MAK LABS — CTET 7 February 2026 Paper I (Classes I to V) Question Paper with Answer Key

1.Read the following statements:
Assertion (A): Some children have characteristics that resemble their parents while others are markedly different from their parents.
Reason (R): Working out how much of any characteristic is due to nature or genes and how much is due to nurture or environment is a complex issue.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: Both statements are true, and the reason accounts for the assertion: children resemble their parents in some respects and differ in others precisely because every characteristic is the product of heredity and environment working together, in proportions that are hard to untangle.

2.Which of the following statements about development is correct?

(1) Development in children can be predicted very accurately.
(2) Development is a simple and unitary process.
(3) Development can always be measured precisely.
(4) Development is multidimensional and multidirectional.

Why: Development runs along several dimensions at once — physical, cognitive, social, emotional — and in several directions, with gains in one area sometimes accompanied by losses in another. The other three options claim a precision and simplicity that developmental research does not support.

3.Read the following statements:
Assertion (A): The ability to comprehend and speak depends on the physical development of the mouth and brain.
Reason (R): Emotional development is related to physical growth.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: [KEY] The official key marks both statements true with the reason explaining the assertion. The assertion is uncontroversial — speech rests on the maturing of the mouth and the brain. The reason, however, is about emotional development, so many teachers would call it true but unrelated and answer option 2. Answer option 1 to match the key.

4.Most children can speak five-six coherent sentences at

(1) one year
(2) three years
(3) five years
(4) seven years

Why: By about three years most children move beyond single words and short phrases to strings of connected sentences. At one year speech is still at the single-word stage, and by five the sentences are longer and more complex than the milestone described here.

5.As per Lev Vygotsky, as children grow, their language develops from _____.

(1) inner speech to external speech
(2) private speech to egocentric speech
(3) silent speech to thinking aloud
(4) think out loud to inner speech

Why: For Vygotsky the direction is social to individual: speech begins as communication with others, becomes audible self-talk while the child works through a task, and finally goes underground as silent inner speech that guides thinking. Option (1) reverses this.

6.Piaget described cognitive development as occurring

(1) in four qualitatively different stages
(2) at three progressive levels
(3) as resolution of conflict at eight stages
(4) in a continuous manner from birth through adulthood

Why: Piaget proposed four stages — sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational and formal operational — each marked by a different kind of thinking rather than simply more of it. Eight stages of conflict resolution belongs to Erikson; three levels belongs to Kohlberg.

7.Rama was mean to her brother Tahir. Next day Tahir got sick. Rama concluded that she made her brother sick.
According to Piaget, which stage of cognitive development is Rama in?

(1) Sensorimotor stage
(2) Preoperational stage
(3) Concrete operational stage
(4) Formal operational stage

Why: Linking two events simply because one followed the other is transductive reasoning, characteristic of the preoperational child. A concrete operational child would look for an actual mechanism connecting her behaviour to his illness and would not find one.

8._____ is the process by which children become aware of their gender roles.

(1) Gender typing
(2) Gender equality
(3) Gender relatedness
(4) Gender homogeneity

Why: Gender typing is the process through which children pick up the behaviours, preferences and roles their culture attaches to being a girl or a boy. The other three are not recognised terms for this process.

9.Which of the following scenarios is aptly describing the application of Lev Vygotsky’s concept of ‘scaffolding’?

(1) A teacher gave half-solved problems to her students who were finding it difficult to solve them otherwise.
(2) A teacher has strictly prohibited students to have any kind of collaborations and communication with their peers.
(3) A teacher has written answers on the blackboard and has asked the students to copy the answers passively in their notebooks.
(4) A teacher has made it mandatory for her students to solve problems on their own in a set time period.

Why: Scaffolding means giving just enough support for the learner to manage what they could not manage alone, then withdrawing it. A half-solved problem does exactly that. Copying answers removes the thinking altogether, and forbidding collaboration or insisting on solo work removes the support.

10.Progressive education is an educational philosophy that emphasizes on _____.

(1) student-centred learning and active participation
(2) rote memorization and teacher-centred instruction
(3) standardized testing and strict curriculum guidelines
(4) competition and individual achievement

Why: Progressive education places the learner at the centre and treats learning as something done rather than received. The remaining options describe the traditional model it was formulated against.

11.Read the following statements:
Assertion (A): Children progress from understanding consequences of act to determine whether they are good/bad to understanding that rules and laws are flexible and can be changed.
Reason (R): According to Kohlberg, children’s moral development occurs in continuous manner and not a discontinuous one.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A correctly traces the movement from preconventional reasoning, where right and wrong are judged by consequences, to postconventional reasoning, where rules are seen as social agreements open to change. R is false: Kohlberg’s is a stage theory, and stages make development discontinuous.

12.According to Lev Vygotsky, cognitive development is guided by

(1) language in the form of private speech
(2) processes of attention and perception
(3) assimilation and accommodation that change ‘schemes’
(4) positive and negative reinforcement given by the environment

Why: Vygotsky treated language as the tool that reorganises thinking, with private speech the visible point where speech begins to steer thought. Assimilation and accommodation are Piaget’s; reinforcement is behaviourist.

13.Which of the following intelligence helps people to perceive, express, understand and regulate moods and feelings of others?

(1) Interpersonal
(2) Logical-mathematical
(3) Musical
(4) Naturalist

Why: In Gardner’s scheme, interpersonal intelligence is the capacity to read and respond to other people’s moods, motives and feelings. Reading one’s own inner states would be intrapersonal, which is not among the options.

14.A child’s first experience as well as expectations of what it means to be a ‘girl’ or a ‘boy’ comes from

(1) media
(2) relatives
(3) neighbourhood
(4) family

Why: The family is the child’s first socialising agency, and gender expectations reach the child there long before media, neighbourhood or the wider circle of relatives have any influence.

15.An essential characteristic of formative assessment is—

(1) to assign relative ranks and positions to learners.
(2) tests and exams at the end of the year.
(3) clarification of assessment criteria to the learners.
(4) to focus on quantitative means to achieve objectivity.

Why: Formative assessment works only if learners know what they are aiming at, so making the criteria explicit is central to it. Ranking learners and testing at the end of the year are features of summative assessment.

16.Dysgraphia is a

(1) neurodevelopmental disorder
(2) personality disorder
(3) physical disability
(4) learning disability

Why: Dysgraphia is a specific learning disability affecting written expression — handwriting, spelling and putting thoughts on paper — in children whose general ability is unimpaired. It is not a personality disorder, and the difficulty is not caused by physical impairment of the hand.
Note: the CBSE final key accepts both option 1 and option 4 for this question, so either was awarded the mark.

17.A teacher should cater to _____ needs of gifted children in the classrooms.

(1) cognitive
(2) cognitive and emotional
(3) cognitive and social
(4) cognitive, social and emotional

Why: Giftedness is often accompanied by social isolation and emotional intensity, so attending only to intellectual challenge leaves real needs unmet. The classroom has to address all three.

18.Which of the following are examples of pedagogical approaches to teach students with learning disabilities?
(i) Use of multisensory strategies
(ii) Standardized learning goals
(iii) Flexible and sequential instructions
(iv) Breaking down tasks into smaller parts
Choose the correct option.

(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Why: Multisensory input, flexible sequencing and task breakdown all respond to the individual profile of the learner. Standardised learning goals work in the opposite direction, holding every child to the same target and so defeating the purpose of the other three.

19.Which of the following statements about Autism Spectrum Disorder is correct?

(1) Children with Autism Spectrum Disorder have excellent communication skills but very poor memory.
(2) Sensory integration and regulation help children with Autism Spectrum Disorder.
(3) It is primarily the ability to hear that is affected in Autism Spectrum Disorder.
(4) Children with Autism Spectrum Disorder exhibit a preference for new stimuli every day.

Why: Difficulty processing sensory input is a recognised feature of autism, and structured sensory regulation helps. Communication is typically an area of difficulty rather than strength, hearing as such is not the impairment, and children on the spectrum usually prefer predictability to novelty.

20.While teaching in inclusive setups, it is important that teachers—

(1) see diversity as an obstacle to effective teaching.
(2) continuously examine their own implicit and preconceived bias.
(3) understand special children as needy and dependent on others.
(4) follow same curriculum and uniform pedagogy of all learners.

Why: Inclusion starts with the teacher’s own assumptions, which shape expectations before any method is chosen. Treating diversity as an obstacle, children as dependent, or every learner as identical each work against inclusion.

21.Read the following statements:
Assertion (A): Teachers should include a variety of children’s literature to create print-rich environment in the classroom.
Reason (R): Classrooms rich in literacy materials and literacy experiences are central to effective learning.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: Both statements are sound, and here R does explain A: because literacy-rich surroundings support learning, the teacher stocks the classroom with varied children’s literature. The reason gives the ground for the recommendation.

