a subject, which is a different matter from speaking several.

110.You are interested in studying topics such as code-mixing, code-switching, children’s language and secret languages. Which of the following disciplines you need to study for these?

(1) Cultural psychology
(2) Anthropology
(3) Sociology
(4) Sociolinguistics

Why: All four topics concern how language behaves in social settings — which variety is used with whom, and why speakers move between them. That is the subject matter of sociolinguistics.

111.Which area is not a part of contrastive analysis?

(1) Syntactic
(2) Semantic
(3) Lexical
(4) Phonological

Why: Contrastive analysis sets two languages side by side at the levels where their forms can be matched: sound system, grammatical structure and vocabulary. Meaning does not lend itself to that kind of point-by-point comparison, so the semantic level falls outside it.

112.You find that an English language teacher is using freely mother tongue in the class. She is using _____ method.

(1) audio-lingual
(2) grammar-translation
(3) structural oral situation
(4) direct

Why: The grammar-translation method works through the mother tongue, explaining rules and translating between the two languages. The direct method is its opposite, banning the first language from the classroom.

113.The ability to write concisely by not including any details that can be avoided to achieve precision is a skill which is known as

(1) summarizing
(2) process writing
(3) note-taking
(4) note-making

Why: Summarizing means reducing a text to its essentials by leaving out what can be spared. Note-taking and note-making record points for one’s own later use, and process writing describes the stages a piece of writing passes through.

114.Voice expressions can effectively be judged by

(1) speed of voice
(2) words selection
(3) tone of voice
(4) vocals

Why: Tone is what carries feeling in speech: the same words spoken in a different tone convey something quite different. Speed contributes but says less on its own, and word choice is a matter of language rather than voice.

115.Seating arrangement in a classroom should be flexible. This is because

(1) it would prevent children from forming permanent friendship groups
(2) it would help conduct many group, pair and whole-class activities very easily
(3) it would give the children freedom to move their seats wherever and whenever they want
(4) it would help the teacher ensure equality in her classroom

Why: Language work shifts constantly between pairs, small groups and the whole class, and furniture that can be moved lets those shifts happen without disruption. Flexible seating is not the same as children rearranging the room at will.

116.To assess reading skill at primary level, a language teacher should most importantly focus on

(1) identifying the letters of alphabet
(2) use of punctuation mark
(3) reading with fluency
(4) reading with understanding

Why: Reading is making meaning from print, so comprehension is what an assessment must reach. A child can decode a page fluently and aloud without grasping any of it, which is why fluency alone is not enough.

117.To ensure effective communication, it is important to

(1) keep on intervening others at regular intervals
(2) keep on moving and gesturing
(3) keep on saying whatever comes to your mind
(4) listen to others first

Why: Communication is an exchange, and listening is what makes a response fit what the other person actually said. The first three options all describe one-way talk.

118.A major objective of teaching English grammar is to

(1) increase the originality of our ideas
(2) develop the ability to express ideas logically and correctly in speech and writing
(3) increase our ability to memorize rules
(4) develop interest in studies

Why: Grammar is taught so that learners can say and write what they mean accurately. Memorising rules is a means that often gets mistaken for the end, and originality of ideas is not what grammar governs.

119.While developing writing skill among the students at primary level, a teacher must encourage her students to write on topics related to

(1) national theme
(2) religious beliefs
(3) personal life
(4) social issues

Why: Young children write best about what they know first-hand — their home, their friends, what happened to them. Abstract national or social themes give them nothing of their own to draw on.

120.You want to identify individual differences of learners to scaffold them in your class. Which of the following assessments would you use for this purpose?

