MAK LABS — CTET 7 February 2026 Paper II (Maths and Science) Question Paper with Answer Key

1.Which debate is highlighted in the following question?
“Does an individual’s biologically determined sex bring with it all the characteristics that define one’s socially constructed gender?”

(1) Nature-Nurture influences on development
(2) Continuous-Discontinuous view of development
(3) Stable-Unstable view of development
(4) Entity-Incremental view of ability

Why: Biological sex is given by nature, while gender is shaped by society, which is nurture. Asking whether the first brings the second with it is the nature–nurture question. The other debates are about the shape of development over time or about whether ability is fixed.

2.A major developmental task during _____ is the search for identity—personal, sexual and occupational.

(1) middle childhood
(2) early childhood
(3) adolescence
(4) middle adulthood

Why: Erikson placed “identity versus role confusion” in adolescence. This is when young people work out who they are, how they relate to others and what work they want to do.

3.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): Children learn values and norms of the society in overt as well as covert ways.
Reason (R): Socialization is the simple process of passing on customs and rituals of the society.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A is true: children pick up values through direct teaching and also through the hidden curriculum of observation and example. R is false: socialization is a complex, two-way process in which children actively interpret what they see, not a simple handing-down of customs and rituals.

4.As per Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, which of the following abilities distinguishes formal operational thinking from concrete operational thinking?

(1) Abstract logic
(2) Conservation
(3) Object permanence
(4) Symbolic play

Why: Concrete operational children reason logically only about real, concrete objects. The formal operational stage adds abstract and hypothetical reasoning. Conservation belongs to the concrete stage, object permanence to the sensorimotor stage and symbolic play to the preoperational stage.

5.A significant critique of Jean Piaget is that he failed to adequately consider the influence of _____ on development.

(1) maturation
(2) culture
(3) experience
(4) activity

Why: Piaget saw development as a universal sequence driven by the child’s own activity and maturation. Critics, Vygotsky above all, pointed out that he paid too little attention to the social and cultural setting in which children grow up.

6.Which of the following is a correctly matched pair?

(1) Punishment and Obedience orientation—Avoidance of bad consequences
(2) Good boy-Good girl orientation—Greatest good for greater numbers
(3) Law and Order orientation—Upholding principles of social justice for humanity
(4) Social Contract orientation—Consideration of perception of others

Why: In Kohlberg’s first stage the child judges an act by whether it leads to punishment, so avoiding bad consequences is the right match. “Greatest good for the greatest number” fits the social contract stage, universal principles of justice fit stage 6, and concern for how others see you fits the good boy–good girl stage.

7.Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky are similar in their belief that

(1) children are involved in the process of meaning making.
(2) language influences and determines thought.
(3) culture has a profound effect on the learning.
(4) development of children takes place in stage-like progression.

Why: Both were constructivists: each saw the child as an active builder of meaning. The role of language in shaping thought and the strong effect of culture are Vygotsky’s ideas, while fixed stages belong to Piaget alone.

8.Lev Vygotsky proposed that

(1) children are born ‘unruly’ and society needs to teach them social behaviours.
(2) children’s thinking is ‘quantitatively’ different from adults.
(3) children’s thinking is ‘qualitatively’ different from adults.
(4) children have a lot of potential which includes tasks they can do with the others’ support.

Why: This describes the Zone of Proximal Development: the range of tasks a child cannot yet do alone but can manage with help from an adult or a more capable peer. The claim that children think qualitatively differently from adults is Piaget’s.

9.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): The purpose of administering intelligence tests and extended observation should be to compare children in specific domains and abilities.
Reason (R): Intelligence is an innate ability and cannot be nurtured.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A is false: tests and observation are meant to understand each child’s strengths and needs so that teaching can support them, not to rank children against one another. R is false too: intelligence has a hereditary base but grows with a rich environment and good teaching.

10.A teacher who consciously takes examples of scientists of all genders in her middle school classroom is trying to—

(1) break gender stereotypes.
(2) reinforce gender discrimination.
(3) enable gender identity.
(4) construct gender constancy.

Why: Showing scientists of every gender challenges the stereotype that science is a male field. Gender constancy is a young child’s understanding that gender does not change, which a middle school lesson is not trying to build.

11.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): All girls are hardworking and sincere while boys are intelligent and dominating.
Reason (R): Two distinctive biological brains produce all differences in physical and cognitive skills as well as personalities and temperament in girls and boys.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A is a gender stereotype: qualities such as hard work or intelligence are not fixed by sex. R is false as well: there are no two separate “male” and “female” brains that produce every difference. Most differences are shaped by upbringing and social expectations.

12.Individual differences in learning preferences of students should be seen as—

(1) abnormal parameter of their differing IQ levels.
(2) cognitive abnormality among some children.
(3) developmental deficits among some children.
(4) normal depiction of diversity.

Why: Children differ in how they prefer to learn, and this is a normal part of human diversity. It is not a sign of abnormality or deficit, and a teacher should plan varied activities to suit it.

13.The kind of assessment in which a student’s scores are compared with the average performance of other students is called

(1) criteria-referenced.
(2) format-referenced.
(3) norm-referenced.
(4) self-referenced.

Why: Norm-referenced assessment places a student against the performance of a group, the norm. Criterion-referenced assessment compares the student with a fixed standard, and self-referenced assessment compares the student with his or her own earlier work.

14.Which of the following statements about classroom assessment are correct?
(i) Assessments should influence the students’ cognitive processes while they study.
(ii) Assessments should serve as learning experiences in themselves.
(iii) Assessments should create fear and stress among students to get them to learn.
(iv) Assessments should be standardized and norm-referenced.
Choose the correct option.

(1) (i), (iii)
(2) (i), (ii)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Why: Good classroom assessment shapes how students think while they learn and is itself a learning experience, so (i) and (ii) are correct. Fear and stress block learning, and classroom assessment is meant to be flexible and formative, not standardized and norm-referenced.

15.Which of the following questions would promote higher-order critical and analytical thinking skills among the students?

(1) Identify the assumptions underlying two newspaper articles depicting the same event.
(2) Identify the nouns mentioned in a specific newspaper article.
(3) Read the newspaper articles and make a list of new words.
(4) Read the newspaper article and think of a suitable title.

Why: Comparing two reports of one event and uncovering what each assumes calls for analysis and evaluation, the top levels of Bloom’s taxonomy. Picking out nouns or new words is recall, and suggesting a title needs only comprehension.

16.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): Students with poor writing abilities are often stereotyped by their teachers as ‘intellectually disabled’.
Reason (R): Teachers tend to have implicit bias and hold assumptions about students’ learning behaviours that can affect students’ growth.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A describes a real and harmful labelling: weak writing is often taken as a sign of low intelligence, though it may come from dysgraphia or lack of practice. R explains why: unexamined bias leads teachers to draw such conclusions, and those low expectations can hold the student back.

17.Which of the following is not a way to promote diversity in the classroom?

(1) Incorporating a variety of perspectives and experiences in the curriculum
(2) Encouraging students to express their unique identities and cultures
(3) Adapting behaviour based on stereotyping students according to their backgrounds and cultures
(4) Providing opportunities for students to interact with individuals from different backgrounds and cultures

Why: Treating students according to stereotypes about their background is discrimination, and it works against diversity. The other three options value and include different perspectives.

18.Which of the following is the correct match of learning disability and challenge caused by it?

(1) Dyscalculia—Impacts ability to read and language processing skills
(2) Dysgraphia—Impacts fine motor skills and spelling
(3) Dyslexia—Impacts ability to learn numbers and arithmetic operations
(4) Dyspraxia—Impacts ability to see, hear and talk properly

Why: Dysgraphia is a writing difficulty, affecting handwriting, the fine motor control behind it, and spelling. Dyscalculia affects numbers and arithmetic, dyslexia affects reading, and dyspraxia affects the planning and coordination of movement.

19.Students struggling with ‘autism’ show ease at

(1) communication with strangers.
(2) eye contact during conversation.
(3) familiar and predictable routines.
(4) rapid transitions between activities.

Why: Children on the autism spectrum usually feel secure with fixed, predictable routines. Talking with strangers, keeping eye contact and switching quickly between activities are typically hard for them.

20.Which of the following statements is not correct about gifted children?

(1) Children can be gifted at different levels and some can have some kind of disability also.
(2) Children can be gifted in more than one kind of intelligence.
(3) Gifted children are born with extraordinary abilities and potential that need to be nurtured.
(4) Gifted children have lower sense of curiosity and poor imagination skills.

Why: Gifted children are usually marked by strong curiosity and a rich imagination, so option 4 is false. A child can be gifted and also have a disability (twice-exceptional), and can be gifted in several areas at once.

21.Error analysis by students

(1) creates further gaps in students’ understanding.
(2) hinders metacognitive skills of students.
(3) is a futile activity in process of learning.
(4) supports students in retaining their learning.

Why: When students examine their own mistakes, they see why an answer went wrong and correct the underlying idea. This strengthens metacognition and helps the corrected learning last.

22.Which of the following statements is correct regarding declarative knowledge and procedural knowledge?

(1) Declarative knowledge emphasizes how to do something.
(2) Declarative knowledge is also known as analytical knowledge.
(3) Procedural knowledge is generally process-oriented in nature.
(4) Procedural knowledge tells the factual knowledge about something.

Why: Procedural knowledge is “knowing how”: the steps of a process or a skill. Declarative knowledge is “knowing that”: facts and concepts. Options 1 and 4 swap the two definitions.

23.Contents which require an extension or modification of existing cognitive structures take _____ time for learning and are retained for _____ duration.

(1) long, long
(2) long, short
(3) short, short
(4) short, long

Why: Changing an existing schema is Piaget’s accommodation, which takes more effort and time than simply adding to what is known. Because the new idea is built into the learner’s structure of understanding, it is also kept for a long time.

24.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): Teachers should encourage children to focus on questions such as “what is my learning goal and what do I need to do to get there”.
Reason (R): When students understand how to self-assess their work performance, they can use this understanding to help themselves learn and progress.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: Questions about one’s own goal and next steps are the heart of self-assessment and self-regulated learning. R gives the reason teachers should encourage them: students who can judge their own work can steer their own progress.

25.In guided discovery approach of learning

(1) learners are left on their own without any kind of intervention by teacher.
(2) no prior planning or previous knowledge is required.
(3) opportunities are provided to learners to construct knowledge for themselves.
(4) teacher acts as a dictator and learners act as listeners.

Why: In guided discovery, learners find things out for themselves while the teacher plans the task and steps in with prompts and hints. It is neither unguided discovery (option 1) nor lecture-style teaching (option 4), and it needs careful planning.

26.Which of the following strategies is not effective while developing conceptual understanding in children?

(1) Presenting a wide range of examples in diverse contexts
(2) Presenting non-examples to show what the concept is not
(3) Asking students to generate their own examples
(4) Asking students to memorize the definition as it is

Why: Learning a definition by heart does not show that a child understands the concept. Varied examples, non-examples and children’s own examples all help them see where the concept begins and ends.