22.In order to facilitate students’ learning in a progressive classroom, a teacher should emphasize on the practice of

(1) behaviour conditioning
(2) passive replication
(3) reflective thinking
(4) obedient listening

Why: A progressive classroom asks learners to examine their own thinking and revise it. Conditioning, replication and obedient listening all cast the learner as a recipient rather than a thinker.

23.Seeing Raman, a 4th grade student stuck on a question, his teacher asked him to try the solution while speaking what is going on in his mind. Such verbalization is likely to be—

(1) futile because language hinders thought process.
(2) helpful because language facilitates thought process.
(3) supportive only for students with learning disabilities because they have difficulty in auditory processing.
(4) unproductive because language and thought are not related.

Why: Thinking aloud is private speech put to work: it slows the reasoning down and makes each step available for checking. This helps learners generally, not only those with difficulties.

24.A teacher who believes in constructivist pedagogy would—

(1) avoid connecting content to real world.
(2) avoid judgements of students solely on the basis of socio-cultural backgrounds.
(3) promote high levels of verbal instructions as primary pedagogy.
(4) promote ‘ability grouping’ of students.

Why: Constructivism treats the learner’s background as material to build on, not a basis for judging what they can achieve. Cutting content off from the real world, relying on verbal instruction and sorting children by ability all run against it.

25.Active engagement of learners implies that the students—

(1) inquire, explore and question.
(2) rote memorize facts and information.
(3) actively value marks and competition.
(4) consider textbook as the sole source of knowledge.

Why: Engagement is about what the learner does with the content. Inquiry, exploration and questioning are active; memorising, chasing marks and treating the textbook as the only source leave the learner receiving rather than working.

26.Radha reasons, “Clothes dry faster in the sun than in the shade, so the sun is helping them to dry”. She is showing an understanding of—

(1) cause and effect.
(2) reversible thinking.
(3) decentration.
(4) animism.

Why: Radha has linked a condition to an outcome — sun, therefore faster drying — which is causal reasoning. The word “helping” tempts a reading of animism, option 4, but she is describing an agent’s effect rather than granting the sun life or intention.

27.Which of the following is an example of intrinsic motivation?

(1) Studying for a test to get good grade
(2) Playing a game for the prize money
(3) Playing a sport for personal enjoyment
(4) Completing the homework to avoid being scolded by parents

Why: Intrinsic motivation comes from the activity itself. Grades, prize money and avoiding a scolding are all outcomes outside the activity, which makes those three extrinsic.

28.Read the following statements:
Assertion (A): Teachers who believe in constructivist pedagogy should provide a lot of materials to the children.
Reason (R): Young children depend solely on verbal instructions and lectures for meaningful learning.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A is sound: constructivist teaching depends on things children can handle and manipulate. R says the opposite of what that practice rests on — the word solely makes it false, since young children learn through action rather than through lectures alone.

29.Avoiding the appearance of low ability in front of peers and teachers is an example of

(1) mastery goals
(2) performance approach goals
(3) task-involved goals
(4) performance avoidance goals

Why: The aim here is not to look incompetent, which is a performance avoidance goal. A performance approach goal would aim to look capable; mastery and task-involved goals focus on learning the material rather than on how one appears.

30.Which of the following is an effective way to promote critical thinking in the classroom?

(1) Encouraging rote memorization of facts.
(2) Discouraging students from asking questions.
(3) Encouraging students to think independently and questioning assumptions.
(4) Providing students with a set of predetermined answers to choose from.

Why: Critical thinking grows where assumptions can be examined and conclusions reached independently. Memorising, suppressing questions and supplying ready-made answers each remove the work that critical thinking consists of.

31.What is the sum of all the prime numbers between 12 and 49?

(1) 299
(2) 300
(3) 301
(4) 302

Why: The primes concerned are 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43 and 47, and they total 300. Note that 49 is not prime (7 × 7), a common slip in this kind of item.

32.If 101 210 120 102 99 104 □, then what is the number at □?

(1) 1326
(2) 1327
(3) 1329
(4) 1336

Why: PENDING — the operators in this expression are not legible in the source scan and must be filled in from the printed page before this explanation is written.

33.The sum of all the common factors of 36 and 48 (excluding 1) is

(1) 26
(2) 27
(3) 28
(4) 29

Why: The common factors of two numbers are exactly the factors of their HCF. Here the HCF is 12, whose factors are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 12. Leaving out 1 gives 2 + 3 + 4 + 6 + 12 = 27.

34.What is the difference between the greatest 4-digit number and the least 4-digit number formed by using the digits 1, 5, 0 and 7 once?

(1) 6093
(2) 6003
(3) 6453
(4) 6531

Why: The greatest is 7510. For the least, 0 cannot occupy the thousands place or the number stops being four-digit, so the smallest non-zero digit leads and 0 moves to the hundreds place: 1057. The difference is 7510 − 1057 = 6453.

35.Kanta has five dozen chocolates. She gives 1/6 of these to Aruna and 1/5 of the remaining chocolates to Radha. She then gives 1/8 of the remaining chocolates to each of her other three friends. How many chocolates does Kanta have now?

(1) 15
(2) 20
(3) 25
(4) 10

Why: Five dozen is 60. Aruna gets 10, leaving 50. Radha gets one-fifth of 50, that is 10, leaving 40. Each of the three friends gets one-eighth of that 40, so 5 each and 15 in all. Kanta keeps 40 − 15 = 25. The fraction each friend receives is of the 40, not of a shrinking remainder.

36.(LCM of 96, 120 and 160) ÷ (HCF of 72 and 168) is equal to

(1) 12
(2) 15
(3) 20
(4) 30

Why: For the LCM, 96 = 2⁵ × 3, 120 = 2³ × 3 × 5 and 160 = 2⁵ × 5, giving 2⁵ × 3 × 5 = 480. The HCF of 72 and 168 is 24. So 480 ÷ 24 = 20.

37.The cost of 8 Samosas is ₹156 and that of 4 Idlis is ₹98. Sunita has a ₹200 note only and buys 3 Samosas and 3 Idlis. How much money is left with her now?

(1) ₹65
(2) ₹66
(3) ₹68
(4) ₹72

Why: One samosa costs 156 ÷ 8 = ₹19.50 and one idli 98 ÷ 4 = ₹24.50. Three of each comes to 58.50 + 73.50 = ₹132, so ₹68 is left. The half-rupee unit prices cancel out in the total.

38.24 L 650 mL of milk is filled in 29 bottles each of same size. The quantity of milk in 15 such bottles is

(1) 11 L 900 mL
(2) 12 L 750 mL
(3) 13 L 600 mL
(4) 15 L 300 mL

Why: Working in millilitres, 24650 ÷ 29 = 850 mL per bottle. Fifteen bottles hold 12750 mL, which is 12 L 750 mL.

39.The internal length, breadth and height of a cuboidal box are 12 cm, 10 cm and 8 cm, respectively. A cubical box has side (internal) 9 cm. Avin tries to pack 1800 cubical dice of side 1 cm each in these two boxes. The number of dice which are left unpacked is:

(1) 111
(2) 121
(3) 123
(4) 129

Why: Since each die is 1 cm on a side and every box dimension is a whole number of centimetres, the boxes fill exactly. The cuboid takes 12 × 10 × 8 = 960 dice and the cube 9³ = 729, a total of 1689. That leaves 1800 − 1689 = 111.

40.A bag containing potatoes, onions and lemons weighs 46 kg 160 g. The weight of potatoes is 17 kg 115 g and that of onions is 15 kg 325 g. The weight of empty bag is 120 g. If 30 lemons weigh 1 kg, then what is the number of lemons in the bag?

(1) 396
(2) 402
(3) 408
(4) 414

Why: In grams, 46160 − 17115 − 15325 − 120 = 13600 g of lemons. At 30 lemons to the kilogram, that is 13.6 × 30 = 408 lemons. The weight of the empty bag is easy to overlook and shifts the answer if it is.

41.Which of the following has/have only two lines of symmetry?
A. Equilateral triangle
B. Rectangle
C. Rhombus
D. Isosceles triangle
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B
(2) Only B
(3) B and C
(4) C and D

Why: A rectangle has two lines of symmetry, through the midpoints of opposite sides, and a rhombus has two, along its diagonals. An equilateral triangle has three and an isosceles triangle only one. Note that the rectangle’s diagonals are not lines of symmetry, though the rhombus’s are.

42.Which of the following letters has a rotational symmetry but no line symmetry?

(1) X
(2) M
(3) O
(4) Z

Why: Z maps onto itself after a half turn but has no axis of reflection. X and O have both kinds of symmetry, and M has a vertical line of symmetry but no rotational symmetry.