(1) Peer assessment
(2) Diagnostic assessment
(3) Summative assessment
(4) Formative assessment

Why: Diagnostic assessment is carried out to find out where each learner stands and what specifically is getting in the way, which is what scaffolding has to be built on. Formative assessment then supports learning as teaching proceeds.
Note: the CBSE final key accepts both option 2 and option 4 for this question, so either was awarded the mark.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

121.हाथी के पर्याय हैं

(1) वनराज, हस्ती, कुंज
(2) हस्ति, गज, वनराज
(3) गज, हस्ती, कुंज
(4) कुंजरू, हस्ती, गज

Why: गज, हस्ती और कुंजर — तीनों हाथी के पर्याय हैं। वनराज सिंह का पर्याय है और कुंज का अर्थ लता-वन या निकुंज, इसलिए जिन विकल्पों में ये आते हैं वे कट जाते हैं।

122.‘अत्यंत’ का संधि-विच्छेद है

(1) अत् + यंत
(2) अति + अंत
(3) अती + अंत
(4) अत् + अंत

Why: इ और अ के मेल से य् बनता है — यही यण् संधि है। अति + अंत = अत्यंत। अत् या अती जैसे रूप शब्द में हैं ही नहीं।

123.‘प्राणियों’, प्राणी संज्ञा का _____ रूप है।

(1) स्त्रीलिंग बहुवचन तिर्यक
(2) पुल्लिंग बहुवचन तिर्यक
(3) पुल्लिंग बहुवचन सामान्य
(4) स्त्रीलिंग बहुवचन सामान्य

Why: प्राणी पुल्लिंग है, और ‘प्राणियों’ में –ओं की विभक्ति लगी है, जो परसर्ग से पहले आने वाला तिर्यक (विकारी) रूप है। सामान्य बहुवचन तो ‘प्राणी’ ही रहता।

124.गद्यांश के अनुसार कौन-सा कथन सही है?

(1) चिंपैंजी की बुद्धिशक्ति संदेह के घेरे में रही है।
(2) प्राणियों में स्तनपायी पशुओं का बुद्धिमत्ता पर एकाधिकार है।
(3) दो तरह के प्राणियों पर तुलनात्मक प्रयोग करना आसान है।
(4) औज़ारों का प्रयोग करना मूर्खता की निशानी है।

Why: गद्यांश कहता है कि प्रायः सभी विज्ञानी इस पर सहमत हैं कि पशुओं में स्तनपायियों का बुद्धिमत्ता पर लगभग एकाधिकार है। चिंपैंजी की बुद्धि पर तो वैज्ञानिकों को कभी संदेह ही नहीं रहा, और औज़ारों का प्रयोग बुद्धिमानी का चिह्न बताया गया है।

125.गद्यांश के अनुसार बुद्धिमत्ता का प्रमाण नहीं है

(1) भूल-भुलैया में सही मार्ग खोजना
(2) भिन्न वस्तु की पहचान करना
(3) तोते द्वारा भाषा के कुछ शब्द सीखना
(4) किसी धुन अथवा ताल पर नृत्य करना

Why: पहले तीनों गद्यांश में बुद्धि के प्रमाण के रूप में आते हैं — भूल-भुलैया, अटपटी वस्तु का चुनाव और तोते-काग का शब्द सीखना। धुन पर नृत्य का वहाँ कोई उल्लेख नहीं।

126.गद्यांश में वर्णित बुद्धिमान प्राणियों का समूह नहीं है

(1) चिंपैंजी, सूँस, हाथी
(2) सूँस, तोता, कौआ
(3) सूँस, हाथी, बंदर
(4) चिंपैंजी, तोता, काग

Why: गद्यांश में चिंपैंजी, सूँस, हाथी, कौआ, तोता, काग और कठफोड़वा आते हैं — बंदर कहीं नहीं आता, इसलिए वही समूह गलत ठहरता है।

127.कौए और तोते का भाषा सीख लेना उनकी

(1) आनुवंशिक क्षमता है
(2) बौद्धिक शक्ति का प्रमाण है
(3) नकलकर सीखने का प्रमाण है
(4) सहज वृत्ति है

Why: गद्यांश में कुछ वैज्ञानिकों का यही मत दिया गया है कि मनुष्य की बोली के चंद शब्द सीख लेना केवल आनुवंशिक क्षमता नहीं, बुद्धिशक्ति का प्रमाण है।

128.मानव शिशु बुद्धिमत्ता में चिंपैंजी के शिशु से कब आगे निकलता है?

(1) जब वह पैदा होता है
(2) जब वह लिखना सीख लेता है
(3) जब वह बोलना सीख लेता है
(4) जब वह पैदल चलने लगता है

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार जन्म के बाद दो-एक वर्षों में चिंपैंजी के बच्चे आगे रहते हैं, पर जैसे ही मानव-शिशु बोलना सीख जाता है, वह तेज़ी से आगे निकलने लगता है।

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

129.प्लास्टिक की थैलियों की यात्रा को अंतहीन क्यों कहा गया है?