27.An active middle school classroom should be founded on the theoretical principles of

(1) behaviourism
(2) psychodynamism
(3) social constructivism
(4) psychoanalysis

Why: An active classroom has students building knowledge through discussion, collaboration and inquiry, which is the core of Vygotsky’s social constructivism. Behaviourism treats the learner as passive, and the psychodynamic and psychoanalytic schools are theories of personality, not of classroom learning.

28.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): Empathy depends on the ability to understand that others have feelings and to gauge their feelings.
Reason (R): Emotions and cognition are not related to each other.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A is true: empathy needs the understanding that others have their own feelings (theory of mind) and the skill to read them. R is false: A itself shows that emotion and cognition work together, and each shapes the other.

29.A middle school teacher can enable students become strategic self-motivated learners by—

(1) encouraging students to develop their metacognitive knowledge and skills.
(2) providing varied forms of reinforcement for every task completed.
(3) dictating well-prepared answers to questions in the textbook.
(4) stressing upon objective-type testing at the end of the term.

Why: Strategic learners plan, monitor and evaluate their own learning, and these are metacognitive skills. Rewarding every task builds dependence on external reinforcement, and dictated answers or end-of-term tests do nothing to build self-direction.

30.Which of the following exemplifies intrinsic motivation?

(1) Motivation driven by external rewards
(2) Motivation driven by personal interest or enjoyment of the task
(3) Motivation driven by competition with others
(4) Motivation driven by gaining the appreciation of others

Why: Intrinsic motivation comes from inside the learner: the task is done because it is interesting or enjoyable in itself. Rewards, competition and praise are all outside sources, so they are extrinsic.

31.The greatest number that divides 87 and 123 leaving respectively 7 and 3 as remainders is :

(1) 20
(2) 36
(3) 40
(4) 80

Why: Take away the remainders: the number must divide 87 − 7 = 80 and 123 − 3 = 120 exactly. HCF(80, 120) = 40, and 40 is larger than both remainders, so it works.

32.The value of 0·4 + 0·6 is :

(1) 1
(2) 1¹⁄₉
(3) 1²⁄₉
(4) 1¹⁄₁₀

Why: A single repeating digit d after the point equals d/9. So 0·4 = ⁴⁄₉ and 0·6 = ⁶⁄₉, and the sum is ¹⁰⁄₉ = 1¹⁄₉.

33.The difference between the largest and smallest fractions among ⁴⁄₇, ⁹⁄₁₆, 1²⁄₇ and ³⁄₅ is :

(1) ²⁄₇
(2) ⁸¹⁄₁₁₂
(3) ²⁵⁄₂₈
(4) ³¹⁄₅₆

Why: As decimals: ⁴⁄₇ ≈ 0·571, ⁹⁄₁₆ = 0·5625, 1²⁄₇ ≈ 1·286 and ³⁄₅ = 0·6. Largest is ⁹⁄₇, smallest is ⁹⁄₁₆. Difference = ¹⁴⁴⁄₁₁₂ − ⁶³⁄₁₁₂ = ⁸¹⁄₁₁₂.

34.The digit at units place of the square of a number is 2 more than the digit at units place of that number. Which of the following cannot be the digit at units place of the square of that number?

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 9

Why: Test each units digit d and see where d² ends. Only three digits work: d = 2 (square ends in 4), d = 4 (ends in 6) and d = 7 (ends in 9). So the square can end in 4, 6 or 9. A square ends in 5 only when the number itself ends in 5, and 5 is not 2 more than 5.

35.If
2 A
× A
B 2 A
where A and B are digits, then

(1) A = 6, B = 1
(2) A = 1, B = 6
(3) A = 1, B = 5
(4) A = 5, B = 1

Why: A × A must end in A, so A is 0, 1, 5 or 6. Only A = 5 gives a three-digit product with 2 in the middle: 25 × 5 = 125, so B = 1. (21 × 1 = 21 and 26 × 6 = 156 do not fit.)

36.If a − b = ¹¹⁄₅ and ab = ³⁄₄, then one of the values of (a + b) is :

(1) 2³⁄₅
(2) 2⁴⁄₅
(3) 3¹⁄₅
(4) 3²⁄₅

Why: (a + b)² = (a − b)² + 4ab = ¹²¹⁄₂₅ + 3 = ¹⁹⁶⁄₂₅. So a + b = ±¹⁴⁄₅, and one value is ¹⁴⁄₅ = 2⁴⁄₅.

37.If (7x − 1)/4 − ¹⁄₃(2x − (1 − x)/2) = ¹⁰⁄₃, then what is the value of (11x + 21)/2?

(1) 27
(2) 29
(3) 31
(4) 32

Why: Inside the bracket: 2x − (1 − x)/2 = (5x − 1)/2, so the equation is (7x − 1)/4 − (5x − 1)/6 = ¹⁰⁄₃. Multiply by 12: 3(7x − 1) − 2(5x − 1) = 40, so 11x − 1 = 40 and 11x = 41. Then (11x + 21)/2 = (41 + 21)/2 = 31. There is no need to find x itself.

38.One of the factors of 5(2x − 4y) + 6(4x² + 16y² − 16xy) − 6 is :

(1) 2x − 4y − 3
(2) 4x − 8y + 3
(3) 3x − 6y + 1
(4) 3x − 6y − 1

Why: Put t = 2x − 4y. Then 4x² + 16y² − 16xy = t², and the expression is 6t² + 5t − 6 = (2t + 3)(3t − 2). Now 2t + 3 = 4x − 8y + 3, and 3t − 2 = 6x − 12y − 2 = 2(3x − 6y − 1). So both option 2 and option 4 are factors. CBSE accepted either (key E).

39.A shopkeeper buys a fan for ₹ 1,500 and marks it for ₹ 2,500. He sells it after giving a discount of 20% on its marked price and an additional discount of ₹ 250 on cash payment. If a customer buys it on cash payment, then what is the profit (in ₹) earned by the shopkeeper?

(1) 200
(2) 225
(3) 250
(4) 300

Why: 20% of ₹ 2,500 is ₹ 500, so the price becomes ₹ 2,000. The cash discount brings it to ₹ 1,750. Profit = 1,750 − 1,500 = ₹ 250.

40.When x is added to each of the numbers 4, 10, 12 and 24, then the numbers so obtained in this order are in proportion. What is the value of (3x + 1)?

(1) 10
(2) 13
(3) 16
(4) 19

Why: In a proportion, product of extremes = product of means: (4 + x)(24 + x) = (10 + x)(12 + x). So 96 + 28x = 120 + 22x, giving 6x = 24 and x = 4. Then 3x + 1 = 13. Check: 8 : 14 = 16 : 28.

41.If (3x − 30°) and (2x + 20°) are two supplementary angles, then the value of (2x − 4°) is :

(1) 72°
(2) 76°
(3) 80°
(4) 84°

Why: Supplementary angles add up to 180°: 5x − 10° = 180°, so x = 38°. Then 2x − 4° = 76° − 4° = 72°.

42.Angles P and Q of a triangle PQR are respectively 30° and 50°. If the bisectors of angles P and Q meet at a point O, then the value of (2∠POQ − 10°) is :

(1) 150°
(2) 190°
(3) 270°
(4) 250°

Why: The bisectors make angles of 15° and 25° at P and Q, so in triangle POQ, ∠POQ = 180° − 15° − 25° = 140°. Then 2 × 140° − 10° = 270°.

43.Which of the following measurements (in cm) cannot form the sides of a right triangle?

(1) 2·5, 6·5, 6
(2) 12, 16, 20
(3) 4·5, 6, 7·5
(4) 8, 16, 12

Why: Check a² + b² = c² with the longest side as c. For 8, 12, 16: 64 + 144 = 208, but 16² = 256, so no right angle. The others work: 2·5² + 6² = 6·5², 12² + 16² = 20², and 4·5² + 6² = 7·5².

44.Which of the following letters does not have rotational symmetry?

(1) H
(2) O
(3) E
(4) N

Why: H and N look the same after a half turn (order 2), and O looks the same at every angle. E only returns to its own shape after a full turn, so it has no rotational symmetry. (E does have a line of symmetry, but that is reflection, not rotation.)

45.Diagonals PR and QS of a parallelogram PQRS intersect at point O. If OP = (x + y) cm, OQ = 20 cm, OR = 16 cm and OS = (y + 7) cm, then the value of (7x − y) (in cm) is :

(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 13

Why: The diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other, so OS = OQ gives y + 7 = 20, y = 13, and OP = OR gives x + y = 16, x = 3. Then 7x − y = 21 − 13 = 8.

46.The perimeter and area of a trapezium are respectively 52 cm and 128 cm². If the sum of its non-parallel sides is 20 cm, then the distance between its parallel sides is :

(1) 6 cm
(2) 8 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 12 cm

Why: The parallel sides add up to 52 − 20 = 32 cm. Area = ½ × (sum of parallel sides) × h, so 128 = ½ × 32 × h = 16h, and h = 8 cm.

47.The area of a rectangular field is 48 m² and one of its sides is 6 m. How long will a person take to cross this field diagonally at a speed of 20 m per minute?

(1) 15 seconds
(2) 20 seconds
(3) 30 seconds
(4) 40 seconds

Why: The other side is 48 ÷ 6 = 8 m, so the diagonal is √(36 + 64) = 10 m. At 20 m per minute that takes ½ minute, which is 30 seconds.

48.Three metallic solid cubes of sides 8 cm, 6 cm and 10 cm are melted to form a single solid cube. The side of the new cube so formed is :

(1) 24 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 18 cm
(4) 12 cm

Why: Volume is conserved: 8³ + 6³ + 10³ = 512 + 216 + 1000 = 1728 cm³. The cube root of 1728 is 12, so the new side is 12 cm.

49.The mean of the median and mode of the observations 30, 61, 55, 56, 60, 20, 26, 45, 28 and 56 is

(1) 52
(2) 53
(3) 55
(4) 56

Why: In order: 20, 26, 28, 30, 45, 55, 56, 56, 60, 61. With 10 values the median is the mean of the 5th and 6th: (45 + 55)/2 = 50. The mode is 56, the only value that repeats. Mean of the two = (50 + 56)/2 = 53.

50.A card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of playing cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is a 10 or a red king?

(1) ¹⁄₂₆
(2) ¹⁄₁₃
(3) ³⁄₂₆
(4) ²⁄₁₃

Why: A deck of 52 cards has four 10s and two red kings, and no card is both. Favourable outcomes = 6, so P = ⁶⁄₅₂ = ³⁄₂₆.

51.A teacher gives an image drawn on a square grid to children and asks them to draw its enlarged and reduced size images. Which of the following would not be an objective of doing this exercise in a mathematics classroom?

(1) To apply the concept of ratio and proportion in different situations
(2) To provide practice for application of fractions
(3) To provide scope for integrating arithmetic and geometry
(4) To introduce the concept of congruency and similarity

Why: Scaling a figure on a grid uses ratio and proportion, needs fractions for reductions (half size, one-third size), and joins arithmetic with geometry. But an enlarged or reduced copy is never congruent to the original, since congruent figures have the same size, so the activity cannot introduce congruency.