43.A pentagonal pyramid has

(1) five faces and five vertices
(2) six faces and six edges
(3) six vertices and five faces
(4) six vertices and six faces

Why: The pentagonal base plus five triangular sides make six faces, and the five base corners plus the apex make six vertices. It has ten edges, so the count of six edges in option (2) is wrong.

44.The following table shows the number of visitors to a library in the first six days of a week:

Days	Number of visitors
Monday	86
Tuesday	114
Wednesday	141
Thursday	95
Friday	124
Saturday	151

On which day, the number of visitors to the library was 29 more than its previous day?

(1) Tuesday
(2) Wednesday
(3) Friday
(4) Saturday

Why: The day-on-day rises are 28 on Tuesday, 27 on Wednesday, 29 on Friday and 27 on Saturday, with a fall on Thursday. Only Friday gives 124 − 95 = 29.

45.The sum of next two numbers in the pattern 3, 10, 32, 99, _____, _____ is

(1) 1119
(2) 1121
(3) 1209
(4) 1211

Why: Each term is three times the one before plus a step that grows by one each time: 3 × 3 + 1 = 10, 10 × 3 + 2 = 32, 32 × 3 + 3 = 99. Continuing, 99 × 3 + 4 = 301 and 301 × 3 + 5 = 908, so the two terms sum to 1209.

46.A teacher writes the number 308 on the blackboard and asks the children to read the number loudly. A child says, “It is thirty-eight.” Which among the following is the most appropriate strategy to rectify the error committed by the child?

(1) Ask another child to read the number loudly.
(2) Provide few practical examples to the child to understand the position of digits in a number.
(3) Teacher can read the number once and ask the child to repeat.
(4) Ask the child to start counting from 99 up to 308 in continuity.

Why: Reading 308 as thirty-eight means the zero has been ignored, which is a place value misconception rather than a slip. Hearing the number read correctly, by the teacher or another child, leaves the misconception untouched, and counting up to 308 does not address it either.

47.A class II mathematics teacher gives the following word problem on addition to the students to solve:
“A bag contains 4 mangoes and 6 more mangoes are added to it. How many total mangoes are there in the bag?”
This type of word problem belongs to which of the following structures of addition?

(1) Augmentation
(2) Segregation
(3) Repeated addition
(4) Aggregation

Why: One quantity already exists and is increased, which is the augmentation structure. Aggregation would mean two separate collections being combined, as in four mangoes in one bag and six in another. Repeated addition underlies multiplication.

48.Which of the following pre-number concepts are relevant for building the understanding of mathematical concepts at foundational stage?

(1) Basic operations
(2) Place value and numeration
(3) Geometrical shapes
(4) Classification and ordering

Why: Pre-number work is what a child does before counting carries meaning: sorting objects by a property, matching, comparing and arranging in order. Operations, place value and numeration all come after number sense is in place.

49.Which of the following is least desirable in a primary school mathematics classroom?

(1) Encouragement of intuitive concepts in the classroom
(2) Building linkages with real-life situations involving mathematical ideas
(3) Solving algorithm-based questions from workbook
(4) Including open discussions on problem solving in the classroom

Why: Working through workbook items by a set procedure asks for practice of a routine rather than mathematical thinking. The other three all invite the child to reason, connect and articulate.

50.Which of the following is/are appropriate in the context of social perspectives on assessment in mathematics?
A. Bringing the experiences of children outside the school in assessment
B. Making standardized tests
C. Using folk algorithms from different cultures
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and C
(2) Only B
(3) A and B
(4) Only A

Why: A social view of assessment treats the mathematics children bring from home and community as legitimate, so out-of-school experience and folk methods of calculation both belong. Standardised testing works from a single yardstick and pulls in the opposite direction.

51.Which of the following is least appropriate about contextual problems in mathematics?

(1) They are connected closely to children’s lives.
(2) They can help in developing the children’s ability of mathematical modelling.
(3) Children tend to focus on getting a correct answer while solving them.
(4) They might be derived from recent experiences in the classroom like a field trip, a discussion in art, science, or social studies classrooms.

Why: The value of a contextual problem lies in the reasoning and modelling it provokes, so describing it as a hunt for the right answer misses its point. The other three statements are accurate descriptions of what such problems are and do.

52.The statements given below are marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (B):
A: It is important to introduce data representation and analysis in the primary stage and to strengthen it in the upper primary stage.
B: Data analysis exposes children at primary level to uncertainty and changeability in information as opposed to the fixed nature of mathematical facts they mostly study.
Choose the correct option.

(1) A is true and B is false.
(2) A is false and B is true.
(3) A is true but B is not the correct reason of A.
(4) A is true and B is the correct reason of A.

Why: Both statements hold, and B supplies the reason for A: data work introduces children to information that is uncertain and open to interpretation, unlike the settled facts that fill most of the mathematics they meet, and that is precisely why it earns a place from the primary stage onward.

53.Which of the following is not an expected learning outcome for class III as per NCERT recommendations?

(1) Is 15 × 4 equal to 4 × 15?
(2) Solve 1/2 + 1/3.
(3) Extend the sequence A, DE, HIJ, _____ .
(4) There are 12 balls in a box. How many balls will be there in 5 such boxes?

Why: At class III fractions go no further than halves, quarters and thirds of a whole or a collection. Operating on two fractions with unlike denominators comes much later. Commutativity of multiplication, pattern extension and simple multiplicative word problems are all class III work.

54.Which of the following mathematical statements is true?

(1) Zero is called an additive identity for whole numbers.
(2) Mathematics is based only on observations and experiments.
(3) Zero is called the multiplicative identity for whole numbers.
(4) Commutative law holds true for the operation of ‘division’.

Why: Adding zero leaves a number unchanged, which is what an additive identity means. The multiplicative identity is 1, not 0. Division is not commutative, since 6 ÷ 3 and 3 ÷ 6 differ, and mathematics rests on deduction rather than on observation alone.

55.In mathematics, the primary stage curriculum is focussed on _____.

(1) rote learning
(2) nurturing curiosity
(3) written algorithms
(4) solving textbook questions

Why: At the primary stage the aim is to keep children interested in asking mathematical questions and exploring answers. Rote work, algorithms and textbook exercises are means at best, and none of them is what the curriculum is directed towards.

56.A child writes five hundred three as 5003. It shows that

(1) the child needs to learn counting
(2) the child does not know how to write numbers in words
(3) the child does not know the concept of place value
(4) the child needs to learn recognition of digits

Why: The child has written the number as it sounds, five hundred then three, treating 500 and 3 as separate pieces to be joined. That is a place value error: the zeros holding the tens and units are not understood as positions.

57.According to Van Hiele’s levels of development of geometrical thinking, which of the following represents level–2 (relationships)?

(1) A child cannot classify various shapes that look similar.
(2) A child identifies and classifies shapes based only on their size or orientation.
(3) A child can informally deduce general properties of a given geometrical shape and is able to see the linkages among these properties.
(4) A student can follow the deductive axiomatic systems of geometry.

Why: At the relationships level the learner not only knows the properties of a figure but sees how they connect, and can reason informally from one to another. Judging shapes by appearance belongs to the earlier visualisation level, and formal axiomatic proof to a later one.

58.Which of the following is the most appropriate example of incorporation of local/cultural knowledge in mathematics teaching-learning?

(1) Colourful mathematics textbooks with pictures from various cultures
(2) Including only traditional methods of calculations in textbooks
(3) Remedial teaching for learners from different cultures
(4) Including examples of different methods of calculation used by the people from various occupations and communities

Why: Bringing in the calculation methods that shopkeepers, weavers and other working people actually use puts local knowledge into the mathematics itself. Pictures only decorate, the word only in option (2) shuts out other methods, and remedial teaching treats cultural difference as a deficiency.

59.One of the main guiding principles of the National Education Policy, 2020 is “The highest priority is to achieve foundational literacy and numeracy at _____ by all the students”.

(1) grade 1
(2) grade 3
(3) grade 2
(4) grade 5

Why: NEP 2020 sets grade 3 as the point by which every child should have attained foundational literacy and numeracy, and calls this the highest priority of the school system.

60.A primary class mathematics teacher brings in two jars of different shapes, with water in one of them, to her classroom. She pours water completely from the taller, thin jar to the shorter, broad jar. She then asks the question, “Which jar can hold more water?”
This activity is most appropriate to teach

(1) how to calculate the area of two jars with different shapes
(2) formula for calculating volume
(3) volume and its conservation
(4) the concept of standard units of measurement of liquids

Why: Pouring the same water into a jar of a different shape shows that the amount stays the same even though its appearance changes — conservation of volume, in Piaget’s sense. No measurement, formula or standard unit enters the activity at all.