(1) हम थैलियों को सँभालकर रखते हैं
(2) हम थैलियाँ घर लेकर आते हैं
(3) कचरे में फेंकी थैलियों को हवा उड़ाकर ले जाती है
(4) हम कचरे में थैलियाँ फेंक देते हैं

Why: कचरे में पहुँचने के बाद भी थैली रुकती नहीं — हवा उसे उड़ाकर नदी-नालों तक और वहाँ से समुद्र तक ले जाती है। यात्रा का यही न रुकना उसे अंतहीन बनाता है।

130.प्लास्टिक की समुद्री यात्रा देखकर आश्चर्य क्यों हुआ?

(1) समुद्र में प्लास्टिक सड़ गया था
(2) प्लास्टिक अजर-अमर है
(3) समुद्र में चारों ओर प्लास्टिक की थैलियाँ थीं
(4) घरों का प्लास्टिक कचरा समुद्र में तैर रहा था

Why: खोज करने वालों को अचरज इस बात पर हुआ कि हमारे घरों से निकला कचरा अब समुद्रों में बड़े-बड़े ढेर की तरह तैर रहा है। अजर-अमर होना उस खोज का निष्कर्ष है, आश्चर्य का कारण नहीं।

131.प्लास्टिक के अजर-अमर होने का सही आशय है

(1) यह नदी-नालों से बहकर समुद्र में पहुँचता है
(2) यह जमीन पर या पानी में गलता व सड़ता नहीं है
(3) यह समुद्र में तैरता है
(4) यह हवा में उड़ता है

Why: अजर-अमर का अर्थ है जो न जीर्ण हो, न नष्ट हो। गद्यांश यही कहता है कि यह कचरा न ज़मीन पर गलता-सड़ता है, न समुद्र में। बहना, तैरना और उड़ना उसकी यात्रा के ब्योरे हैं।

132.घर तक चीज़ें लाने का माध्यम _____ होना चाहिए।

(1) चिरंजीव
(2) अल्पायु
(3) अजर-अमर
(4) प्लास्टिक का

Why: लेखक का प्रश्न यही है कि यह माध्यम इतनी कम उम्र का क्यों हो, वह चिरंजीव क्यों न बने — अर्थात् बार-बार काम आने वाला। ध्यान रहे, अजर-अमर यहाँ प्लास्टिक के न नष्ट होने के लिए व्यंग्य में आया है, प्रशंसा में नहीं।

133.प्लास्टिक का उपयोग कम करने का उपाय नहीं है

(1) टैक्स लगाना
(2) प्रतिबंध लगाना
(3) प्लास्टिक की थैली का बार-बार प्रयोग करना
(4) कपड़े के थैले का प्रयोग करना

Why: गद्यांश में टैक्स, सीधा प्रतिबंध और कपड़े-कागज़ के थैलों का चलन — ये तीन उपाय गिनाए गए हैं। उसी थैली को दोबारा बरतने से प्लास्टिक घर में बना रहता है, वह उपयोग घटाने का उपाय नहीं।

134.भिन्न शब्द पहचानिए।

(1) समाजों
(2) थैलियों
(3) आँकड़ों
(4) पहाड़ों

Why: समाज, आँकड़ा और पहाड़ — तीनों पुल्लिंग हैं; थैली स्त्रीलिंग है। चारों रूप बहुवचन तिर्यक हैं, इसलिए भेद लिंग से ही निकलता है।

135.‘गिरावट’ एक _____ संज्ञा है।

(1) गणनीय
(2) व्यक्तिवाचक
(3) भाववाचक
(4) जातिवाचक

Why: गिरावट किसी वस्तु का नाम नहीं, गिरने के भाव या अवस्था का नाम है, इसलिए भाववाचक संज्ञा है — जैसे थकावट, सजावट।

136.द्वितीय भाषा-अधिगम के सिद्धांत में अर्जन, अवलोकन, स्वाभाविक, निवेश-प्रधान परिकल्पना जैसी शब्दावली किसने दी है?