52.Closed-ended questions in mathematics do not promote :
A. Divergent thinking
B. Convergent thinking
C. Creativity
D. Higher-order thinking skills
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B
(2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, C and D

Why: A closed-ended question has one fixed answer, so it trains convergent thinking. It leaves no room for divergent thinking, creativity or the higher-order skills that open-ended questions build.

53.Which of the following should not be a part of assessment of students in mathematics?

(1) Apply mathematical concepts learnt to solve problems related to daily life situations
(2) Reason out mathematical facts
(3) Recalling the definitions of mathematical terms
(4) Use abstractions to perceive mathematical relationships

Why: NCF 2005 asks that mathematics assessment test understanding, reasoning and application rather than rote memory. Reciting definitions shows recall only, so it is the one that should not be a focus.

54._____ was the first Indian mathematician who explained that the square root of a negative number does not exist.

(1) Mahavira
(2) Baudhayana
(3) Aryabhatta
(4) Ramanujan

Why: Mahavira (9th century), in his Ganita Sara Sangraha, stated that a negative number is not a square, so it has no square root. Baudhayana and Aryabhatta lived earlier but did not state this, and Ramanujan worked much later.

55.When asked to arrange the decimal numbers 1·5, 0·23, 1·6, 0·034, 1·13 in ascending order, one of the students arranged them as 0·23, 0·034, 1·5, 1·6, 1·13. Which among the following is most appropriate for the response of the student?

(1) The student has arranged the decimal numbers in the correct order
(2) The student has made a careless mistake by arranging the decimal numbers in descending order
(3) Teacher should ask the student to recall the rules of ordering decimal numbers and then arrange them
(4) The student has developed a misconception of considering that decimal number as bigger number which has more digits in decimal part

Why: Within each whole-number group the student placed the number with more decimal digits last: 0·034 after 0·23 and 1·13 after 1·6. This is the “longer is larger” misconception, treating the decimal part like a whole number. The correct order is 0·034, 0·23, 1·13, 1·5, 1·6.

56.A teacher asked the children to cut out six squares of ‘one’ unit each and then asked, “How many different shapes can you make using these squares? Which shape formed would have the maximum perimeter?” The least appropriate objective of this activity is

(1) to engage children in group work
(2) to provide opportunities for developing creativity and analytical skills
(3) to assess children’s learning about area and perimeter
(4) to apply the formulae learnt in a new context

Why: The activity is built around mathematical ideas: every shape has the same area of 6 square units but a different perimeter, which calls for exploration, analysis and applying what was learnt. Nothing in the task requires group work, so that is the least fitting objective.

57.A child solved an equation x + 7 = 15 as
x + 7 − 7 = 15
x = 15
The best remedial strategy for this child is

(1) give a lot of problems on solving equations to the child
(2) explain problems in simple language to the child
(3) explain the concept of equality using alternate methods
(4) ask the child to solve the same equation on the blackboard

Why: The child subtracted 7 from one side only, which shows the idea of an equation as a balance has not been understood. The remedy is to rebuild that idea in a new way, for example with a physical balance or a see-saw model. More practice or repeating the same working will not fix the concept.

58.According to the National Curriculum Framework, 2005, what are the important skills to be developed among learners while teaching arithmetic and algebra?
A. Looking for patterns in the relationships
B. Memorizing algebraic identities
C. Seeing relationship between numbers
D. Rigorous practice of writing algebraic notation
Choose the correct option.

(1) A, B and D
(2) A and C
(3) B and C
(4) B and D

Why: NCF 2005 stresses seeing mathematics as the study of patterns and relationships, not memorising identities or drilling notation. So A and C are the skills it names.

59.After teaching ‘shapes’ in Class VIII, a teacher planned a trip to historical places. Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for this?

(1) Field trips are the recommendations of CBSE
(2) Teacher has completed most of the syllabus, so she planned the field trip just to have fun
(3) Shapes are an integral part of any architecture and such trips encourage connection across the disciplines
(4) It would be a break from the routine teaching of mathematics class and an opportunity to improve students’ communication skill

Why: Monuments are full of the shapes and symmetry the class has studied. Seeing them in real buildings links mathematics to history and art, and that is the purpose of the trip. The other options give no learning reason tied to shapes.

60.Uma, a mathematics teacher, asked a student, “How many edges are there in a cylinder?” The student answered, “Two”. Uma should

(1) give punishment to the student for wrong answer
(2) praise the student for correct answer
(3) draw picture of the cylinder on the blackboard and show the edges
(4) give cylinder in the hands of that student and ask the question again

Why: A cylinder has two edges: the two circular (curved) edges where the flat faces meet the curved surface. The answer is correct, so the student should be praised. Options 3 and 4 would suit a wrong answer.

61.Fill in the blanks with the correct answer :
At the onset of puberty, the size of ovaries in females A and produce B . In males, C is produced by testes. The production of these hormones is controlled by D .

(1) A—reduces; B—estrogen; C—sex hormone; D—adrenal gland
(2) A—enlarges; B—thyroxine; C—testosterone; D—thyroid gland
(3) A—reduces; B—estrogen; C—testosterone; D—pituitary gland
(4) A—enlarges; B—estrogen; C—testosterone; D—pituitary gland

Why: At puberty the ovaries enlarge and begin to release estrogen, and the testes produce testosterone. Both are controlled by hormones from the pituitary gland. Thyroxine and the thyroid and adrenal glands have no part in this.

62.A circuit comprising three identical bulbs and a switch is connected in different arrangements as given below. In which arrangement will the bulbs glow the brightest?

(1) Arrangement A—All bulbs in series
(2) Arrangement B—All bulbs in parallel
(3) Arrangement C—Two bulbs in parallel connected in series with the third bulb
(4) Arrangement D—Two bulbs in series connected in parallel with the third bulb

Why: In parallel, every bulb gets the full voltage of the cell, so each carries the most current and glows brightest. In series the voltage is shared among the bulbs, so each glows dimmer. The mixed arrangements fall in between.

63.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): Anodizing is a method to prevent metal from corrosion.
Reason (R): Anodizing is a process of coating iron with a layer of zinc.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reason for A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct reason for A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false

Why: A is true: anodizing thickens the protective oxide layer on a metal, usually aluminium, so that it resists corrosion. R is false: coating iron with zinc is galvanization, a different process.

64.Why do silver articles turn black when kept in the open for a few days?

(1) Due to reaction with oxygen in air
(2) Due to reaction with hydrogen sulphide present in air
(3) Due to reaction with nitrogen oxides present in air
(4) Due to reaction with carbon monoxide present in air

Why: Silver reacts with traces of hydrogen sulphide in the air to form a black coating of silver sulphide (Ag₂S). This is called tarnishing. Silver hardly reacts with oxygen at ordinary temperatures.

65.Identify A, B, C and D in the following table :

Name of the salt	Salt obtained from
Name of the salt	Acid	Base
Ammonium chloride	HCl	A
Sodium nitrate	HNO₃	B
Sodium chloride	C	D

Choose the correct option.

(1) A—NH₄OH; B—Na(OH)₂; C—HClO₂; D—NaH
(2) A—NH₄; B—NaOH; C—HCl; D—NaOH
(3) A—NH₃; B—NaOH; C—HCl; D—NaOH
(4) A—NH₄OH; B—NaO; C—HCl; D—NaHCO₃

Why: NH₃ + HCl → NH₄Cl; NaOH + HNO₃ → NaNO₃ + H₂O; NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O. Only option 3 has every entry right. The others contain formulas that are wrong or do not exist: Na(OH)₂, NaO, and NH₄ on its own, which is an ion, not a base.

66.Read the following statements :
Step 1 : A few spoons of sugar are dissolved in water to prepare a concentrated sugar syrup.
Step 2 : The sugar syrup is heated on low flame till it caramelizes.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Step 1 is a physical change and Step 2 is a chemical change
(2) Step 1 is a chemical change and Step 2 is a physical change
(3) Both Step 1 and Step 2 are physical changes
(4) Both Step 1 and Step 2 are chemical changes

Why: Dissolving sugar makes no new substance, and the sugar can be recovered by evaporating the water, so it is a physical change. Caramelizing breaks the sugar down into new brown substances with a new taste and smell, and it cannot be undone, so it is a chemical change.

67.The ion of an element has two positive charges. The mass number of the atom is 27 and the number of neutrons is 14. What is the number of electrons in the ion?

(1) 13
(2) 10
(3) 11
(4) 15

Why: Protons = mass number − neutrons = 27 − 14 = 13, so the neutral atom has 13 electrons. A charge of +2 means it has lost 2 electrons: 13 − 2 = 11.

68.A ray of light travels from air into three media A, B and C with different optical densities. Refer to the table given below and identify X, Y, Z and W :

	Change in speed of light	Change in frequency of light	Change in wavelength of light
Air to medium A	X	Y	Decreases
Air to medium B	Increases	No change	Z
Air to medium C	Remains same	W	No change

Choose the correct option.

(1) X—Increases; Y—Decreases; Z—Decreases; W—Increases
(2) X—Increases; Y—Increases; Z—Increases; W—Increases
(3) X—Decreases; Y—Remains unchanged; Z—Increases; W—Remains unchanged
(4) X—Decreases; Y—Decreases; Z—Increases; W—Remains unchanged

Why: The frequency of light is set by its source and never changes when it enters a new medium, so Y and W are “unchanged”. Since speed = frequency × wavelength, speed and wavelength change together. In A the wavelength falls, so the speed falls (X decreases). In B the speed rises, so the wavelength rises (Z increases).

69.Read the following statements :
Situation A : Growth and branching of roots in the A-horizon and B-horizon is advantageous for absorption of water and minerals.
Situation B : C-horizon is rich in humus which makes soil soft and porous.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only Situation A is true
(2) Only Situation B is true
(3) Both Situations A and B are true
(4) Both Situations A and B are false

Why: Roots spread through the A-horizon (topsoil) and B-horizon, where water and minerals are held, so A is true. Humus is found in the A-horizon. The C-horizon is made of broken pieces of the parent rock and has almost no humus, so B is false.

70.You are provided with China rose indicator.
In the first test tube, you add two drops of solution A and observe no change in colour of the solution.
In the second test tube, you add two drops of solution B and get green colour.
In the third test tube, you add two drops of solution C and get magenta (dark pink) colour.
Identify the nature of solutions A, B and C.

(1) A—Basic; B—Neutral; C—Acidic
(2) A—Acidic; B—Basic; C—Neutral
(3) A—Neutral; B—Basic; C—Acidic
(4) A—Neutral; B—Acidic; C—Basic

Why: China rose indicator turns acidic solutions dark pink (magenta) and basic solutions green, and it does not change in a neutral solution. So A is neutral, B is basic and C is acidic.

71.Read the following statements :
Statement 1 : An object can have non-zero mechanical energy but zero momentum.
Statement 2 : An object can do zero work even if the force acting on the object is non-zero.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false
(2) Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true
(3) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true
(4) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false

Why: A book resting on a high shelf has potential energy, which is mechanical energy, but no velocity and so no momentum: statement 1 is true. Work is zero when there is no displacement (pushing a wall) or when the force is at right angles to the motion: statement 2 is true.