61.The approximate distance between the capital of Madhya Pradesh (Bhopal) and the capital of Maharashtra (Mumbai) is 756 km. If a train covers this distance in nearly 14 hours, the average speed of the train in metre per second is

(1) 900 m/s
(2) 15 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 54 m/s

Why: 756 ÷ 14 gives 54 km per hour. Converting, 54 × 1000 ÷ 3600 = 15 m/s. Option (4) is the speed left in kilometres per hour, which is the trap here.

62.Consider the following characteristics of houses:
A. Wooden floor and wooden flat ceilings
B. Ground floor without window for animals and storing necessary materials
C. Elevated houses made with slanting roofs and the stone pillars
D. Thick walls made of stones, mud and lime
The characteristics found in the houses of Leh and Ladakh are

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) A, B and D

Why: Ladakhi houses are built against extreme cold: thick stone-and-mud walls hold heat, wooden floors and flat ceilings suit a region of very little rain, and the windowless lower storey shelters animals and stores fodder. Houses raised on pillars with sloping roofs belong to heavy-rainfall regions, not to a cold desert.

63.Select from the following a state where the meaning of ‘Torang’ is jungle

(1) Assam
(2) Jharkhand
(3) Mizoram
(4) Meghalaya

Why: Torang is the word for forest in the Kudukh language of Jharkhand. It appears in the account of Suryamani, who worked to keep her community’s connection with the forest alive.

64.Consider the following statements about Nepenthes/Pitcher plant:
A. This plant has leaves which are pitcher-shaped and the mouth is covered with a leaf.
B. This plant has a special smell that attracts insects to it.
C. This plant is very common in the cold deserts of Ladakh and Russia.
D. This plant can trap and eat small insects, frogs and even mice. These animals when land on the mouth of the plant, they get trapped and cannot get out of it.
The correct statements are

(1) only A and B
(2) only A and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, B and D

Why: The pitcher plant grows in warm, wet places with poor soil — in India it is found in Meghalaya — and it traps insects to make up for the nitrogen its soil lacks. A cold desert is the opposite of the habitat it needs, so C is false.

65.Which one of the following statements is not true about the houses of Srinagar in Kashmir?

(1) The old houses here are made of stone, bricks and wood.
(2) Some old houses have special type of windows which come out of the wall. These are called ‘dab’.
(3) Houseboats on Dal Lake are one of the attractions of Srinagar.
(4) Many families in Srinagar live in ‘Dongas’ which are built in hilly areas.

Why: A donga is a boat that families live on, so it belongs to the water of the Dal and Jhelum, not to hilly areas. The other three statements describe Srinagar accurately, including the dab, the projecting wooden window of old houses.

66.Consider the following statements about beehives:
A. Every beehive has only one queen bee that lays eggs.
B. There are a few males in the hive who make the hive.
C. The number of females is much more than the males in the hive. These female bees are the worker bees who work all day. They also look after the baby bees.
D. The worker bees fly around flowers in search of nectar for honey. On finding flowers with nectar, they do a special kind of dance by which other bees also join them to collect the nectar.
The correct statements are

(1) A and B
(2) A, B and C
(3) A, C and D
(4) A and D

Why: [KEY] The official key accepts only A and D. Statement B is plainly false, since the hive is built by female workers rather than the few males. Statement C, that females greatly outnumber males and do the work of the hive, reads as true and on that basis option 3 looks right — but the key does not include it. Answer option 4 to match the key.

67.Consider the following statements about elephants:
A. Elephants live in herds.
B. A herd may have 20 to 25 female elephants and their young ones.
C. Male elephants live in the herd till they are 9–10 years.
D. The oldest female takes all the decisions of the herd.
The correct statements are

(1) A and C
(2) B and D
(3) A and D
(4) A, C and D

Why: A herd is made up of about ten to twelve females with their young, led by the oldest female, and young males leave it at around fourteen or fifteen years. The figures in B and C are both off, leaving A and D.

68.More than a thousand years ago, Al-Biruni, a traveller from Uzbekistan, had described his observations about India. Which of the following observations were recorded in Al-Biruni’s book?
A. People of India are very skilled at making ponds.
B. Horses are used to draw carts in India.
C. Step-wells have separate steps for going up and coming down.
D. Lakes and Johads are built to collect water.
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and C

Why: Al-Biruni wrote admiringly of Indian skill in building ponds and of step-wells with separate flights of steps for going down and coming up. Bullocks, not horses, drew carts, and the johad is a later term rather than one from his account.

69.People who have been living in the forests for at least _____ have a right over the forest land and what is grown on it, according to the Right to Forest Act, 2007.

(1) 20 years
(2) 25 years
(3) 30 years
(4) 35 years

Why: The figure carried in the EVS textbook account of forest rights is twenty-five years of living in the forest, after which the community has a right over the land and its produce.

70.Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully:
Assertion (A): Domestication of animals was a gradual process that took place in many parts of the world.
Reason (R): The earliest domesticated animals include sheep and goat.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

Why: Both statements are correct. But naming which animals came first says nothing about why the process was slow or why it happened independently in several regions, so R leaves A unexplained.

71.Which one of the following animals was not reared by the Harappans?

(1) Sheep
(2) Goat
(3) Buffalo
(4) Horse

Why: Sheep, goats and buffaloes are all attested at Harappan sites. Evidence for the horse is absent from them, which is why its arrival in the subcontinent is dated later.

72.Which of the following States/Union Territories were carved out in the Indian Union in the last 25 years?

(1) Puducherry, Goa, Sikkim
(2) Telangana, Chhattisgarh, Ladakh
(3) Uttarakhand, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand
(4) Jammu and Kashmir, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh

Why: Chhattisgarh was formed in 2000, Telangana in 2014 and Ladakh became a Union Territory in 2019. Option (3) fails because Madhya Pradesh is an old state, and Sikkim, which appears in two other options, joined the Union in 1975.

73.You must have heard about the famous Olympian Karnam Malleswari. What game did she play in international events?

(1) Wrestling
(2) Cricket (Women’s)
(3) Weight lifting
(4) Chess

Why: Karnam Malleswari is a weightlifter, and her bronze at Sydney in 2000 made her the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal.

74.Which one of the following statements is true about Madhubani paintings and the area in which they originated?

(1) It is an old form of folk art that originated in the State of Rajasthan.
(2) These paintings are done on the floor using brush and indigo in the Mithila region of Bihar.
(3) These paintings are mainly influenced by the Mughal art and culture.
(4) It has its roots in the Mithila region of Bihar and these are made out of paste of powdered rice in which colours are mixed.

Why: Madhubani belongs to the Mithila region of Bihar, and the painting is done with a paste of powdered rice into which colours are mixed. It is a folk tradition carried on by women, independent of Mughal court art.

75.Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully:
Assertion (A): Mixture of cow dung and mud is used to coat the floor of houses.
Reason (R): Cow dung helps to regulate the temperature inside the house and keeps the insects away.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

Why: The practice is real and the reason given is exactly why it is followed: the coating keeps the floor cool in heat and warm in cold, and it repels insects. Here the reason does account for the practice.

76.Match Column—A with Column—B:
Column—A
(a) Peer assessment
(b) Rubric-based rating scale
(c) Assessment as learning
(d) Paper-pencil test
Column—B
(i) Tool of assessment
(ii) Self-learning
(iii) Summative assessment
(iv) Technique of assessment
Choose the correct option.

(1) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)
(2) (a)–(i), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(ii)
(3) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iii)
(4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)

Why: Peer assessment is a way of going about assessment, so a technique; a rubric-based rating scale is an instrument, so a tool; assessment as learning puts the learner in charge of judging their own work, which is self-learning; and a paper-pencil test at the end of a unit is summative.

77.Which of the following statements are correct about learning of EVS?
A. Children are naturally curious to learn.
B. Children are passive recipients in learning.
C. Children need teacher for learning.
D. Children learn better in collaborative groups.
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and D
(4) A and C

Why: EVS is built on the curiosity children already bring and on their working things out together. Calling them passive recipients contradicts that, and saying they need a teacher in order to learn denies the learning that happens through observation and peers.

78.Which of the following components best describe the meaning of EVS?
A. Accumulation of facts
B. Observation
C. Asking questions
D. Experimentation
Choose the correct option.

(1) A, B and C
(2) A, C and D
(3) A, B and D
(4) B, C and D

Why: EVS is a way of finding out — looking closely, asking questions and trying things. Collecting facts is the one item that describes a product rather than a process, and it is what the subject deliberately moves away from.

79.The knowledge of which of the following is the most important for an EVS teacher?

(1) Facts, principles and laws of EVS
(2) How children learn EVS?
(3) How to teach EVS?
(4) Concepts and curriculum of EVS

Why: Method and content both follow from knowing how children make sense of their surroundings. A teacher who understands that can choose an approach for the class in front of her; one who knows only content or only technique cannot.

80.Harleen asked her teacher, “Why do roses have thorns?” What must be the pedagogy of an EVS teacher towards this curiosity?