(1) वायगोत्स्की
(2) स्टीवन पिंकर
(3) चॉमस्की
(4) स्टीफ़न क्रेशन

Why: ये सब क्रेशन की परिकल्पनाओं की शब्दावली है — अर्जन और अधिगम का भेद, स्वाभाविक क्रम तथा निवेश (input) परिकल्पना उन्हीं की देन हैं।

137.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा सिद्धांत ग्रेडिंग और क्रम में अंतर्निहित है?

(1) नियंत्रित शब्दावली
(2) श्रेणीकरण
(3) आदत निर्माण
(4) स्वाभाविक मार्ग का अनुपालन

Why: श्रेणीकरण (gradation) का अर्थ ही है भाषिक सामग्री को कठिनाई और उपयोगिता के क्रम में सजाना, ताकि हर अगली बात पिछली पर टिके। नियंत्रित शब्दावली मात्रा सीमित करती है, क्रम तय नहीं करती।

138.आपके संज्ञान में यह बात आयी कि आपके विद्यार्थियों को लक्ष्य भाषा के कुछ उदाहरण प्रस्तुत किए जाने चाहिए और उन्हें अनुकरण करने व प्रतिक्रिया देने के लिए प्रोत्साहित किया जाना चाहिए। इस उद्देश्य के लिए सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त गतिविधि कौन-सी है?

(1) प्रत्यक्ष (डायरेक्ट) विधि
(2) सम्प्रेषणात्मक भाषा-शिक्षण
(3) श्रव्य-भाषिक विधि
(4) व्याकरण-अनुवाद विधि

Why: नमूना प्रस्तुत कर अनुकरण और प्रतिक्रिया कराना श्रव्य-भाषिक विधि है, जो अभ्यास-ड्रिल और आदत-निर्माण पर टिकी है। सम्प्रेषणात्मक शिक्षण अनुकरण से नहीं, बोलने के प्रयोजन से शुरू होता।

139.बच्चों में मातृभाषा के विकास को सामान्यतः किस रूप में देखा जाता है?

(1) भाषा अर्जन
(2) भाषा अधिगम
(3) भाषा आत्मसातीकरण
(4) अमूर्त भाषा विकास

Why: मातृभाषा बिना पढ़ाए, परिवेश और प्रयोग से आती है — यही अर्जन है। अधिगम इस भेद में उस सीखने को कहते हैं जो सचेत रूप से, पढ़ाकर कराया जाता है।

140.एक सक्रिय श्रोता तुरंत किस बारे में समझ बना लेता है?

(1) वक्ता के कथन में निहित तर्क
(2) वक्ता क्या कहने का प्रयास कर रहा है
(3) दूसरा व्यक्ति क्या कह रहा है
(4) वक्ता क्या कहना चाहता है

Why: [KEY] अधिकृत उत्तरकुंजी में ‘वक्ता के कथन में निहित तर्क’ दिया गया है। सक्रिय श्रवण की सामान्य परिभाषा वक्ता के आशय तक पहुँचने की है, जिससे विकल्प 2 उपयुक्त लगता है। परीक्षा की दृष्टि से विकल्प 1 ही मान्य है।

141.कक्षा में काव्य पढ़ाने के लिए, अध्यापक ने सबसे पहले कविता पाठ किया, तत्पश्चात् शिक्षार्थियों को समूह-कार्य में शामिल किया। एक समूह ने कविता की थीम लिखी, दूसरे समूह ने मुख्य पात्र को वर्णित करने के लिए चित्र बनाया और तीसरे समूह ने सारांश लिखा। इस गतिविधि का क्या उद्देश्य है?

(1) शिक्षार्थियों का ध्यान भंग करना
(2) कक्षा में सभी विद्यार्थियों को शामिल करना
(3) शिक्षार्थियों की विविध योग्यताओं और रुचियों को पोषित करना
(4) शिक्षार्थियों को आकलन के लिए तैयार करना

Why: तीनों काम अलग-अलग क्षमताओं को पुकारते हैं — व्याख्या, चित्रांकन और सारांश-लेखन — ताकि हर बच्चे को कविता में प्रवेश का अपना रास्ता मिले। सबका शामिल होना इसका परिणाम है; कार्यों के भिन्न होने का कारण यही विविधता है।

142.ऐसी कक्षा जिसमें द्वितीय भाषा का पठन होता है, एक प्रकार से बहुविध भाषाओं का जमावड़ा (सम्मिलन) है। इस प्रकार की कक्षा में अध्यापक की भूमिका क्या होगी?

