MAK LABS — CTET 7 February 2026 Paper II (Social Studies) Question Paper with Answer Key

1.Which debate is highlighted in the following question?
“Does an individual’s biologically determined sex bring with it all the characteristics that define one’s socially constructed gender?”

(1) Nature-Nurture influences on development
(2) Continuous-Discontinuous view of development
(3) Stable-Unstable view of development
(4) Entity-Incremental view of ability

Why: Biological sex is given by nature, while gender is shaped by society, which is nurture. Asking whether the first brings the second with it is the nature–nurture question. The other debates are about the shape of development over time or about whether ability is fixed.

2.A major developmental task during _____ is the search for identity—personal, sexual and occupational.

(1) middle childhood
(2) early childhood
(3) adolescence
(4) middle adulthood

Why: Erikson placed “identity versus role confusion” in adolescence. This is when young people work out who they are, how they relate to others and what work they want to do.

3.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): Children learn values and norms of the society in overt as well as covert ways.
Reason (R): Socialization is the simple process of passing on customs and rituals of the society.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A is true: children pick up values through direct teaching and also through the hidden curriculum of observation and example. R is false: socialization is a complex, two-way process in which children actively interpret what they see, not a simple handing-down of customs and rituals.

4.As per Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, which of the following abilities distinguishes formal operational thinking from concrete operational thinking?

(1) Abstract logic
(2) Conservation
(3) Object permanence
(4) Symbolic play

Why: Concrete operational children reason logically only about real, concrete objects. The formal operational stage adds abstract and hypothetical reasoning. Conservation belongs to the concrete stage, object permanence to the sensorimotor stage and symbolic play to the preoperational stage.

5.A significant critique of Jean Piaget is that he failed to adequately consider the influence of _____ on development.

(1) maturation
(2) culture
(3) experience
(4) activity

Why: Piaget saw development as a universal sequence driven by the child’s own activity and maturation. Critics, Vygotsky above all, pointed out that he paid too little attention to the social and cultural setting in which children grow up.

6.Which of the following is a correctly matched pair?

(1) Punishment and Obedience orientation—Avoidance of bad consequences
(2) Good boy-Good girl orientation—Greatest good for greater numbers
(3) Law and Order orientation—Upholding principles of social justice for humanity
(4) Social Contract orientation—Consideration of perception of others

Why: In Kohlberg’s first stage the child judges an act by whether it leads to punishment, so avoiding bad consequences is the right match. “Greatest good for the greatest number” fits the social contract stage, universal principles of justice fit stage 6, and concern for how others see you fits the good boy–good girl stage.

7.Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky are similar in their belief that

(1) children are involved in the process of meaning making.
(2) language influences and determines thought.
(3) culture has a profound effect on the learning.
(4) development of children takes place in stage-like progression.

Why: Both were constructivists: each saw the child as an active builder of meaning. The role of language in shaping thought and the strong effect of culture are Vygotsky’s ideas, while fixed stages belong to Piaget alone.

8.Lev Vygotsky proposed that

(1) children are born ‘unruly’ and society needs to teach them social behaviours.
(2) children’s thinking is ‘quantitatively’ different from adults.
(3) children’s thinking is ‘qualitatively’ different from adults.
(4) children have a lot of potential which includes tasks they can do with the others’ support.

Why: This describes the Zone of Proximal Development: the range of tasks a child cannot yet do alone but can manage with help from an adult or a more capable peer. The claim that children think qualitatively differently from adults is Piaget’s.

9.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): The purpose of administering intelligence tests and extended observation should be to compare children in specific domains and abilities.
Reason (R): Intelligence is an innate ability and cannot be nurtured.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A is false: tests and observation are meant to understand each child’s strengths and needs so that teaching can support them, not to rank children against one another. R is false too: intelligence has a hereditary base but grows with a rich environment and good teaching.

10.A teacher who consciously takes examples of scientists of all genders in her middle school classroom is trying to—

(1) break gender stereotypes.
(2) reinforce gender discrimination.
(3) enable gender identity.
(4) construct gender constancy.

Why: Showing scientists of every gender challenges the stereotype that science is a male field. Gender constancy is a young child’s understanding that gender does not change, which a middle school lesson is not trying to build.

11.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): All girls are hardworking and sincere while boys are intelligent and dominating.
Reason (R): Two distinctive biological brains produce all differences in physical and cognitive skills as well as personalities and temperament in girls and boys.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A is a gender stereotype: qualities such as hard work or intelligence are not fixed by sex. R is false as well: there are no two separate “male” and “female” brains that produce every difference. Most differences are shaped by upbringing and social expectations.