(1) Tell that roses have thorns to protect itself from animals.
(2) Tell that all roses do not have thorns.
(3) Tell her to find out which other plants have thorns.
(4) Ask her to observe animals eating plants with and without thorns.

Why: Watching what animals do with thorny and thornless plants lets Harleen arrive at the answer to her own question through evidence. Simply telling her the answer ends the enquiry, and listing other thorny plants changes the question from why to which.

81.Isha of class IV asked her teacher, “Why cow does not lay eggs?” What is your most appropriate response if you are Isha’s teacher?

(1) Reply that cows are mammals which give birth to young ones.
(2) Ask her to relate laying of eggs/giving birth to their visible ears and whose ears cannot be seen.
(3) Ask her to find out herself the reason for this.
(4) Ask other students of the class to answer Isha’s question.

Why: Sorting animals by whether their ears show gives Isha an observable pattern she can test herself: animals with visible ears generally give birth to young, those without generally lay eggs. Naming the category mammal answers with a label, and leaving her to find out alone offers no way in.

82.An EVS teacher wants to use storytelling as a strategy for teaching and learning. Which of the following are the most suitable for this?
A. Contextual stories
B. Folk stories
C. Student-written stories
D. Stories focussing on morals
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and D
(2) B and D
(3) C and D
(4) A, B and C

Why: Stories rooted in the children’s own setting, stories from their community, and stories they write themselves all connect EVS to the world they know. Moral tales are told to deliver a lesson, which is a different purpose from exploring the environment.

83.Teacher asked students to draw an animal. Poonam draws an animal, having body parts of different animals. What should the teacher do?
A. Scold Poonam for drawing an absurd animal.
B. Ask Poonam why she has drawn parts of different animals.
C. Tell Poonam that no such animal exists.
D. Ask Poonam the name of the animal she has drawn.
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and C
(2) B and D
(3) C and D
(4) Only A

Why: Asking about her reasons and the name she has given brings out the thinking behind the drawing and treats her imagination as worth hearing. Scolding her or declaring the animal impossible shuts down exactly what the activity was meant to draw out.

84.If a teacher wants that students learn about the plant diversity, which of the following are the most suitable activities for this?
A. Ask students to look for objects which have patterns of leaves on them in their house.
B. Recite a poem to students written on different types of plants and their characteristics.
C. Blindfold students and ask the students to identify plants by smelling crushed leaves.
D. Ask students to collect the leaves of plants and make pictures of different animals using the leaves.
Choose the correct option.

(1) B and C
(2) A and D
(3) A and B
(4) C and D

Why: Both activities put children in direct contact with a range of real plants: identifying them by smell alone draws attention to a property they would otherwise ignore, and gathering leaves to build pictures makes them notice differences in shape, size and texture. Hunting for leaf patterns on household objects and listening to a poem keep the plants themselves out of the children’s hands.

85.Which of the following elements best describe the nature of EVS?
A. Established facts
B. Logical information
C. Observation
D. Scientific terminology
E. Experimentation
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and C
(2) B and D
(3) D and E
(4) C and E

Why: The subject is characterised by what children do in it — observing closely and trying things out. Established facts and scientific terminology describe the finished content of a discipline, which is not what EVS at this stage is about.

86.Read the following statements A and B carefully:
A. Recommendation of NCF (2005) is to discourage rote learning of information.
B. Recommendation of NCF (2005) is to discourage maintenance of sharp boundaries between different subject areas.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and B are true.
(2) Both A and B are false.
(3) A is true but B is false.
(4) A is false but B is true.

Why: Both are positions NCF 2005 takes. Moving away from rote learning is among its central concerns, and EVS itself exists as an integrated subject precisely because it rejects hard walls between science, social science and the environment.

87.Chinu wants to know how day and night occur. Which of the following methods will be the best to explain this to Chinu?

(1) Explanation with diagrams
(2) Working model
(3) PowerPoint presentation
(4) Storytelling

Why: Day and night depend on rotation, which is motion, and a working model shows the turning earth against a fixed source of light. A diagram or a slide can only freeze one moment of it.

88.Read the following statements A and B carefully:
A. In EVS learning, the challenge is to respect the multicultural dimensions of diverse classrooms.
B. In EVS learning, every student should feel important—community, culture and his way of life.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and B are true.
(2) Both A and B are false.
(3) A is true but B is false.
(4) A is false but B is true.

Why: EVS draws on what children bring from home, so a classroom of varied backgrounds is both a resource and a demand on the teacher. Each child seeing their own community and way of living treated as worth attention is part of what makes that work.

89.Discussion is used by the EVS teachers in their classes because
A. discussion develops social interaction among children
B. discussion supports authentic and meaningful learning
C. meaningful construction of knowledge occurs when ideas are shared
D. discussion is suitable for the emotionally balanced children
Choose the correct option.

(1) B, C and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) A, B and D
(4) A, C and D

Why: Discussion builds interaction, grounds learning in real exchange and lets understanding form as ideas are shared. Statement D would restrict discussion to a subset of children, which is neither true nor a reason for using it.

90.An environmental studies teacher asked his class III children to visit the school garden and collect different types of leaves. Which of the following process skills does the teacher want to develop among children?

(1) Observation and classification
(2) Only experimentation
(3) Only classification
(4) Creative expression and experimentation with leaves

Why: Collecting different types of leaves requires looking carefully and then deciding what makes one type different from another — observation followed by classification. No experiment is being set up, and classification alone leaves out the looking that precedes it.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

91.अर्थ की दृष्टि से भिन्न शब्द चुनिए।

(1) लोकशाला
(2) पाठशाला
(3) विद्याशाला
(4) विद्यालय

Why: पाठशाला, विद्याशाला और विद्यालय — तीनों औपचारिक स्कूल के ही पर्याय हैं। लोकशाला गद्यांश में इनसे अलग अर्थ में आया है : लोक-जीवन से मिलने वाली शिक्षा, जिसकी कोई इमारत नहीं होती।

92.गद्यांश के अनुसार सरकारी व्यवस्था में क्या आवश्यक नहीं समझा गया?

(1) स्कूल की इमारत बनवाना
(2) बस्ते का बोझ कम करना
(3) घर और विद्यालय की दूरी पर ध्यान देना
(4) स्कूल में अहाता बनवाना

Why: गद्यांश स्पष्ट कहता है कि इमारत बच्चों के निवास से दूर है या पास — इस ओर ध्यान देना सरकारी व्यवस्था में कतई ज़रूरी नहीं समझा गया। इमारत और अहाता तो स्कूल की अवधारणा में ही निहित बताए गए हैं।

93.लोकशाला में समाहित नहीं है

(1) लोक-मेधा
(2) जीवनानुभव
(3) लोकशास्त्र
(4) लोक-मनीषा

Why: गद्यांश में लोक के भीतर जीवनानुभव, लोक-मेधा, लोक-मनीषा, लोक-शिल्प और हाथ के हुनर को गिनाया गया है। लोकशास्त्र नाम की कोई वस्तु वहाँ नहीं आई।

94.गद्यांश के अनुसार शिक्षण की सबसे बड़ी संस्था है

(1) विद्यालय
(2) विश्वविद्यालय
(3) कॉलेज
(4) लोकशाला

Why: लेखक का कहना है कि स्कूल, कॉलेज और विश्वविद्यालय को ही विद्या का स्थान मान लेने के कारण हम भूल गए कि शिक्षण की सबसे बड़ी संस्था लोकशाला है।

95.लोकशाला में हम नहीं सीख सकते

(1) सुनार-कर्म
(2) लोक-शिल्प
(3) पुस्तक वाचन
(4) हाथ का हुनर

Why: सुनार का काम, लोक-शिल्प और हाथ का हुनर — ये सब लोक से ही मिलते हैं, और गद्यांश की शिकायत यही है कि औपचारिक शाला इन्हें नहीं सिखाती। पुस्तक वाचन इसका उल्टा है : वह पाठशाला का काम है।

96.‘बहुत दूर है’, वाक्य में ‘दूर’ है

(1) संज्ञा
(2) विशेषण
(3) क्रिया
(4) क्रिया-विशेषण

Why: ‘दूर’ यहाँ क्रिया के विषय में स्थान की जानकारी दे रहा है, इसलिए वह स्थानवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण है। किसी नाम की विशेषता बताता तो विशेषण होता।

97.‘कच्ची-पक्की इमारत’ में ‘कच्ची-पक्की’ _____ शब्द हैं।

(1) विशेषण
(2) क्रिया-विशेषण
(3) संज्ञा
(4) क्रियाकार

Why: ये दोनों शब्द ‘इमारत’ संज्ञा की विशेषता बता रहे हैं, इसलिए विशेषण हैं। क्रिया-विशेषण होते तो किसी क्रिया के बारे में कुछ कहते।

98.गद्यांश के अनुसार हम कौन-सी बुनियादी बात भूल गए हैं?