72.Two identical metal containers are taken. Container A is painted black and the container B is painted white on the outside surface.
Step 1 : Both the containers are kept in direct sunlight.
Step 2 : After few hours, both the containers are kept in a shady area.
Which of the following will be observed?

(1) Container A will gain heat faster than container B whereas container B will lose heat faster than container A
(2) Container B will gain heat faster than container A whereas container A will lose heat faster than container B
(3) Container A will gain as well as lose heat faster than container B
(4) Container B will gain as well as lose heat faster than container A

Why: A dark, dull surface is both a good absorber and a good emitter of heat radiation. So the black container heats up faster in the sun and also cools down faster in the shade. A white surface is poor at both.

73.Why is it difficult to cut with a blunt knife as compared to a sharp one?

(1) Pressure increases
(2) Force decreases
(3) Area of contact increases
(4) Area of contact decreases

Why: Pressure = force ÷ area. A blunt edge touches over a larger area, so the same force gives less pressure and the knife does not cut easily. A sharp edge has a tiny area and gives high pressure.

74.Which of the following can be used to increase the strength of an electromagnet?

(1) Increasing the flow of current
(2) Decreasing the number of turns of coil
(3) Using a plastic core
(4) Using an aluminium core

Why: An electromagnet gets stronger with more current, more turns of wire, and a soft iron core. Fewer turns weaken it, and plastic or aluminium cores are not magnetic, so they do not help.

75.Which of the following is a set of organs that do not contribute to the digestive process?

(1) Buccal cavity, oesophagus, rectum
(2) Oesophagus, large intestine, rectum
(3) Small intestine, large intestine, rectum
(4) Large intestine, small intestine, oesophagus

Why: Digestion, the breakdown of food, happens in the buccal cavity, stomach and small intestine. The oesophagus only carries food down, the large intestine absorbs water, and the rectum stores waste, so none of these three digests food. Every other option includes the buccal cavity or the small intestine.

76.Read the following statements :
A : Earthworm breathes through its skin and does not have lungs.
B : Tadpole breathes through gills and does not have lungs.
C : Snake breathes through its skin and does not have lungs.
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B are true
(2) B and C are true
(3) A and C are true
(4) Only A is true

Why: An earthworm breathes through its moist skin and has no lungs. A tadpole lives in water and breathes through gills; lungs develop only later, as it turns into a frog. A snake is a reptile with dry, scaly skin and breathes through lungs, so C is false.

77.Read the following, and identify X, Y, Z and W respectively :
X : The part which produces pollen grains
Y : The part where the female gamete is formed
Z : The female reproductive part where pollen grains germinate
W : The part of the flower which attracts insects
Choose the correct option.

(1) Pistil, stigma, ovary, sepal
(2) Anther, pistil, ovary, sepal
(3) Anther, ovary, stigma, petals
(4) Stamen, ovary, ovule, petals

Why: Pollen is made in the anther. The female gamete (egg) forms in the ovule inside the ovary. Pollen lands on and germinates on the stigma. Bright petals attract insects; sepals are green and protect the bud.

78.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): Sewage treatment is essential to prevent diseases and deaths.
Reason (R): Sewage is a solid waste which causes water pollution and soil pollution.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reason for A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct reason for A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

Why: A is true: untreated sewage spreads diseases such as cholera and typhoid. R is false: sewage is liquid waste, mostly water carrying dissolved and suspended impurities, not solid waste.

79.Read the following statements :
A : Spiracles and stomata are pores through which insects and leaves exchange gases respectively.
B : Spiracles in an insect are more in number as compared to stomata in a leaf.
C : Both stomata and spiracles are present on the lower surface of leaves and insect’s body respectively.
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B are true
(2) B and C are true
(3) A and C are true
(4) Only A is true

Why: A is true. B is false: an insect has only about ten pairs of spiracles, while a single leaf has thousands of stomata. C is false: spiracles run along the sides of an insect’s body, not its lower surface.

80.Fill in the blanks with the correct answer :
A pushes the blood into pulmonary artery. B take deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs. C return oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart. From the left atrium, blood flows to the D . E receives blood from different parts of the body.

(1) A—Left ventricle; B—Pulmonary veins; C—Pulmonary arteries; D—right auricle; E—Right ventricle
(2) A—Left ventricle; B—Pulmonary arteries; C—Pulmonary veins; D—right auricle; E—Right ventricle
(3) A—Right ventricle; B—Pulmonary arteries; C—Pulmonary veins; D—left ventricle; E—Right auricle
(4) A—Right ventricle; B—Pulmonary veins; C—Pulmonary arteries; D—left ventricle; E—Right auricle

Why: The right ventricle pumps blood into the pulmonary artery, whose branches (pulmonary arteries) carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs. Pulmonary veins bring oxygenated blood back to the left atrium, which passes it to the left ventricle. The right auricle (atrium) collects blood returning from the body.

81.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): Hypotheses become theories which in turn become laws.
Reason (R): Scientific laws such as law of gravitation are absolute.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reason for A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct reason for A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false

Why: A is a common myth about the nature of science: theories and laws are different kinds of knowledge. A law describes a pattern, a theory explains it, and a theory never “grows up” into a law. R is false too: scientific knowledge is tentative, and even Newton’s law of gravitation was refined by Einstein’s relativity.

82.Sheena writes the following statements in her notebook :
A₁ : Cactus is a desert plant.
A₂ : A desert plant has very small-sized leaves.
A₃ : Small-sized leaves help in reducing loss of water.
Which of the following is true about A₁, A₂ and A₃ respectively?

(1) Inference, Observation, Hypothesis
(2) Inference, Inference, Inference
(3) Observation, Hypothesis, Inference
(4) Observation, Observation, Inference

Why: That a cactus grows in the desert and that desert plants have small leaves can both be seen directly, so A₁ and A₂ are observations. That small leaves reduce water loss is a conclusion drawn from what is seen, so A₃ is an inference.

83.Which of the following cannot be regarded as a ‘testable question’?

(1) What is the effect of cigarette smoke on lungs?
(2) How does flu effect human immune system?
(3) When will fossil fuels run out?
(4) What does an earthworm eat?

Why: A testable question can be answered by observation or experiment now. The other three can be investigated directly. When fossil fuels will run out depends on future use and future discoveries, so it can only be estimated, not tested.

84.Read the excerpt given below :
A teacher arranged a fun trip to Qutub Minar for her learners. The learners saw the iron pillar in the Qutub complex. The teacher asked the learners to note down the details displayed about the pillar that is 1600 years old and rust-resistant. She also asked them to write those iron items in their house, which are being used regularly and are rusted and think of causes of rusting and ways to prevent rusting.
Which of the following process skills are being developed through the above-mentioned activity?

(1) Measurement, classification, inference
(2) Classification, observation, measurement
(3) Inference, classification, observation
(4) Classification, observation, hypothesis

Why: Noting the details about the pillar is observation. Sorting household iron items into those that are used regularly and rusted is classification. Thinking about why rusting happens and how to prevent it means forming hypotheses. Nothing in the activity is measured.

85.Which of the following does not satisfy ‘process validity’ of science curriculum as recommended by the National Curriculum Framework, 2005?

(1) Students investigating the acidity and basicity of different household items
(2) Students discussing the possible outcomes of connecting a piece of rubber, hairpin and lead to two open ends of an electric circuit
(3) Students involved in developing hypothesis for germination of seeds kept in a dry cotton cloth and moist cotton
(4) Students involved in making a list of elements given in the periodic table

Why: NCF 2005 says a curriculum has process validity when it engages learners in the methods of science: investigating, predicting, hypothesising and testing. Copying the elements from the periodic table into a list involves none of these.

86.The science textbooks often include interesting anecdotes from the past. One such story is that of accidental discovery of silk in China and the role of travellers and traders in introducing silk to the rest of the world through the ‘Silk Route’.
What objectives of science teaching-learning are being fulfilled by including the above in the textbook?
A. To develop an understanding of nature of science
B. To develop a historical perspective
C. To develop an appreciation of how science is socially and culturally embedded
D. To reduce the burden of science content by including fun stories
Choose the correct option.

(1) A, C and D
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, B and D

Why: The story shows that discoveries can be accidental (nature of science), places science in history, and shows how trade and travel spread it (its social and cultural setting). Such stories are included for these purposes, not to lighten the syllabus, so D is not an objective.

87.Which of the following tasks would not contribute to developing scientific temper among students?

(1) Providing hands-on experiences to students
(2) Emphasizing the historical aspects of the development of scientific concepts
(3) Reading out the tenets of nature of science
(4) Encouraging the students to ask questions

Why: Scientific temper, a habit of questioning and seeking evidence, grows by doing: hands-on work, asking questions, and seeing how ideas developed over time. Reading a list of principles aloud is passive and does not build that habit.

88.Which of the following is the most appropriate strategy to introduce physical properties of metals and non-metals to Grade VII learners as per the inquiry-based approach?

(1) List the differences between the physical properties of metals and non-metals on the blackboard
(2) Initiate a discussion on students’ everyday experiences of using metallic and non-metallic substances
(3) Define the terms ‘sonorous’, ‘boiling point’ and ‘melting point’
(4) Give a set of materials to students and ask them to deduce the properties of metals and non-metals

Why: In inquiry-based learning, students find out for themselves. Handling real materials (hammering, bending, tapping, testing conductivity) and then working out the properties is inquiry. A discussion of everyday experience is a useful starting point, but it does not involve investigation, and listing or defining terms is direct instruction.

89.Read the following statements :
S₁ : Systematic experimentation needs to be introduced in upper primary stage to verify theoretical principles.
S₂ : Activities and experimental evidence play an important role in understanding nature of science.
S₃ : Most concepts should be arrived at by an inductive approach at upper primary level.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both S₁ and S₂ are true and S₂ is the correct reason for S₁
(2) Both S₁ and S₃ are true and S₃ is the correct reason for S₁
(3) Both S₂ and S₃ are true but S₁ is false
(4) Both S₁ and S₃ are true but S₂ is false

Why: NCF 2005 wants upper primary children to learn science through activities and simple experiments, arriving at ideas inductively from what they observe, so S₂ and S₃ are true. Systematic experimentation to verify theoretical principles belongs to the secondary stage, so S₁ is false.

90.Before beginning to formally teach a chapter on ‘force’ in Class VI, a teacher holds a discussion in which she asks children to imagine what would they do if they wish to keep a ball rolling on the ground for very long distances. How can she most suitably use the children’s responses?
A. To evaluate students
B. To assess students’ preconceptions
C. To determine the pedagogical strategy to be adopted to teach the concept
D. To enable students to define force
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and C

Why: A discussion before teaching shows what children already believe about force and motion, including misconceptions such as “a moving thing needs a push to keep moving”. The teacher uses this to plan how to teach. It is not meant for grading, and defining force comes later in the lesson.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

91.मोरपिसांचे विविधरंग दिसण्यामागचे प्राथमिक कारण कोणते?