12.Individual differences in learning preferences of students should be seen as—

(1) abnormal parameter of their differing IQ levels.
(2) cognitive abnormality among some children.
(3) developmental deficits among some children.
(4) normal depiction of diversity.

Why: Children differ in how they prefer to learn, and this is a normal part of human diversity. It is not a sign of abnormality or deficit, and a teacher should plan varied activities to suit it.

13.The kind of assessment in which a student’s scores are compared with the average performance of other students is called

(1) criteria-referenced.
(2) format-referenced.
(3) norm-referenced.
(4) self-referenced.

Why: Norm-referenced assessment places a student against the performance of a group, the norm. Criterion-referenced assessment compares the student with a fixed standard, and self-referenced assessment compares the student with his or her own earlier work.

14.Which of the following statements about classroom assessment are correct?
(i) Assessments should influence the students’ cognitive processes while they study.
(ii) Assessments should serve as learning experiences in themselves.
(iii) Assessments should create fear and stress among students to get them to learn.
(iv) Assessments should be standardized and norm-referenced.
Choose the correct option.

(1) (i), (iii)
(2) (i), (ii)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Why: Good classroom assessment shapes how students think while they learn and is itself a learning experience, so (i) and (ii) are correct. Fear and stress block learning, and classroom assessment is meant to be flexible and formative, not standardized and norm-referenced.

15.Which of the following questions would promote higher-order critical and analytical thinking skills among the students?

(1) Identify the assumptions underlying two newspaper articles depicting the same event.
(2) Identify the nouns mentioned in a specific newspaper article.
(3) Read the newspaper articles and make a list of new words.
(4) Read the newspaper article and think of a suitable title.

Why: Comparing two reports of one event and uncovering what each assumes calls for analysis and evaluation, the top levels of Bloom’s taxonomy. Picking out nouns or new words is recall, and suggesting a title needs only comprehension.

16.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): Students with poor writing abilities are often stereotyped by their teachers as ‘intellectually disabled’.
Reason (R): Teachers tend to have implicit bias and hold assumptions about students’ learning behaviours that can affect students’ growth.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A describes a real and harmful labelling: weak writing is often taken as a sign of low intelligence, though it may come from dysgraphia or lack of practice. R explains why: unexamined bias leads teachers to draw such conclusions, and those low expectations can hold the student back.

17.Which of the following is not a way to promote diversity in the classroom?

(1) Incorporating a variety of perspectives and experiences in the curriculum
(2) Encouraging students to express their unique identities and cultures
(3) Adapting behaviour based on stereotyping students according to their backgrounds and cultures
(4) Providing opportunities for students to interact with individuals from different backgrounds and cultures

Why: Treating students according to stereotypes about their background is discrimination, and it works against diversity. The other three options value and include different perspectives.

18.Which of the following is the correct match of learning disability and challenge caused by it?

(1) Dyscalculia—Impacts ability to read and language processing skills
(2) Dysgraphia—Impacts fine motor skills and spelling
(3) Dyslexia—Impacts ability to learn numbers and arithmetic operations
(4) Dyspraxia—Impacts ability to see, hear and talk properly

Why: Dysgraphia is a writing difficulty, affecting handwriting, the fine motor control behind it, and spelling. Dyscalculia affects numbers and arithmetic, dyslexia affects reading, and dyspraxia affects the planning and coordination of movement.

19.Students struggling with ‘autism’ show ease at

(1) communication with strangers.
(2) eye contact during conversation.
(3) familiar and predictable routines.
(4) rapid transitions between activities.

Why: Children on the autism spectrum usually feel secure with fixed, predictable routines. Talking with strangers, keeping eye contact and switching quickly between activities are typically hard for them.

20.Which of the following statements is not correct about gifted children?

(1) Children can be gifted at different levels and some can have some kind of disability also.
(2) Children can be gifted in more than one kind of intelligence.
(3) Gifted children are born with extraordinary abilities and potential that need to be nurtured.
(4) Gifted children have lower sense of curiosity and poor imagination skills.

Why: Gifted children are usually marked by strong curiosity and a rich imagination, so option 4 is false. A child can be gifted and also have a disability (twice-exceptional), and can be gifted in several areas at once.