(1) पाठशाला को विद्याशाला कहा जाता है।
(2) पाठशालाएँ विद्या पाने का स्थान हैं।
(3) लोक शिक्षा का सबसे बड़ा साधन है।
(4) हमारे देश में अनेक महाविद्यालय हैं।

Why: अनुच्छेद इसी वाक्य से शुरू होता है कि हम यह बुनियादी बात भूल गए हैं कि ‘लोक’ शिक्षा का सबसे बड़ा साधन है। विकल्प (2) तो वही भ्रम है जिसकी ओर लेखक उँगली उठा रहा है।

99.कौन-सा वक्तव्य सही नहीं है?

(1) बस्ते बोलते हैं कि बच्चे स्कूल जा रहे हैं।
(2) लोकशाला के लोक में लोक-मेधा शामिल है।
(3) स्कूल की अवधारणा में अहाता होता है।
(4) लोकशाला में शिक्षक पढ़ाते हैं।

Why: लोकशाला की पहचान ही यह है कि वहाँ नियुक्त शिक्षक और कक्षा नहीं होते — सीखना लोक-जीवन, शिल्प और अनुभव से होता है। शेष तीनों बातें गद्यांश में सीधे आई हैं।

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

100.कवि कहाँ खड़ा था?

(1) लहरों के बीच में
(2) समुद्र के किनारे
(3) समुद्र की लहरों में
(4) उठते समुद्र के पास

Why: पहली ही दो पंक्तियाँ बताती हैं कि समुद्र चाँद की ओर उठ रहा था और कवि बिल्कुल पास खड़ा था। लहरों के बीच या भीतर होने की बात कहीं नहीं है।

101.कवि मुंबई के भीतर क्यों लौटना चाहता है?

(1) ऊँची अशांत लहरों के कारण
(2) डरावने अँधेरे के कारण
(3) अकेलेपन और तनाव के कारण
(4) ठंड लगने के कारण

Why: कविता में समुद्र के पास खड़े कवि को जो घेरता है वह अकेलापन और तनाव है, और इसी कारण वहाँ देर तक टिकना मुश्किल हो जाता है। लहरें दृश्य हैं, लौटने का कारण नहीं।

102.कवि के मन का भाव नहीं है

(1) अकेलापन
(2) रुदन इच्छा
(3) रुकना मुश्किल लगना
(4) चिंता

Why: अकेलापन, रोने की इच्छा और देर तक टिक न पाना — तीनों काव्यांश में सीधे आते हैं। चिंता का कोई संकेत वहाँ नहीं है; तनाव और चिंता एक वस्तु नहीं।

103.‘देर तक वहाँ टिकना’ में ‘देर तक’ _____ है।

(1) कालवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
(2) स्थानवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
(3) रीतिवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
(4) परिमाणवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण

Why: ‘देर तक’ बताता है कि क्रिया कब तक चली, अर्थात् समय की सूचना देता है, इसलिए कालवाचक। उसी वाक्य का ‘वहाँ’ स्थानवाचक है — दोनों को गड्डमड्ड न करें।

104.‘रुलाई फूटना’ का आशय है

(1) रोना समाप्त होना
(2) फूट-फूट कर रोना
(3) रोना आना
(4) किसी को रोने के लिए मजबूर करना

Why: काव्यांश में कहा गया है कि रुलाई फूटी नहीं, अर्थात् रोना आया ही नहीं। इस संदर्भ में मुहावरे का आशय रोना आना है। विकल्प 2 फूट-फूटकर रोने की तीव्रता बताता है, जो यहाँ अपेक्षित नहीं।

105.रात कहाँ दिख रही थी?

(1) समुद्र के आसपास
(2) कवि की कमीज में
(3) मुंबई में
(4) ऊँची लहरों में

Why: पंक्तियाँ कहती हैं कि उतनी ऊँची लहरों में रात कहीं दिख नहीं रही थी — कवि की कमीज़ के सिवा। अर्थात् रात का रंग केवल उसी कमीज़ पर दिखाई दे रहा था।

106.चॉमस्की ने प्रतिपादित किया कि भाषा अर्जित करने की सहजात क्षमता हमारे अद्वितीय मानवीय जैविक वंशानुक्रम का परिणाम है। इस वंशानुक्रम को किस रूप में जाना जाएगा?

(1) भाषा अनुकूलन पद
(2) भाषा अर्जन क्षेत्र (डोमेन)
(3) भाषा स्वीकृति इच्छा
(4) भाषा अर्जन उपकरण

Why: चॉमस्की ने इस जन्मजात क्षमता को भाषा अर्जन उपकरण (Language Acquisition Device) कहा — यही उनका उत्तर है कि बच्चा सुनी हुई सीमित भाषा से इतना समृद्ध व्याकरण कैसे बना लेता है। शेष तीनों गढ़े हुए नाम हैं।

107.भाषा में ध्वनि की सबसे छोटी सार्थक इकाई को क्या कहा जाएगा?

(1) अर्थतत्त्व
(2) ध्वनिमूलक
(3) आकृतिमूलक
(4) वाक्यविन्यास

Why: ध्वनिमूलक (phoneme) वह सबसे छोटी ध्वनि-इकाई है जिसके बदलने से अर्थ बदल जाता है, जैसे ‘कल’ और ‘खल’। आकृतिमूलक (morpheme) भाषा की सबसे छोटी सार्थक इकाई है, पर प्रश्न ध्वनि का है।

108.दो से तीन माह की आयु वाले शिशु मुक्त स्वर ध्वनियाँ बोलने लगते हैं। ये ध्वनियाँ किसका उदाहरण हैं?

(1) कूजन
(2) बबलाना
(3) चीखना-चिल्लाना
(4) एक-शब्दीय कथन

Why: दो-तीन माह पर खिंचे हुए स्वरों की यह अवस्था कूजन (cooing) कहलाती है। बबलाना लगभग छह माह बाद आता है, जब व्यंजन जुड़कर ‘बा-बा’ जैसे अक्षर बनने लगते हैं।

109.अंकिता छः विभिन्न भाषाएँ समझ और बोल सकती है। उसकी भाषिक क्षमता के कारण उसे क्या कहा जाएगा?

(1) एकल-भाषिक वक्ता
(2) भाषाविद्
(3) बहुभाषिक वक्ता
(4) द्विभाषिक वक्ता

Why: दो से अधिक भाषाएँ बोलने-समझने वाला वक्ता बहुभाषिक कहलाता है। भाषाविद् वह है जो भाषा का अध्ययन करता है — कई भाषाएँ बोलना और भाषा का अध्ययन करना दो अलग बातें हैं।

110.आप कोड-मिश्रण, कोड-अंतरण, बच्चों की भाषा और गुप्त भाषाओं के अध्ययन में रुचि रखते हैं। इन विषयों के अध्ययन के लिए आपको किस मुख्य विषय का अध्ययन करना होगा?

(1) सांस्कृतिक मनोविज्ञान
(2) मानवशास्त्र
(3) समाजशास्त्र
(4) सामाजिक-भाषिक

Why: चारों विषय इसी से जुड़े हैं कि भाषा समाज में कैसे बरती जाती है — कौन किससे कौन-सी भाषा बोलता है और बीच में भाषा क्यों बदल देता है। यही समाजभाषाविज्ञान का कार्यक्षेत्र है।

111.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा तुलनात्मक विश्लेषण का भाग नहीं है?

(1) वाक्यगत
(2) अर्थगत
(3) कोश-विषयक
(4) ध्वन्यात्मक

Why: तुलनात्मक विश्लेषण दो भाषाओं को वहाँ आमने-सामने रखता है जहाँ रूपों का मिलान संभव है — ध्वनि-व्यवस्था, वाक्य-रचना और शब्द-भंडार। अर्थ का ऐसा बिंदुवार मिलान नहीं हो पाता, इसलिए अर्थगत स्तर इससे बाहर रहता है।

112.आपने महसूस किया कि आपके विद्यालय की एक अध्यापिका कक्षा में स्वच्छन्द रूप से मातृभाषा का प्रयोग करती है। वह किस विधि का अनुपालन कर रही है?

(1) श्रव्य-भाषिक
(2) व्याकरण-अनुवाद
(3) संरचनात्मक मौखिक स्थिति
(4) प्रत्यक्ष (डायरेक्ट)

Why: व्याकरण-अनुवाद विधि मातृभाषा के सहारे ही चलती है — नियम मातृभाषा में समझाए जाते हैं और वाक्यों का अनुवाद कराया जाता है। प्रत्यक्ष विधि ठीक इसका उल्टा है : वह कक्षा से मातृभाषा को बाहर रखती है।

113.संक्षिप्त रूप से लिखने की योग्यता, जिसमें वे सब बारीक वर्णन शामिल नहीं हैं, जिनके माध्यम से सटीकता लाई जा सकती है, ऐसे कौशल को किस नाम से जाना जाएगा?