(1) कॅरोटेनॉईड रंग
(2) पिसांमधून वाऱ्याचे अपवर्तन
(3) विशिष्ट कोनात प्रकाश परावर्तित करणाऱ्या पिसांच्या सूक्ष्म रचना
(4) त्वचेची वैशिष्ट्यपूर्ण रचना

Why: उताऱ्यानुसार मोराचा झळाळता निळा, हिरवा, मोरपंखी रंग पिसांच्या सूक्ष्म रचनेमुळे तयार होतो. प्रकाश कोणत्या कोनात पडतो आणि कसा परावर्तित होतो, त्यानुसार हे रंग बदलतात. कॅरोटेनॉईडपासून फक्त पिवळा, लाल असे रंग मिळतात.

92.पक्ष्यांचे खाद्य आणि त्यांच्या पिसांचे रंग यांच्यात कोणता संबंध दिसतो?

(1) जे पक्षी वैविध्यपूर्ण पदार्थ खातात त्यांची पिसे विविधरंगी असतात.
(2) जे पक्षी कॅरोटेनॉईड समृद्ध पदार्थ खातात त्यांच्या पिसांना पिवळा किंवा लाल रंग येतो.
(3) फक्त कीटक आहारावर जगणारे पक्षी रंगीबेरंगी असतात.
(4) खाद्य पदार्थ आणि पिसांचे रंग यांच्यात कोणताही संबंध नसतो.

Why: पिवळा, लाल असे रंग कॅरोटेनॉईड रंगद्रव्यांपासून मिळतात. बहुतेक पक्ष्यांना ही रंगद्रव्ये शरीरात तयार करता येत नाहीत, ती खाण्यातून मिळवावी लागतात. रोहित पक्ष्यांचा गुलाबी-केशरी रंग कोळंबी खाऊन मिळतो.

93.‘पोपटांना फार दूरवर उडता येत नाही’. वाक्यातील अधोरेखित शब्दाला कोणता व्याकरणिक घटक जोडला गेला आहे?

(1) गुण विशेषण
(2) उभयान्वयी अव्यय
(3) आत्मवाचक सर्वनाम
(4) शब्दयोगी अव्यय

Why: ‘दूरवर’ म्हणजे दूर + वर. ‘वर’ हे शब्दाला जोडून येणारे शब्दयोगी अव्यय आहे.

94.पुढीलपैकी कोणत्या मूख्य कारणास्तव पोपट हे जगात सर्वात लोकप्रिय आहेत?

(1) त्यांचे वयोमान आणि माणसाच्या आवाजाची नक्कल करण्याची क्षमता.
(2) त्यांचा आकार आणि फार दूरवर उडता येत नसल्यामुळे.
(3) शरीरातच रंगद्रव्ये तयार करता येण्याच्या क्षमतेमुळे.
(4) पिंजऱ्यात सहज ठेवता येत असल्यामुळे.

Why: पोपट 30-40 वर्षे जगू शकतात आणि माणसांच्या आवाजाची नक्कल करू शकतात. उतारा सांगतो की या वैशिष्ट्यांमुळेच पाळीव पक्षी म्हणून पोपटांना जगभर मागणी आहे. रंगद्रव्ये तयार करण्याची क्षमता त्यांच्या रंगांचे कारण आहे, जगभरच्या मागणीचे नाही.

95.रोहित पक्ष्यांच्या उदाहरणातून लेखकाने कोणती महत्त्वाची बाब निदर्शनास आणून दिली आहे?

(1) रंगद्रव्ये तयार करण्यात प्रकाशाचे महत्त्व
(2) चटकदार रंग मिळविण्यासाठी पक्षी स्थलांतर करतात
(3) त्यांना खाद्य पदार्थातून रंगद्रव्ये मिळवावी लागतात
(4) सर्व पक्ष्यांना एकसारखे रंग धारण करता येतात

Why: रोहित पक्ष्यांचा गुलाबी-केशरी रंग मोठ्या प्रमाणावर कोळंबी खाऊन, त्यातील घटकांपासून मिळतो. यावरून दिसते की पक्ष्यांना रंगद्रव्ये खाद्यातून मिळवावी लागतात.

96.‘अपवाद’ शब्दाचा आशय व्यक्त करणारा पर्याय निवडा.

(1) एक प्रकारची उदास, निराशाजनक आणि निष्क्रिय मनःस्थिती
(2) प्रगती किंवा कार्याला थांबवणारी गोष्ट
(3) सर्वसाधारणपणे उपलब्ध होणारी गोष्ट
(4) सामान्य नियमांच्या चौकटीत न बसणारी गोष्ट

Why: अपवाद म्हणजे सर्वसाधारण नियमाला न लागू होणारी गोष्ट. उताऱ्यात पोपट हा अपवाद आहे, कारण बहुतेक पक्ष्यांना रंगद्रव्ये शरीरात तयार करता येत नाहीत, पण पोपटांना येतात.

97.‘निम्मे पोपट’! अधोरेखित शब्दाच्या विशेषणाचा प्रकार कोणता?

(1) अपूर्णांक वाचक गणना विशेषण
(2) आवृत्तिवाचक संख्याविशेषण
(3) गुणविशेषण
(4) सार्वनामिक विशेषण

Why: ‘निम्मे’ म्हणजे अर्धे (½). हे अपूर्णांक दाखवणारे संख्याविशेषण आहे, म्हणून ते अपूर्णांकवाचक गणना विशेषण आहे.

98.उताऱ्याप्रमाणे पोपट गटातील पक्ष्यांतील रंग तफावतीच्या संदर्भात कोणते विधान अचूक आहे?

(1) नर आणि मादी पोपटांच्या रंगात फार फरक असतो.
(2) वेगवेगळ्या जातींमध्ये आकार आणि रंग यांच्यात वैविध्य असते.
(3) पोपटांच्या सर्व जातींमध्ये रंगसंगती सारखीच असते.
(4) जे पोपट थव्यात राहतात त्यांचे रंग फार चित्ताकर्षक असतात.

Why: उतारा सांगतो की नर आणि मादी यांच्या रंगात फार फरक नसतो, पण वेगवेगळ्या जातींमध्ये आकार आणि रंग दोन्हीत खूप वैविध्य आहे.

99.उताऱ्यातून प्रमुख्याने कोणत्या बाबीवर चर्चा करण्यात आली आहे?

(1) पक्ष्यांची चित्ताकर्षक रंगसंगती
(2) पोपट आणि इतर पक्ष्यांची बुद्धिमत्ता
(3) पोपटांची पाळीव अवस्था
(4) पक्ष्यांचे रंग यामागील जैविक आणि वैज्ञानिक कारणांचे स्पष्टीकरण

Why: उतारा पक्ष्यांचे रंग कसे तयार होतात हे समजावतो: सूक्ष्म रचनांमुळे प्रकाशाचे परावर्तन आणि खाद्यातून मिळणारी रंगद्रव्ये. पोपटांची पाळीव अवस्था हा फक्त शेवटचा एक भाग आहे.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

100.‘उर’ या शब्दाचा समानार्थी शब्द निवडा.

(1) हृदय
(2) जत्रा
(3) शिल्लक
(4) आशा

Why: ‘उर’ म्हणजे छाती, हृदय. कवितेतील “उरी घ्यायचे” म्हणजे हृदयाशी धरणे.

101.कवीच्या मते आकाशाला केव्हा नैराश्य यायचे?

(1) मनासारखा अर्थ लाभल्यावर
(2) तारा निखळल्यावर
(3) सांजवेळ होताना
(4) पावसाळ्यात

Why: कवितेत म्हटले आहे की जरा एक तारा कुठेही निखळला तरी नभाला किती खिन्न वाटायचे.

102.पुढीलपैकी विशेषनाम कोणते?

(1) घर
(2) दिशा
(3) चंद्र
(4) ऋतू

Why: घर, दिशा आणि ऋतू ही अनेक वस्तूंना लागू होणारी सामान्यनामे आहेत. ‘चंद्र’ हा एकमेव, विशिष्ट खगोलीय पदार्थ दाखवतो, म्हणून तो विशेषनाम मानला जातो.

103.भोवती चंद्र नसताही कोणती गोष्ट कवीच्या अनुभवास येत असे?

(1) खिन्नता
(2) दिशाहीनता
(3) निरर्थकता
(4) शुभ्रता

Why: कवितेत आहे: “मनाभोवती चंद्र नव्हता तरीही मनाला किती शुभ्र वाटायचे”. मनातील काळोखातही काजवे चमकायचे, असा आशय आहे.

104.जुने झाड नव्याने केव्हा उगवायचे?

(1) ऋतूंना ऋतूंनी भागिल्यावर
(2) पाऊले दुःखू लागल्यावर
(3) मनात काळोख दाटल्यावर
(4) मनासारखे शब्द आल्यावर

Why: कवितेतील ओळ आहे: “ऋतुंना ऋतुंनी जरा भागिले की नव्याने जुने झाड उगवायचे”, म्हणजे ऋतू बदलले की जुने झाड पुन्हा नव्याने बहरायचे.

105.कवीच्या मते अबोलपणे व्यक्त होण्याचे विशेष कोणत्या घटकांचे?

(1) तारा-नभ
(2) ऋतू-झाड
(3) काळोख-काजवे
(4) नदी-सागराचे तट

Why: कवितेत म्हटले आहे की नदी-सागराचे किनारे कितीही मुक्याने किती वेळ बोलायचे. न बोलता व्यक्त होणे, म्हणजे अबोलपणे व्यक्त होणे, हे किनाऱ्यांचे वैशिष्ट्य आहे.

106.पुढीलपैकी कोणाचा संबंध भाषेतील अर्थाच्या पैलूशी आहे?

(1) स्वनविज्ञान (Phonetics)
(2) शब्दार्थ मीमांसा (Semantics)
(3) वाक्य विन्यास (Syntax)
(4) रूपविज्ञान (Morphology)

Why: अर्थाचा अभ्यास म्हणजे शब्दार्थ मीमांसा (Semantics). स्वनविज्ञान ध्वनींचा, वाक्य विन्यास वाक्यरचनेचा आणि रूपविज्ञान शब्दरचनेचा अभ्यास करते.

107.पुढीलपैकी कोणता सिद्धांत भाषा शिक्षण यासंबंधीचा नाही?

(1) भाषा शिक्षणात नैपुण्य आणि ज्ञान या दोहोंचा अंतर्भाव असतो.
(2) विद्यार्थ्यांच्या भाषा शिक्षण पद्धतीच्या आवडीत वैविध्य असू शकते.
(3) भाषा हे संभाषणाचे साधन असते.
(4) भाषा ही व्याकरणाचे नियम/रुप यांना पाठ करुन शिकली जाते.

Why: भाषा अर्थपूर्ण वापरातून शिकली जाते, व्याकरणाचे नियम पाठ करून नाही. इतर तीन विधाने भाषा शिक्षणाची मान्य तत्त्वे आहेत.