21.Error analysis by students

(1) creates further gaps in students’ understanding.
(2) hinders metacognitive skills of students.
(3) is a futile activity in process of learning.
(4) supports students in retaining their learning.

Why: When students examine their own mistakes, they see why an answer went wrong and correct the underlying idea. This strengthens metacognition and helps the corrected learning last.

22.Which of the following statements is correct regarding declarative knowledge and procedural knowledge?

(1) Declarative knowledge emphasizes how to do something.
(2) Declarative knowledge is also known as analytical knowledge.
(3) Procedural knowledge is generally process-oriented in nature.
(4) Procedural knowledge tells the factual knowledge about something.

Why: Procedural knowledge is “knowing how”: the steps of a process or a skill. Declarative knowledge is “knowing that”: facts and concepts. Options 1 and 4 swap the two definitions.

23.Contents which require an extension or modification of existing cognitive structures take _____ time for learning and are retained for _____ duration.

(1) long, long
(2) long, short
(3) short, short
(4) short, long

Why: Changing an existing schema is Piaget’s accommodation, which takes more effort and time than simply adding to what is known. Because the new idea is built into the learner’s structure of understanding, it is also kept for a long time.

24.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): Teachers should encourage children to focus on questions such as “what is my learning goal and what do I need to do to get there”.
Reason (R): When students understand how to self-assess their work performance, they can use this understanding to help themselves learn and progress.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: Questions about one’s own goal and next steps are the heart of self-assessment and self-regulated learning. R gives the reason teachers should encourage them: students who can judge their own work can steer their own progress.

25.In guided discovery approach of learning

(1) learners are left on their own without any kind of intervention by teacher.
(2) no prior planning or previous knowledge is required.
(3) opportunities are provided to learners to construct knowledge for themselves.
(4) teacher acts as a dictator and learners act as listeners.

Why: In guided discovery, learners find things out for themselves while the teacher plans the task and steps in with prompts and hints. It is neither unguided discovery (option 1) nor lecture-style teaching (option 4), and it needs careful planning.

26.Which of the following strategies is not effective while developing conceptual understanding in children?

(1) Presenting a wide range of examples in diverse contexts
(2) Presenting non-examples to show what the concept is not
(3) Asking students to generate their own examples
(4) Asking students to memorize the definition as it is

Why: Learning a definition by heart does not show that a child understands the concept. Varied examples, non-examples and children’s own examples all help them see where the concept begins and ends.

27.An active middle school classroom should be founded on the theoretical principles of

(1) behaviourism
(2) psychodynamism
(3) social constructivism
(4) psychoanalysis

Why: An active classroom has students building knowledge through discussion, collaboration and inquiry, which is the core of Vygotsky’s social constructivism. Behaviourism treats the learner as passive, and the psychodynamic and psychoanalytic schools are theories of personality, not of classroom learning.

28.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): Empathy depends on the ability to understand that others have feelings and to gauge their feelings.
Reason (R): Emotions and cognition are not related to each other.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A is true: empathy needs the understanding that others have their own feelings (theory of mind) and the skill to read them. R is false: A itself shows that emotion and cognition work together, and each shapes the other.

29.A middle school teacher can enable students become strategic self-motivated learners by—

(1) encouraging students to develop their metacognitive knowledge and skills.
(2) providing varied forms of reinforcement for every task completed.
(3) dictating well-prepared answers to questions in the textbook.
(4) stressing upon objective-type testing at the end of the term.

Why: Strategic learners plan, monitor and evaluate their own learning, and these are metacognitive skills. Rewarding every task builds dependence on external reinforcement, and dictated answers or end-of-term tests do nothing to build self-direction.

30.Which of the following exemplifies intrinsic motivation?

(1) Motivation driven by external rewards
(2) Motivation driven by personal interest or enjoyment of the task
(3) Motivation driven by competition with others
(4) Motivation driven by gaining the appreciation of others

Why: Intrinsic motivation comes from inside the learner: the task is done because it is interesting or enjoyable in itself. Rewards, competition and praise are all outside sources, so they are extrinsic.

31.A place, where documents and manuscripts are stored and today all National and State Governments have them, to keep all their old official records and transactions, is called

(1) Secretariat
(2) Library
(3) Parliament
(4) Archive

Why: An archive is a place where documents and manuscripts are preserved. The National Archives of India and the state archives keep old government records for historians and the public.

32.Which of the following statements related to Tamil region is wrong?