(1) पाठ्यक्रम पूरा करने के लिए विद्यार्थियों को विविध प्रकार के कार्यों वाली वर्कशीट (कार्यपत्रक) देना
(2) अपेक्षित कौशलों के विकास के लिए विद्यार्थियों को सुविधाजनक परिवेश देना
(3) विद्यार्थियों को पाठ्यसामग्री का सारांश और सरलीकृत रूप देना
(4) विद्यार्थियों को स्व-व्याख्यायित (टिप्पणियाँ) देना

Why: जहाँ बच्चे अलग-अलग भाषाएँ लेकर आते हैं, वहाँ सबसे पहले उन्हें ऐसा परिवेश चाहिए जिसमें नई भाषा में गलती करते हुए भी बोलने का साहस बने। वर्कशीट, सारांश और टिप्पणियाँ सामग्री हैं, परिवेश नहीं।

143.आपने एक ऐसा परीक्षा-पत्र बनाया है जिसके द्वारा आप अपेक्षा करते हैं कि शिक्षार्थी काल-रूप, योजक, कारक और विशेषणों का सही प्रयोग बता पाएँ। आपने इस परीक्षा-पत्र में किस उपागम का प्रयोग किया है?

(1) प्रत्यक्ष व्याकरण परीक्षण
(2) अप्रत्यक्ष व्याकरण परीक्षण
(3) मिश्रित व्याकरण कार्य
(4) समेकित व्याकरण परीक्षण

Why: यहाँ व्याकरण के कई क्षेत्र एक ही भाषिक सामग्री के भीतर एक साथ जाँचे जा रहे हैं, अलग-अलग नहीं — यही समेकित उपागम है। प्रत्यक्ष परीक्षण एक ही बिंदु को खुलकर पूछता है।

144.बच्चे अपनी शुरुआती अवस्था में दीवार, फ़र्श और कॉपियों में आड़ी-तिरछी रेखाएँ बनाते हैं। भाषा अधिगम में इस चरण को क्या कहते हैं?

(1) कीरमकाँटे (स्क्रिबलिंग)
(2) उद्गामी साक्षरता
(3) लेखन-कौशल
(4) लेखाचित्र विकास

Why: औपचारिक शिक्षण से पहले बच्चा जो निशान बनाता है, वही उद्गामी साक्षरता की शुरुआत है — वह दौर जिसमें बच्चा समझने लगता है कि निशान अर्थ रखते हैं। विकल्प 1 केवल उस क्रिया का नाम है, भाषा अधिगम के चरण का नहीं।

145.सम्प्रेषणात्मक भाषा-शिक्षण किसकी पारस्परिक निर्भरता पर बल देता है?

(1) भाषा और सम्प्रेषण
(2) भाषा और संवाद
(3) भाषा और व्यवहार
(4) भाषा और मनोविज्ञान

Why: यह उपागम भाषा को सम्प्रेषण के वास्तविक प्रयोजनों में बरतते हुए सीखा जाना मानता है, इसलिए रूप और प्रयोजन एक-दूसरे पर टिके हैं। संवाद तो उन अनेक प्रयोजनों में से एक है।

146.आप अपनी कक्षा के विद्यार्थियों की अधिगम-प्रक्रिया के उपाख्यानात्मक अभिलेख रखना चाहते हैं। इस उद्देश्य हेतु आपको किसका प्रयोग करना चाहिए?

(1) प्रदत्तकार्य तकनीक
(2) परियोजना तकनीक
(3) मौखिक तकनीक
(4) अवलोकन तकनीक

Why: उपाख्यानात्मक अभिलेख वह छोटी-सी लिखित टीप है जो शिक्षक बच्चे को कुछ करते देखकर दर्ज करता है, इसलिए उसका आधार अवलोकन ही है। प्रदत्तकार्य और परियोजना उत्पाद देते हैं, प्रक्रिया का विवरण नहीं।

147.व्याकरण के संदर्भ में कौन-सा कथन सही है?