(1) सारांशीकरण
(2) प्रक्रिया-लेखन
(3) टिप्पण (नोट) लेना
(4) टिप्पणी (नोट) बनाना

Why: मूल बात को बचाकर गैर-ज़रूरी ब्योरे छोड़ देना सारांशीकरण है। टिप्पण लेना और टिप्पणी बनाना अपने आगे के उपयोग के लिए बिंदु दर्ज करना है, और प्रक्रिया-लेखन लेखन के चरणों की बात करता है।

114.वाणी की अभिव्यक्तियों का मूल्यांकन किस माध्यम से प्रभावशाली तरीके से किया जा सकता है?

(1) वाणी की गति
(2) शब्दों का चयन
(3) वाणी की शैली
(4) मुखरता (सवाक्)

Why: वाणी में भाव उसकी शैली या लहजे से उतरता है — वही शब्द दूसरे लहजे में कुछ और कह जाते हैं। गति अकेले कम बताती है, और शब्दों का चयन भाषा का पक्ष है, वाणी का नहीं।

115.कक्षा में बैठने की व्यवस्था में लचीलापन होना चाहिए, क्योंकि

(1) इससे बच्चों को स्थायी मित्र समूहों का गठन करने से बचाया जा सकता है
(2) इस तरह से कक्षा में सरलतापूर्वक समूह, जोड़ीदार व समग्र कक्षा-गतिविधियाँ करवायी जा सकती हैं
(3) इससे बच्चों को इस बात की स्वतंत्रता होगी कि वे अपनी सीट से जब भी और जहाँ भी चाहे आ-जा सकते हैं
(4) इससे अध्यापक अपनी कक्षा में समानता का भाव सुनिश्चित कर सकते हैं

Why: भाषा-कक्षा हर थोड़ी देर में जोड़ी, समूह और पूरी कक्षा के काम के बीच आती-जाती रहती है; हिलने-डुलने लायक बैठक इन बदलावों को बिना अव्यवस्था के होने देती है। लचीली व्यवस्था का अर्थ यह नहीं कि बच्चे जब चाहे कहीं भी जा बैठें।

116.प्राथमिक स्तर पर पठन-कौशल का आकलन करने के लिए भाषा अध्यापक को मुख्य रूप से किस पर ध्यान केन्द्रित करना चाहिए?

(1) वर्णमाला के अक्षरों की पहचान करने पर
(2) विरामचिह्नों के प्रयोग पर
(3) प्रवाह के साथ पठन पर
(4) समझ के साथ पठन पर

Why: पढ़ना अर्थ ग्रहण करना है, इसलिए आकलन को वहीं तक पहुँचना चाहिए। बच्चा पूरा पृष्ठ धाराप्रवाह पढ़कर भी उसका अर्थ न पकड़ पाए — यह संभव है, इसीलिए अकेला प्रवाह पर्याप्त नहीं।

117.प्रभावशाली सम्प्रेषण सुनिश्चित करने के लिए क्या महत्त्वपूर्ण है?

(1) नियमित अंतराल पर दूसरों को हस्तक्षेप करते रहना
(2) बोलते जाना और हाव-भाव प्रदर्शित करना
(3) मस्तिष्क में जो भी आए, वह कहते जाना
(4) पहले दूसरों की बात सुनना

Why: सम्प्रेषण दोतरफ़ा है, और सुनने से ही उत्तर उस बात से जुड़ पाता है जो सामने वाले ने वास्तव में कही। शेष तीनों विकल्प एकतरफ़ा बोलने का ही वर्णन करते हैं।

118.अंग्रेजी व्याकरण के शिक्षण का मुख्य उद्देश्य क्या है?

(1) अपने विचारों की मौलिकता में वृद्धि करना
(2) वाक् और लेखन में विचारों को तार्किकता और सटीकता के साथ अभिव्यक्त कर पाने की योग्यता विकसित करना
(3) नियमों को कंठस्थ करने की योग्यता में वृद्धि करना
(4) अध्ययन में रुचि विकसित करना

Why: व्याकरण इसलिए पढ़ाया जाता है कि सीखने वाला जो कहना चाहता है उसे ठीक-ठीक कह और लिख सके। नियम कंठस्थ करना साधन भर है, जिसे अकसर लक्ष्य मान लिया जाता है।

119.प्राथमिक स्तर पर विद्यार्थियों में लेखन-कौशल विकसित करने के लिए अध्यापक को अपने विद्यार्थियों को किन टॉपिकों पर लिखने के लिए प्रोत्साहित करना चाहिए?

(1) राष्ट्रीय थीम
(2) धार्मिक मत
(3) व्यक्तिगत जीवन
(4) सामाजिक मुद्दे

Why: छोटे बच्चे वही अच्छा लिख पाते हैं जिसका अनुभव उनके पास है — घर, दोस्त, अपने साथ घटी बातें। राष्ट्रीय या सामाजिक जैसे अमूर्त विषय उन्हें लिखने के लिए अपना कुछ नहीं देते।

120.आप अपनी कक्षा के शिक्षार्थियों को अवलम्बन देने के लिए उनकी वैयक्तिक भिन्नताओं की पहचान करना चाहते हैं। इस उद्देश्य के लिए आप क्या करना चाहेंगे?

(1) सहपाठी आकलन
(2) निदानात्मक आकलन
(3) योगात्मक आकलन
(4) रचनात्मक आकलन

Why: निदानात्मक आकलन यही पता लगाने के लिए किया जाता है कि हर शिक्षार्थी कहाँ खड़ा है और अटकाव कहाँ है — अवलम्बन (scaffolding) इसी जानकारी पर टिकता है। रचनात्मक आकलन उसके बाद, पढ़ाते-पढ़ाते सहारा देता है।
टिप्पणी: सीबीएसई की अंतिम उत्तरकुंजी इस प्रश्न के लिए विकल्प 2 और विकल्प 4 दोनों को स्वीकार करती है।

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

121.Where did the writer see the peacocks?

(1) On a mountaintop
(2) In a Rajasthan city
(3) On the slopes of the Himalayas
(4) On the edge of a dark sea

Why: The writer asks whether the peacocks of Rajasthan came out to greet him, and later tries to imagine that city now. The dark sea belongs to the separate image of the duck.

122.Why does the writer see ‘a picture of desolation’ in the Rajasthan city now?

(1) Because there is dirt and filth all around
(2) Because the ducks are no more to be seen
(3) Because the city has been uprooted
(4) Because the peacocks have disappeared

Why: What makes the remembered city desolate is the absence of the birds: he can neither see the peacocks nor hear their song, and asks where they have all gone.

123.State which of the following statements is True/False:
A. The peacocks both welcomed the writer and bid him farewell.
B. The wings of the peacocks were smeared with slime.

(1) Both A and B are true
(2) Both A and B are false
(3) A is true but B is false
(4) B is true but A is false

Why: The writer says he thought the birds were there both to welcome him and to bid him farewell, so A holds. The slime-laden wings belong to the duck on the oil-soaked sea, not to any peacock.

124.Which one of the following is not true?

(1) The peacocks the writer saw were beautiful and graceful.
(2) The writer feels that the city is desolate now.
(3) The writer visits the city once again in a vision.
(4) The peacocks can no longer fly now.

Why: It is the duck whose wings are too heavy with slime to fly. The lone peacock does rise into the sky before vanishing, so flight is not what he has lost.

125.What kind of sentence is the following?
“Where have they all disappeared?”

(1) Exclamatory
(2) Interrogative
(3) Optative
(4) Declarative

Why: The sentence asks a question and ends with a question mark. That it is asked in distress rather than in expectation of an answer does not change its grammatical type.

126.Identify the clause of the underlined part:
“On the far edge of a dark, oil-soaked sea, I see a forlorn duck...”

(1) Noun clause
(2) Adjective clause
(3) Adverb clause
(4) Principal clause

Why: This part carries the subject and the main verb and stands complete on its own, so it is the principal clause. The words before it form an adverbial phrase of place, not a clause.

127.Identify the Part of Speech of the underlined word:
“... that dejected, bewildered peacock suddenly brings to mind...”

(1) Noun
(2) Adjective
(3) Adverb
(4) Conjunction

Why: The word describes the peacock and sits beside dejected in the same role, so it qualifies the noun. Its participial form does not stop it working as an adjective here.

128.Choose the word nearest in meaning to ‘desolation’.

(1) Despair
(2) Pessimism
(3) Fertility
(4) Barrenness

Why: Desolation is emptiness and ruin — a place stripped of life. Fertility is offered as its direct opposite, which fixes the sense the question is after; despair names the feeling such a scene produces rather than the state itself.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

129.Whose account is called ‘much more important’ as a record of the Mauryan rule?