108.इयत्ता सहावीची शिक्षिका फळ्याच्या मध्यभागी एक शब्द लिहिते आणि विद्यार्थ्यांना त्या शब्दाशी संबंधित सर्व शब्दांवर विचार करण्यास सांगते.
या उपक्रमातील महत्त्वाचे उद्दिष्ट …

(1) लेखन कौशल्यात वाढ करणे
(2) विद्यार्थ्यांच्या शब्दसंग्रहात सुधारणा करणे
(3) व्याकरण समजावणे
(4) वाचन कौशल्यात वाढ करणे

Why: हा शब्दजाळे (word web) उपक्रम आहे. एका मध्यवर्ती शब्दाशी संबंधित अनेक शब्द सुचवल्याने शब्दसंग्रह वाढतो आणि सुसंघटित होतो.

109.खालील वाक्ये वाचा :
विधान (A) : सुरवातीच्या वर्षांत भाषा शिकण्यात उशीर झाल्यामुळे मुलांना नवीन भाषा आत्मसात करण्यात अडचण येते.
कारण (R) : भाषा आत्मसात करण्याच्या दृष्टीने मुलांची सुरुवातीची वर्षे ही अत्यंत महत्त्वाची असतात.
अचूक पर्याय निवडा.

(1) विधान A आणि कारण R दोन्ही बरोबर असून R हे A चे योग्य विश्लेषण आहे.
(2) विधान A आणि कारण R दोन्ही बरोबर आहेत मात्र R हे A चे अचूक विश्लेषण नाही.
(3) विधान A बरोबर नाही, कारण R बरोबर आहे.
(4) विधान A बरोबर आहे, कारण R बरोबर नाही.

Why: सुरुवातीच्या वर्षांत मुले भाषा विशेष सहजतेने आत्मसात करतात; हा संवेदनशील कालखंड आहे. तो चुकला की नंतर भाषा शिकणे कठीण जाते, म्हणून R हे A चे योग्य स्पष्टीकरण आहे.

110.आधारभूत पातळीसाठीच्या राष्ट्रीय अभ्यासक्रम आराखडा (2022) नुसार बहुभाषिकतेच्या संबंधीचा महत्त्वाचा सिद्धांत कोणता?

(1) वर्गातील बहुभाषिक स्वरुपामुळे अभ्यासक्रमाच्या देवाण-घेवाण प्रक्रियेत अडथळा निर्माण होतो.
(2) मुलांना सुरूवातीच्या वर्षांमध्ये एकापेक्षा अधिक मौखिकभाषा आत्मसात करता येत नाही.
(3) बहुभाषिकतेचे ज्ञानात्मक आणि समाज सांस्कृतिक दोन्ही प्रकारचे लाभ आहेत.
(4) मुलांना त्यांची घरगुती भाषा विसरुन जायला मदत करणे आणि शाळेचा भर मुलांनी शाळेची भाषा शिकावी यावर असला पाहिजे.

Why: NCF-FS 2022 बहुभाषिकतेला बलस्थान मानतो, ज्याचे ज्ञानात्मक आणि सामाजिक-सांस्कृतिक लाभ आहेत. त्यानुसार लहान मुले अनेक भाषा सहज शिकतात आणि घरची भाषा पाया म्हणून वापरायला हवी, विसरायला लावू नये.

111.काही भाषिक समूहांमध्ये भाषेची दोन वेगळी रूपे अस्तित्वात असून प्रत्येकाचे सामाजिक कार्य हे वैशिष्ट्यपूर्ण असते ही परिस्थिती म्हणजे

(1) कूट मिश्रण (Code mixing)
(2) प्रयुक्ती (Register)
(3) द्वैभाषिकता (Diglossia)
(4) बोली (Dialect)

Why: एखादा समाज एकाच भाषेची दोन रूपे वेगवेगळ्या सामाजिक कामांसाठी वापरतो (उदा. औपचारिक “उच्च” रूप आणि रोजचे “निम्न” रूप), त्याला द्वैभाषिकता (Diglossia) म्हणतात.

112.विद्यार्थी जोडीने काम करतात. एका मजकुराचे दोन भाग करण्यात येतात. आलटून पालटून एक मुलगा मजकूर वाचतो नि दुसरा लिहितो नंतर दोघेही एकत्रितपणे पूर्ण मजकूर तयार करतात. या उपक्रमाला काय म्हणतात?

(1) धावते श्रुतिलेखन (Running Dictation)
(2) शब्द जाळे (Word Web)
(3) अंशतःश्रुतिलेखन (Partial Dictation)
(4) कथाकथन (Story telling)

Why: प्रत्येकाकडे मजकुराचा फक्त एक भाग असतो आणि ते एकमेकांना सांगून लिहून घेत पूर्ण मजकूर तयार करतात. हे अंशतः श्रुतिलेखन आहे. धावत्या श्रुतिलेखनात मुलगा लांब लावलेल्या मजकुराकडे धावत जाऊन तो लक्षात ठेवून सांगतो.

113.‘भाषा वर्गात साहित्यिक मजकूर अभ्यासणे’ या संदर्भात पुढीलपैकी कोणते विधान योग्य नाही?

(1) साहित्यिक मजकूर व्याकरण शिकविण्यासाठी वापरावा.
(2) भाषा शिकण्यासाठी साहित्यिक मजकूर म्हणजे सांस्कृतिक आदान (inputs) असते.
(3) साहित्यिक मजकुरामुळे समीक्षात्मक चिंतन आणि प्रतिसाद वाढीस लागतो.
(4) साहित्यिक मजकूर म्हणजे रसग्रहण आणि आनंद.

Why: साहित्य आनंद, रसग्रहण, सांस्कृतिक समज आणि चिंतन यांसाठी शिकवले जाते. कविता किंवा कथा मुख्यतः व्याकरणाच्या सरावासाठी वापरणे हा त्याचा हेतू नाही.

114.इयत्ता सहावीचा विद्यार्थी, नवीन हा मजकूर वाचताना अडखळतो. शिक्षिका त्याला सोपा मजकूर वाचायला देते. ती त्याच्यासाठी सहवाचनाचे सत्र देखील घेते, शिक्षिकेकडून त्याला मिळणारी वागणूक म्हणजे

(1) वाचन तयारी (Reading readiness)
(2) परातीकरण (Scaffolding)
(3) बुद्धिमंथन (Brainstorming)
(4) काहीतरी बोलणे/करणे (ice-breaking)

Why: विद्यार्थ्याच्या पातळीनुसार दिलेला तात्पुरता आधार, जसे सोपा मजकूर आणि सहवाचन, आणि प्रगतीबरोबर हळूहळू कमी केला जाणारा, याला परातीकरण (Scaffolding) म्हणतात.

115.भाषा अध्ययन अध्यापनाच्या संदर्भात पुढीलपैकी कोणती बाब असे मानते की ‘भाषा ही एक सवय’ आहे?

(1) श्रव्यभाषिकता (Audiolingualism)
(2) संभाषणात्मक भाषा शिक्षण (Communicative language teaching)
(3) नैसर्गिक पद्धती (Natural Approach)
(4) सहभागी भाषा अध्ययन (Cooperative Language learning)

Why: श्रव्यभाषिक पद्धत (Audiolingualism) वर्तनवादावर आधारित आहे. ती भाषेला सराव, पुनरावृत्ती आणि पुनर्बलनातून बनलेल्या सवयींचा संच मानते.

116.एका विद्यार्थ्याला एक अपठित उतारा वाचून त्यावरील प्रश्नांची उत्तरे द्यायची आहेत. या प्रकारचे वाचन म्हणजे

(1) न्याहाळणे (Scanning)
(2) अनन्य वाचन (Exclusive reading)
(3) चाळणे (Skimming)
(4) विस्तृत वाचन (Extensive Reading)

Why: प्रश्नांची उत्तरे देण्यासाठी छोटा अपठित उतारा बारकाईने वाचणे हे सखोल वाचन आहे, आणि मराठी उत्तरसूची ‘न्याहाळणे’ (बारकाईने पाहणे) हा पर्याय बरोबर मानते. कंसातील ‘Scanning’ ही संज्ञा मात्र विशिष्ट माहिती पटकन शोधण्यासाठी वापरली जाते. इंग्रजी प्रश्नपत्रिकेत याच प्रश्नाचे उत्तर पर्याय 2 मानले आहे.

117.शिक्षिका विद्यार्थ्यांना पाच चित्र दाखवते आणि त्यांना त्या आधारे एक गोष्ट लिहिण्यास सांगते. हे कशाचे उदाहरण आहे?

(1) दाखवणे आणि सांगणे (Show and tell)
(2) जिगसॉ श्रुतिलेखन (Jigsaw Dictation)
(3) सह वाचन (Shared reading)
(4) सर्जनशील लेखन (Creative writing)

Why: चित्रांच्या क्रमावरून स्वतःची गोष्ट रचणे हे सर्जनशील लेखन आहे. ‘दाखवणे आणि सांगणे’ हा तोंडी उपक्रम आहे, आणि बाकीचे दोन वाचन व श्रुतिलेखनाचे उपक्रम आहेत.

118.भाषेत कामगिरी आधारित मुल्यमापनाचे महत्त्वाचे वैशिष्ट्य कोणते?

(1) बहुपर्यायी प्रश्न (Multiple choice questions)
(2) चर्चारहित सादरीकरण (Non interactive performance)
(3) संदर्भरहित चाचणी सामग्री (Decontexualized test items)
(4) ससंदर्भ संभाषणात्मक नियुक्त कार्य (Contexualized communication tasks)

Why: कामगिरी आधारित मूल्यमापनात विद्यार्थी प्रत्यक्ष संदर्भात भाषा वापरतात, जसे भूमिका-अभिनय, सादरीकरण किंवा पत्रलेखन. इतर पर्याय पारंपरिक वस्तुनिष्ठ चाचणीची वैशिष्ट्ये आहेत.

119.खालील वाक्ये वाचा :
(A) : वाचन म्हणजे फक्त वर्ण-ध्वनि यांचा संबंध समजणे आणि शब्द अचूक उच्चारणे
(B) : वाचन म्हणजे-अर्थ लावण्यासाठी चिन्हांचा (Symbols) उलगडा करणे
अचूक पर्याय निवडा.

(1) A आणि B दोन्ही बरोबर आहेत
(2) A बरोबर आहे मात्र B चूक आहे
(3) B बरोबर आहे मात्र A चूक आहे
(4) A आणि B दोन्ही चूक आहेत

Why: वाचन म्हणजे लिखित चिन्हांतून अर्थ समजून घेणे. वर्ण-ध्वनी संबंध समजणे ही फक्त पहिली पायरी आहे, म्हणून A मधील ‘फक्त’ हा शब्द ते विधान चूक ठरवतो, तर B बरोबर आहे.

120.शिक्षिकेला तिच्या विद्यार्थांच्या श्रवण कौशल्याचे मूल्यमापन करायचे आहे. पुढीलपैकी कोणत्या उपक्रमाचा तिला ‘श्रवण मूल्यमापन’ म्हणून वापर करता येईल?

(1) मौखिक सादरणीकरणाच्या आधारे विद्यार्थ्यांची वर्गवारी लावणे.
(2) शिक्षिका एक गोष्ट सांगते आणि नंतर आकलन आधारित प्रश्न विचारते.
(3) शिक्षिका विद्यार्थ्यांना एक गोष्ट वाचण्यास सांगते आणि नंतर आकलन आधारित प्रश्न विचारते.
(4) शिक्षिका शब्दसंग्रह आधारित नियुक्त कार्य देते.