(1) व्याकरण का ज्ञान वाक् में प्रवाह लाने में मदद करता है।
(2) व्याकरण नियमों का समूह प्रस्तुत करता है जिन्हें व्यवहार में लाने से पहले कंठस्थ करना चाहिए।
(3) व्याकरण भाषाओं की व्यवस्था है जो हमारे वाचन और लेखन कौशलों को परिष्कृत करती है।
(4) विदेशी भाषा के अधिगम में व्याकरण की कोई भूमिका नहीं है।

Why: व्याकरण भाषा के भीतर काम करने वाली व्यवस्था है, और उसकी समझ बोलने-लिखने को निखारती है। प्रवाह अभ्यास से आता है, नियमों से नहीं; और प्रयोग से पहले कंठस्थ करना सीखने के क्रम को उलट देना है।

148.ऐसे शिशु और छोटी आयु के बच्चे जिनके परिवेश में आपस में संवाद करने यानी कि भाषा-संबंधी अनुभव के अवसर नहीं होते, उनका भाषायी विकास गंभीर रूप से बाधित होता है। ये बाधाएँ (कमी) अनुत्क्रमणीय हैं (जिन्हें पलटा न जा सके)। निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी शब्दावली इस व्याख्या को समर्थित करती है?

(1) सहजवाद (नेटीविज़्म)
(2) विकास की संवेदनशील अवस्था
(3) सामाजिक भाषिक
(4) अर्थतत्त्व (सीमेंटिक्स)

Why: निर्णायक शब्द ‘अनुत्क्रमणीय’ है। संवेदनशील अवस्था वह खिड़की है जिसमें विकास के लिए तंत्र तैयार रहता है, और उसी दौरान अनुभव न मिलने से हुई क्षति बाद के अवसरों से नहीं भरती।

149.व्याकरण-शिक्षण किस प्रकार होना चाहिए?

(1) संदर्भ में अभ्यास करने के अवसर देकर
(2) शिक्षार्थियों को लिखित प्रदत्तकार्य करवाकर
(3) विद्यार्थियों को नियमों को कंठस्थ करने के लिए प्रोत्साहित करके
(4) शिक्षार्थियों को पर्याप्त प्रदत्तकार्य देकर

Why: कोई संरचना तभी सधती है जब उससे कुछ कहा जाए, इसलिए सार्थक संदर्भ में अभ्यास ही व्याकरण को बोलने-लिखने में उतारता है। प्रदत्तकार्य और रटे हुए नियम ज्ञान को निष्क्रिय बनाए रखते हैं।

150.आप अपनी कक्षा में भाषा-समृद्ध परिवेश सृजित करना चाहते हैं। इसके लिए आप क्या करेंगे?

(1) शिक्षार्थियों को कक्षा में सम्प्रेषण के समय केवल अंग्रेजी का प्रयोग करने के लिए प्रोत्साहित करना चाहिए
(2) अपनी कक्षा में भाषा प्रयोगशाला की स्थापना करनी चाहिए
(3) अभिभावकों को भाषा-खेल व गतिविधियाँ खरीदने के लिए प्रोत्साहित करना चाहिए
(4) ऐसे अवसर सृजित करने चाहिए जहाँ भाषा दिखाई दे, संज्ञान में आए और शिक्षार्थियों द्वारा प्रयोग की जाए

Why: भाषा-समृद्ध कक्षा वह है जहाँ भाषा दीवारों और किताबों में दिखती है, ध्यान खींचती है और बरती जाती है। दूसरी भाषाओं पर रोक कक्षा को दरिद्र बनाती है, और उपकरण या खरीदारी से समृद्धि नहीं आती।

CTET February 2026 — Paper I (Classes I to V)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper I (Classes I to V)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part II — Mathematics

Part III — Environmental Studies

Part IV — Language I — English

Part V — Language II — Hindi

Answer Key

CTET February 2026 — Paper I (Classes I to V)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026Paper I (Classes I to V)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part II — Mathematics

Part III — Environmental Studies

Part IV — Language I — English

Part V — Language II — Hindi

Answer Key

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper I (Classes I to V)