(1) Megasthenes’
(2) Kautilya’s
(3) Machiavelli’s
(4) The contemporary historians’

Why: The passage names Megasthenes first, then calls the contemporary account much more important — Kautilya’s Arthashastra, written by a man who helped build the empire he describes.

130.How did the play, the Mudra-Rakshasa depict Chanakya?

(1) As honest and pious
(2) As meek and cowardly
(3) As bold and scheming
(4) As pompous and arrogant

Why: The picture drawn from the play is of a man bold and scheming, proud and revengeful, who forgot neither a slight nor his purpose. Pomp is precisely what the passage says he had no interest in.

131.State which of the following statements is True/False:
A. For practical purposes, Chanakya kept the reins of power with himself.
B. Chanakya enjoyed the power and prestige of the high authority he wielded.

(1) Both A and B are true
(2) Both A and B are false
(3) A is true but B is false
(4) B is true but A is false

Why: He sat with the reins of empire in his hands, so A holds. But he lived simply, cared nothing for the pomp of high position and wished to retire once his purpose was accomplished, which makes B false.

132.Which one of the following is not true?

(1) Chanakya is also known as Kautilya.
(2) Chanakya defined war as a continuation of state policy.
(3) Chanakya considered strategic manoeuvres as more important than actual war.
(4) Chanakya supported war even if it destroyed both the parties.

Why: War that involves both sides in a common ruin is called bankruptcy of statesmanship in the passage. He held that war must serve the larger ends of policy and never become an end in itself.

133.What does the given verb mean?
‘to delude’

(1) to divest
(2) to mislead
(3) to swindle
(4) to rob

Why: To delude is to lead someone into a false belief, which is what the passage means by every device used to delude and defeat the enemy. Swindling and robbing involve taking property, and to divest is to strip someone of something.

134.Identify the tense of the given expression:
“... had redeemed his pledge”

(1) Simple Present
(2) Simple Past
(3) Present Perfect
(4) Past Perfect

Why: Had with the past participle marks the past perfect, used here because the pledge was redeemed before the later point at which he wished to retire.

135.Find the word opposite in meaning to the underlined word:
“... never forgetting a slight,”

(1) praise
(2) humiliation
(3) compliment
(4) reward

Why: A slight is a small insult or mark of disrespect, and its counterpart is a compliment — a remark that shows regard. Humiliation runs in the same direction as slight rather than against it.
Note: the CBSE final key accepts both option 1 and option 3 for this question, so either was awarded the mark.

136._____ gave the terms acquisition, observation, natural, input, dominant hypothesis in the theory of Second Language learning.

(1) Vygotsky
(2) Steven Pinker
(3) Chomsky
(4) Stephen Krashen

Why: These belong to Krashen’s set of hypotheses on second language learning, which includes the acquisition-learning distinction, the natural order and the input hypothesis.

137.Which among the following involves the principle of grading and sequence?

(1) Controlled vocabulary
(2) Gradation
(3) Habit formation
(4) Following the natural way

Why: Gradation is the arranging of language items in order of difficulty and usefulness so that each builds on the last. Controlled vocabulary limits what is taught; it does not by itself sequence it.

138.You observe that your students need to be exposed to samples of the target language and be encouraged to imitate and respond. Which of the following methods is most suitable for this purpose?

(1) Direct method
(2) Communicative language teaching
(3) Audio-lingual method
(4) Grammar-translation method

Why: Modelling patterns of the target language and having learners imitate and respond is the audio-lingual method, built on drills and habit formation. Communicative teaching would start from a purpose for speaking rather than from imitation.

139.Learning of the mother tongue by a child is generally assumed to be:

(1) Language acquisition
(2) Language learning
(3) Language assimilation
(4) Abstract language development

Why: The mother tongue is picked up without instruction, through exposure and use, which is acquisition. Learning in this contrast means the conscious, taught study of a language.

140.An active listener immediately understands

(1) logic behind what the speaker is saying
(2) what the speaker is trying to say
(3) what the other person is saying
(4) what the speaker wants to say

Why: [KEY] The official key gives the logic behind what the speaker is saying. Active listening is usually described as grasping the speaker’s intended meaning, which points to option 2, and many teachers would answer that. Answer option 1 to match the key.

141.To teach poetry in the class, the teacher first reads a poem, then involves the learners in group work. One group writes the theme of the poem, another draws a picture to depict the main character and yet another writes the summary of the poem. This activity aims at:

(1) Distracting the learners
(2) Involving all students in the classroom
(3) Catering to diverse abilities and interests of the learners
(4) Preparing learners for assessment

Why: The three tasks call on different strengths — interpreting, drawing and summarising — so each learner finds a way into the poem. Involving everyone is the result; the reason the tasks differ is the range of abilities in the room.

142.The Second Language classroom is usually a confluence of varied languages. The role of teachers in such a class is to give their students:

(1) Worksheets with a variety of tasks while covering the syllabus
(2) A comfortable environment to develop requisite skills
(3) Summaries and simplified versions of text
(4) Adequate self-explanatory notes

Why: Where learners bring different languages into the room, what they most need is to feel safe enough to attempt the new one. Worksheets, summaries and notes are materials, and none of them addresses that.

143.You prepare a test item that expects the learners to use tense forms, connectors, prepositions, and adjectives accurately. The approach that you have used in this test item is:

(1) Direct grammar testing
(2) Indirect grammar testing
(3) Mixed grammar task
(4) Integrated grammar testing

Why: Several grammatical areas are tested together within one piece of language rather than one at a time, which is the integrated approach. A direct test would isolate a single item and ask about it openly.

144.Children in their early years scribble on the wall, floor and in notebooks. This stage in language learning is called

(1) scribbling
(2) emergent literacy
(3) writing skills
(4) graphic development

Why: The marks children make before formal instruction are the beginning of emergent literacy — the phase in which a child grasps that marks carry meaning. Scribbling, option 1, names the action itself rather than the stage in language learning that the question asks for.

145.Communicative language teaching stresses the interdependence of:

(1) Language and communication
(2) Language and conversation
(3) Language and behaviour
(4) Language and psychology

Why: The approach treats language as learnt through using it for real communicative purposes, so form and function depend on each other. Conversation is only one of the many purposes language serves.

146.You have to keep anecdotal records of the learning process of the students of your class. For this, you need to use:

(1) Assignment technique
(2) Project technique
(3) Oral technique
(4) Observation technique

Why: An anecdotal record is a short written account of something the teacher has seen a child do, so it depends on watching learners as they work. Assignments and projects yield products rather than accounts of the process.

147.Which of the following statements is true in the context of grammar?

(1) Knowledge of grammar helps acquire fluency in speech.
(2) Grammar provides a set of rules that should be memorized before being followed.
(3) Grammar is a system of language which helps in polishing our speaking and writing skills.
(4) Grammar has no role in the learning of a foreign language.

Why: Grammar is the system underlying a language, and understanding it refines how one speaks and writes. Fluency comes from use rather than from rules, and memorising before using reverses the order in which grammar is actually learnt.

148.When infants and very young children live in environments where they have no exposure or experience with language, their language development is severely impaired. This impairment is irreversible. Which of the following terms supports this explanation?

(1) Nativism
(2) Sensitive periods of development
(3) Sociolinguistics
(4) Semantics

Why: The word that decides this is irreversible. A sensitive period is a window during which the system is ready to develop, and deprivation within it leaves damage that later exposure cannot undo.

149.Grammar should be taught by:

(1) Enabling practice in context
(2) Making learners do written assignments
(3) Encouraging students to memorize rules
(4) Giving adequate assignments to learners

Why: A structure is learnt when it is used to mean something, so practice within meaningful context is what makes grammar available in speech and writing. Assignments and memorised rules leave the knowledge inert.

150.You want to create a language-rich environment in your class. For this, you should:

(1) Encourage your learners to use only English while communicating in the class
(2) Establish a language lab in your class
(3) Motivate parents to buy language games and activities
(4) Provide an opportunity where the language is seen, noticed and used by the learners

Why: A language-rich room is one where the language is visible on the walls and in books, gets noticed, and is put to use. Banning other languages impoverishes the classroom, and equipment or purchases are not what makes it rich.

CTET February 2026 — Paper I (Classes I to V)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper I (Classes I to V)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part II — Mathematics

Part III — Environmental Studies

Part IV — Language I — Hindi

Part V — Language II — English

Answer Key

CTET February 2026 — Paper I (Classes I to V)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026Paper I (Classes I to V)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part II — Mathematics

Part III — Environmental Studies

Part IV — Language I — Hindi

Part V — Language II — English

Answer Key

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper I (Classes I to V)