Why: विद्यार्थी गोष्ट ऐकतात आणि नंतर प्रश्नांची उत्तरे देऊन काय समजले ते दाखवतात, म्हणून येथे श्रवणाचे मूल्यमापन होते. मौखिक सादरीकरण बोलण्याचे, गोष्ट वाचणे वाचनाचे आणि शब्दसंग्रह कार्य शब्दज्ञानाचे मूल्यमापन करते.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

121.हम ईर्ष्या किससे करते हैं?

(1) जिन्हें लोग हमारे साथ खेलता देखते हैं
(2) जिन्हें लोग हमारे साथ पढ़ता देखते हैं
(3) जिन पर लोगों की हमारे साथ दृष्टि पड़ती है
(4) जिन्हें लोग हमारे साथ नौकरी करते देखते हैं

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार ईर्ष्या उन्हीं से होती है जिनके बारे में यह धारणा होती है कि लोगों की दृष्टि हमारे साथ-साथ उन पर भी अवश्य पड़ती होगी। खेलना, पढ़ना या नौकरी करना इसके केवल उदाहरण हो सकते हैं, मूल कारण नहीं।

122._____ के बीच ईर्ष्या नहीं फूलती-फलती।

(1) सहपाठियों
(2) पड़ोसियों
(3) दूर रहने वालों
(4) रिश्तेदारों

Why: अपने से दूरस्थ लोगों पर लोगों का ध्यान हमारे साथ-साथ नहीं जाता, इसलिए उनके प्रति ईर्ष्या नहीं होती। काशी के धनी को अमेरिका के धनी से ईर्ष्या नहीं होती। इसके विपरीत, सम्बन्धियों, सहपाठियों और पड़ोसियों के बीच ईर्ष्या अधिक देखी जाती है।

123.किसी परिचित के प्रतिष्ठित हो जाने से

(1) उसके विकास को रोकने का मन करता है
(2) हमें कोई फर्क नहीं पड़ता है
(3) हम उसे पहले से अधिक इज्जत देते हैं
(4) ईर्ष्या और द्वेष की नींव पड़ती है

Why: गद्यांश कहता है कि जब हम किसी को संसर्ग-सूत्र में बाँधकर अपने साथ एक पंक्ति में खड़ा करते हैं, तब सहानुभूति के साथ-साथ ईर्ष्या और द्वेष की सम्भावना की नींव भी पड़ जाती है। परिचित के आगे बढ़ने पर यही नींव ईर्ष्या बनकर सामने आती है।

124.ईर्ष्या पैदा करने के लिए आवश्यक नहीं है

(1) ईर्ष्या करने वाला
(2) किसी का ऐश्वर्य
(3) ईर्ष्या का पात्र
(4) स्थिति पर ध्यान देने वाला समाज

Why: गद्यांश के अंत में ईर्ष्या के संचार के लिए तीन चीज़ें आवश्यक बताई गई हैं: ईर्ष्या करने वाला, ईर्ष्या का पात्र, और स्थिति पर ध्यान देने वाला समाज। ऐश्वर्य उनमें नहीं है, क्योंकि ईर्ष्या गुण या मन की सम्पन्नता से भी हो सकती है।

125.‘सूत्रपात करना’ का आशय है

(1) बहुत प्रयत्न करना
(2) कुछ न करना
(3) प्रारम्भ करना
(4) समाप्त करना

Why: ‘सूत्रपात’ का अर्थ है किसी काम की शुरुआत या नींव डालना। इसलिए ‘सूत्रपात करना’ का अर्थ है प्रारम्भ करना।

126.लड़कपन के साथी की बढ़ती से कोई

(1) जलता है
(2) खुश होता है
(3) द्वेष करता है
(4) सुखी होता है

Why: गद्यांश कहता है कि लड़कपन से जो लोग एक साथ उठते-बैठते देखे गए हैं, उन्हीं में से कोई एक-दूसरे की बढ़ती से जलता हुआ भी पाया गया है। उत्तर वही शब्द है जो गद्यांश में आया है।

127.‘पड़ोसियों’ पड़ोसी संज्ञा का _____ रूप है।

(1) सामान्य एकवचन
(2) सामान्य बहुवचन
(3) तिर्यक बहुवचन
(4) तिर्यक एकवचन

Why: परसर्ग (जैसे ‘के बीच’, ‘को’) लगने पर संज्ञा का जो रूप बदलता है, वह तिर्यक (विकारी) रूप है। ‘पड़ोसी’ का सामान्य बहुवचन भी ‘पड़ोसी’ है, जबकि ‘पड़ोसियों’ तिर्यक बहुवचन है।

128.उन्नति के गुप्त बाधक को खोजने पर हमें क्या पता चलता है?

(1) वह सहपाठी था
(2) वह बालसखा था
(3) वह पड़ोसी था
(4) वह पुराना मित्र था

Why: गद्यांश कहता है कि अपनी उन्नति के गुप्त बाधकों का पता लगाते-लगाते लोग प्रायः अपने किसी बड़े पुराने मित्र तक पहुँच जाते हैं।

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

129.मनुष्य का दुःख बढ़ने का कारण है

(1) लोग मुझे कुछ नहीं समझते
(2) मैं जैसा हूँ उससे कम समझा जाता हूँ
(3) मैं जैसा हूँ वैसा ही समझा जाता हूँ
(4) मैं समझा ही नहीं जाता हूँ

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार “मैं क्षुद्र हूँ” के साथ “मैं क्षुद्र समझा जाता हूँ” की धारणा जुड़ने से दुःख के अनुभव में वृद्धि होती है। यानी दूसरों की दृष्टि में छोटा समझा जाना दुःख बढ़ाता है।

130.मनुष्य के लिए आनंददायक है

(1) मैं जैसा हूँ उससे बहुत अधिक बड़ा समझा जाता हूँ
(2) मैं जैसा हूँ उससे निम्न समझा जाता हूँ
(3) मैं जैसा हूँ वैसा ही जाना जाता हूँ
(4) मैं जैसा हूँ उससे बड़ा समझा जाता हूँ

Why: गद्यांश कहता है कि “मैं बड़ा समझा जाता हूँ” का निश्चय जुड़ने से मनुष्य के आनंद या सुख में वृद्धि होती है। विकल्प 1 का “बहुत अधिक” गद्यांश में नहीं है।

131.ईर्ष्या पर _____ का एकाधिकार है।

(1) प्राणी जगत्
(2) जानवरों
(3) मानव जाति
(4) न प्राणी जगत् का न मानव जगत् का

Why: गद्यांश स्पष्ट कहता है कि ईर्ष्या का अनन्य अधिकार मनुष्य जाति पर ही है। कुत्ते का उदाहरण यह दिखाता है कि पशु को दूसरों की दृष्टि में अपनी स्थिति की चिंता नहीं होती।

132.‘मानव की स्थिति दोहरी हो गई है’ का आशय है

(1) जैसा हूँ वैसा नहीं समझा जाता
(2) जैसा हूँ वैसा ही समझा जाता हूँ
(3) न समझता हूँ, न समझना चाहता हूँ
(4) कोई कुछ भी समझे मुझे फर्क नहीं पड़ता

Why: समाज में आने पर मनुष्य की स्थिति के दो विभाग हो जाते हैं: वह जैसा है, और वह जैसा समझा जाता है। ये दोनों अलग-अलग हो सकते हैं, यानी वह जैसा है वैसा ही नहीं समझा जाता। यही दोहरी स्थिति है।

133.‘ईर्ष्या ऐसे लोगों के हृदय में जगह पाती है’, का आशय है

(1) ऐसे लोग ही ईर्ष्या करते हैं
(2) ऐसे लोगों के हृदय में ईर्ष्या छिपी रहती है
(3) ऐसे लोगों का हृदय ईर्ष्या से भर जाता है
(4) ऐसे लोगों के हृदय में ईर्ष्या का घर होता है

Why: गद्यांश में कहा गया है कि ईर्ष्या ऐसे लोगों के हृदय में “बहुत जगह पाती है”, यानी उनका हृदय ईर्ष्या से भर जाता है। विकल्प 1 का “ऐसे लोग ही” बहुत अधिक कह देता है।

134.सही कथन चुनिए :

(1) ईर्ष्या का बहुवचन रूप है ईर्ष्ये।
(2) ईर्ष्या का बहुवचन रूप है इर्ष्याएँ।
(3) ईर्ष्या का बहुवचन रूप है ईर्ष्यायों।
(4) ईर्ष्या का बहुवचन रूप नहीं होता।

Why: ‘ईर्ष्या’ भाववाचक संज्ञा है, और भाववाचक संज्ञाएँ सामान्यतः एकवचन में ही प्रयुक्त होती हैं। इसलिए इसका बहुवचन रूप नहीं माना जाता।

135.“दृष्टि रखकर प्रयत्न करते हैं” में ‘रखकर’ _____ है।

(1) क्रिया
(2) वर्तमानकालिक कृदंत
(3) भूतकालिक कृदंत
(4) संयोजक

Why: [KEY] व्याकरण की दृष्टि से ‘रखकर’ पूर्वकालिक कृदंत है: धातु + ‘कर’, जो मुख्य क्रिया से पहले पूरी हुई क्रिया बताता है। यह नाम किसी विकल्प में नहीं है। आधिकारिक कुंजी भूतकालिक कृदंत को सही मानती है, संभवतः इसलिए कि यह क्रिया मुख्य क्रिया से पहले पूरी हो चुकी होती है।

136.एक शिक्षार्थी बिना मदद के क्या कर सकता है और किसी वयस्क या अधिक समर्थ सहपाठी के सहयोग से क्या कर सकता है, इन दोनों के बीच की स्थिति को क्या कहेंगे?

(1) परिपक्वता का स्तर
(2) निकटस्थ विकास का क्षेत्र
(3) उपलब्धि का क्षेत्र
(4) दूरस्थ अधिगम

Why: वाइगोत्स्की ने इस अंतर को निकटस्थ विकास का क्षेत्र (ZPD) कहा। इसी क्षेत्र में उचित सहायता (स्कैफोल्डिंग) के साथ सिखाना सबसे प्रभावी होता है।

137.प्रमस्तिष्क में क्षति के कारण भाषा के कार्य में विकार जिससे भाषिक स्वरूपों व नियमों को समझने और उत्पन्न करने में कठिनाई हो, उसे क्या कहेंगे?

(1) वाचाघात (अफ़ेज़िया)
(2) पठन वैकल्य (डिस्लेक्सिया)
(3) गणन वैकल्य (डिस्कैलकुलिया)
(4) उच्चारण वैकल्य (डिसरथिया)

Why: मस्तिष्क के किसी भाग में क्षति (जैसे स्ट्रोक) से होने वाला भाषा-विकार वाचाघात (अफ़ेज़िया) है। डिसरथिया बोलने की मांसपेशियों का विकार है, और डिस्लेक्सिया व डिस्कैलकुलिया अधिगम कठिनाइयाँ हैं।

138.उस प्रक्रिया का नाम बताइए जिसके द्वारा भाषा एक पीढ़ी से दूसरी पीढ़ी को स्थानांतरित होती है।

(1) सांस्कृतिक प्रसारण
(2) उत्पादकता
(3) यादृच्छिकता
(4) विस्थापन

Why: भाषा जन्म से नहीं मिलती, बल्कि समाज से सीखी जाती है और पीढ़ी-दर-पीढ़ी आगे बढ़ती है। भाषा की इस विशेषता को सांस्कृतिक प्रसारण कहते हैं। बाकी विकल्प भाषा की अन्य विशेषताएँ हैं।

139.12–18 माह की आयु के बच्चे पहचाने जाने योग्य एक इकाईवाली ध्वनियाँ निकालना शुरू कर देते हैं, यह अवधि जिसके अंतर्गत प्रतिदिन की वस्तुओं के लिए एक ही पदावली बोली जाती है, क्या कहलाती है?

(1) कूजन (कूइंग)
(2) संक्षिप्त वाक् (टेलिग्राफ़िक)
(3) एक-शब्दीय वाक्य अवस्था
(4) बबलाना

Why: एक-शब्दीय वाक्य अवस्था (होलोफ़्रेस्टिक) में एक शब्द पूरे वाक्य का अर्थ देता है: “दूध” का अर्थ हो सकता है “मुझे दूध चाहिए”। कूजन और बबलाना इससे पहले आते हैं, और संक्षिप्त वाक् इसके बाद।

140.पठन और लेखन कौशलों पर नीचे दिए गए कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
A : पठन की समझ और योग्यता लेखन की योग्यता को प्रभावित करती है।
B : पठन और लेखन दोनों पृथक् प्रक्रियाएँ हैं और एक-दूसरे से स्वतंत्र होकर विकसित होती हैं।
सही विकल्प चुनिए।

(1) A और B दोनों सही हैं
(2) A सही है लेकिन B गलत है
(3) A और B दोनों गलत हैं
(4) A गलत है लेकिन B सही है

Why: पठन और लेखन साथ-साथ विकसित होते हैं और एक-दूसरे को मज़बूत करते हैं। अच्छा पाठक जो शब्द, वाक्य-रचना और शैली पढ़ता है, वही लेखन में काम आती है। इसलिए A सही और B गलत है।

141.सभी भाषाओं में कुछ सर्वसामान्य गुणधर्म होते हैं, इन्हें क्या कहा जाता है?

(1) द्विभाषारूपिता (डिग्लोसिया)
(2) भाषा सार्वभौमिक
(3) प्रयुक्ति
(4) बोलियाँ

Why: वे विशेषताएँ जो हर मानव भाषा में पाई जाती हैं, जैसे संज्ञा-क्रिया का होना या प्रश्न पूछने के तरीके, भाषा सार्वभौमिक (language universals) कहलाती हैं।

142.किसी भी कक्षा में भाषिक विविधता की स्वीकार्यता

(1) भाषा प्रवाह को प्राप्त करने में अवरोध पैदा करेगी
(2) बच्चों के आत्मविश्वास को क्षति पहुँचाएगी जिससे कल्पनाशीलता और रचनात्मकता में क्षति आएगी
(3) भाषा अधिगम में किसी प्रकार का प्रभाव नहीं पड़ेगा
(4) बच्चों के आत्मविश्वास में वृद्धि होगी परिणामस्वरूप उनकी कल्पनाशीलता और रचनात्मकता में वृद्धि होगी

Why: जब कक्षा में बच्चों की घर की भाषा को स्वीकार किया जाता है, तो वे सम्मानित महसूस करते हैं और खुलकर बोलते हैं। इससे उनका आत्मविश्वास, कल्पनाशीलता और रचनात्मकता बढ़ती है।

143.उद्गामी साक्षरता के संदर्भ में मुद्रित सामग्री के प्रति जागरूकता की कौन-सी विशेषता नहीं है?

(1) पुस्तक पकड़ना
(2) अक्षरों और शब्दों के मध्य अंतर की पहचान कर पाना
(3) बाएँ से दाएँ और ऊपर से नीचे की ओर पढ़ पाना
(4) पूरे-पूरे वाक्य पढ़ना आरंभ करना

Why: मुद्रित सामग्री के प्रति जागरूकता का अर्थ है यह समझना कि छपाई कैसे काम करती है: पुस्तक सही पकड़ना, अक्षर और शब्द का अंतर पहचानना, और पढ़ने की दिशा जानना। पूरे वाक्य पढ़ना वास्तविक पठन है, जो बाद का चरण है।

144.नीचे बुनियादी चरण के संदर्भ में पठन कौशल के अधिगम प्रतिफल दिए गए हैं, उन्हें अनुक्रम में व्यवस्थित करें।
A. संक्षिप्त खंड उपयुक्त तान-अनुतान, विराम, ध्वनि में उतार-चढ़ाव के साथ सटीकता और प्रवाह के साथ पढ़ते हैं।
B. परिचित शब्दों के कुछ वाक्यों को सटीकता के साथ पढ़ते हैं।
C. संक्षिप्त खंड उपयुक्त तान-अनुतान और विराम के साथ सटीकता से पढ़ते हैं।
सही विकल्प चुनिए।

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, C, A
(3) A, C, B
(4) C, A, B

Why: पठन पहले परिचित शब्दों के कुछ वाक्यों से शुरू होता है (B), फिर तान-अनुतान और विराम के साथ संक्षिप्त खंड पढ़ना आता है (C), और अंत में प्रवाह व ध्वनि के उतार-चढ़ाव के साथ पढ़ना (A)। हर चरण पिछले पर आधारित है।

145.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा विस्तृत (एक्स्टेन्सिव) श्रवण का भाग नहीं है?

(1) सारांश के लिए श्रवण
(2) मुख्य विचार बिन्दु के लिए श्रवण
(3) निष्कर्ष निकालना
(4) कुछ तथ्यों व सूचनाओं के लिए श्रवण

Why: विस्तृत श्रवण में लंबी सामग्री को समग्र समझ के लिए सुना जाता है: सारांश, मुख्य विचार और निष्कर्ष। विशिष्ट तथ्यों या सूचनाओं के लिए सुनना गहन (चयनात्मक) श्रवण है।

146.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कार्य पठन कौशल के आकलन हेतु प्रयोग में नहीं लाया जा सकता?

(1) सस्वर पठन
(2) पढ़ी गई पाठ्य सामग्री के आधार पर बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न
(3) चित्र के माध्यम से संकेत आधारित शब्द सूचना
(4) अध्यापक द्वारा कथा वाचन

Why: जब अध्यापक कहानी सुनाता है, तो बच्चे सुन रहे होते हैं, पढ़ नहीं रहे। इसलिए इससे पठन का आकलन नहीं हो सकता। बाकी तीनों कार्यों में विद्यार्थियों को स्वयं पढ़ना पड़ता है।

147.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन जारी रहने वाले श्रुतलेख (रनिंग डिक्टेशन) को सही रूप में परिभाषित करता है?

(1) विद्यार्थी पाठ्य सामग्री के विभिन्न अंशों को पढ़ते हैं, तत्पश्चात् कार्य को पूरा करने के लिए एक-दूसरे के साथ सूचनाओं का आदान-प्रदान करते हैं।
(2) बच्चे दो-दो के समूह में कार्य करते हैं। पाठ्य सामग्री को दो अंशों में विभाजित किया जाता है। एक बालक अपने जोड़ीदार के लिए अपना अंश पढ़ता है, दूसरा बालक उसे लिखता है। समूची पाठ्य सामग्री के लिए दोनों मिलकर कार्य करते हैं।
(3) बच्चे दो-दो के जोड़ों में कार्य करते हैं। एक बालक दौड़कर पाठ्य सामग्री देखता है और अपने जोड़ीदार को श्रुतलेख बोलता है, जोड़ीदार उस सामग्री को लिखता है।
(4) अध्यापक समूची कक्षा को शब्दों/पाठ्यसामग्री का श्रुतलेख बोलता है, विद्यार्थी उसे नोट करते हैं।

Why: रनिंग डिक्टेशन में पाठ दूर लगाया जाता है। एक बच्चा दौड़कर उसे देखता है, एक अंश याद करता है और लौटकर जोड़ीदार को लिखवाता है। विकल्प 1 जिगसॉ गतिविधि है, विकल्प 2 आंशिक श्रुतलेख, और विकल्प 4 सामान्य श्रुतलेख।

148.“बालक भाषा अर्जन की सहजात क्षमता के साथ जन्म लेते हैं।” भाषा अर्जन के इस विचार बिन्दु को किसके द्वारा समर्थन दिया गया है?

(1) प्राकृतवादी (नेटीविस्ट)
(2) संज्ञानात्मक वादी
(3) सामाजिक अन्तःक्रियावादी
(4) व्यवहारवादी

Why: चॉम्स्की से जुड़ा प्राकृतवादी (नेटीविस्ट) मत मानता है कि बच्चे भाषा सीखने की जन्मजात क्षमता (भाषा अर्जन उपकरण, LAD) के साथ पैदा होते हैं। व्यवहारवादी भाषा को अनुकरण और पुनर्बलन से सीखी गई मानते हैं।

149.प्रक्रिया लेखन उपागम में लेखन प्रक्रिया का वह तत्त्व क्या कहलाएगा जिसके अंतर्गत लेखक औपचारिक रूप से अपने कार्य को बृहत्तर स्तर पर पाठकों के साथ साझा करते हैं?

(1) प्रारूप तैयार करना
(2) प्रकाशन
(3) संपादन
(4) पुनरावृत्ति

Why: प्रक्रिया लेखन प्रारूप, पुनरावृत्ति और संपादन से होते हुए प्रकाशन तक पहुँचता है। प्रकाशन अंतिम चरण है, जिसमें तैयार रचना पाठकों के साथ साझा की जाती है।

150.किसी पाठ्य सामग्री में आए कठिन शब्दों के संदर्भ में एक अध्यापक उस शब्द को मातृभाषा में बताता है और फिर विद्यार्थियों को याद करने के लिए कहता है। अध्यापक किस विधि का प्रयोग कर रहा है?

(1) व्याकरण अनुवाद विधि
(2) प्रत्यक्ष विधि (डायरेक्ट)
(3) संरचनात्मक उपागम
(4) सम्प्रेषणात्मक उपागम

Why: शब्दों का मातृभाषा में अनुवाद करके उन्हें याद करवाना व्याकरण अनुवाद विधि है। प्रत्यक्ष विधि में मातृभाषा का प्रयोग नहीं किया जाता।

CTET February 2026 — Paper II (Maths and Science)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper II (Maths and Science)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part II — Mathematics and Science

Part IV — Language I — Marathi

Part V — Language II — Hindi

Answer Key

CTET February 2026 — Paper II (Maths and Science)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026Paper II (Maths and Science)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part II — Mathematics and Science

Part IV — Language I — Marathi

Part V — Language II — Hindi

Answer Key

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper II (Maths and Science)