(1) Sangam poems mention the Muvendar.
(2) Muvendar is a Tamil word meaning three chiefs used for heads of three ruling families.
(3) The three ruling families were the Cholas, Cheras and Pandyas.
(4) Each of the three chiefs had three centres of power.

Why: According to the NCERT Class VI history text, each of the three chiefs (Cholas, Cheras and Pandyas) had two centres of power: one inland and one on the coast. So “three centres” is the wrong statement.

33.Assertion : The relationship between the State and religion may be a bone of contention in today’s Indian polity, but history presents workable solutions.
Choose the appropriate reason/reasons for the above assertion.
A. Temples were often central to the economy and society.
B. The town of Ramdaspur had developed around the central Gurudwara called Harmandar Sahib.
C. Sufis were Muslim mystics who rejected outward religiosity and emphasized compassion for all fellow human beings.
D. History is about the battles between different States and religions.

(1) Only A, B and C
(2) Only A
(3) Only B
(4) Only D

Why: A, B and C show religion and society working together: temples supported local economies, a town grew around a gurudwara, and the Sufis preached compassion across communities. D is a narrow and misleading view of history, and it does not support the assertion.

34.Unusual for the 12th century, Kalhana used a variety of sources. Unlike the writers of Prashastis, he was often critical about rulers and their practices. His sources include :

(1) earlier histories
(2) earlier histories and eyewitness accounts
(3) earlier histories, eyewitness accounts and documents
(4) earlier histories, eyewitness accounts, documents and inscriptions

Why: For his Rajatarangini, a history of the kings of Kashmir, Kalhana drew on inscriptions, documents, eyewitness accounts and earlier histories. This range of sources is what made his work unusual for its time.

35.Which of the following are true with regard to the Marathas?
A. Shivaji carved out a stable kingdom with the support of powerful warrior families.
B. Powerful warrior families were called ‘Deshmukhs’.
C. Highly mobile, peasant pastoralists were the backbone of the Maratha army.
D. Highly mobile, peasant pastoralists were called ‘Kunbis’.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A and C
(2) Only C and D
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) Only A, B and C

Why: All four statements come directly from the NCERT account. Shivaji built his kingdom with the support of powerful warrior families called deshmukhs, and highly mobile peasant pastoralists called kunbis were the backbone of his army.

36.Historical claim : “The Ahom built a large State.”
Choose the appropriate evidences for the above claim.
A. The Ahoms used firearms to build a large State.
B. The Ahoms made high-quality gunpowder and cannons.
C. The Ahom State depended upon forced labour.
D. In 1662, the Ahoms defeated the Mughals.

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) A, B and D

Why: Firearms, their own gunpowder and cannon, and a victory over a Mughal army all show the military strength that let the Ahoms build and hold a large state. Forced labour is true of how the state was run, but it is not evidence of the state’s size or power.

37.State the validity of the following on peasant revolts :
Assertion : Those who are oppressed do not always rise up in rebellion. They do so only at times.
Reason : In 1859, the Indigo Ryots felt that they had the support of the local Zamindars against the planters.
Conclusion : Women turned up to fight with pots, pans and kitchen implements.

(1) Assertion, Reason and Conclusion all are valid
(2) Only Assertion and Reason are valid
(3) Only Reason and Conclusion are valid
(4) Only Assertion and Conclusion are valid

Why: The NCERT account of the 1859 indigo revolt makes all three points. The oppressed rebel only at certain times; in 1859 the ryots rose because they felt the local zamindars were with them against the planters; and the revolt drew in everyone, with women fighting using pots, pans and kitchen implements.

38.The following are some facts related to Company policies during the second half of the 18th century :
A. Artisans started deserting villages.
B. The Company purchased goods in India by gold and silver.
C. The revenue collected in Bengal could finance the purchase of goods.
D. The Company became the Diwan.
Arrange them in sequence of their occurrence.

(1) B, D, C, A
(2) B, A, C, D
(3) A, B, C, D
(4) C, B, A, D

Why: Before 1765 the Company paid for Indian goods with gold and silver imported from Britain (B). In 1765 it became the Diwan of Bengal (D), after which Bengal’s revenue paid for the goods (C). Weavers, forced to sell cheap to the Company, then began deserting their villages (A).

39.Which of the following institutional developments was/were direct outcome/outcomes of the Wood’s Despatch?
A. Education departments of the government were set up in provinces.
B. Centralization of education under the Governor General took place.
C. Steps were taken to establish a system of university education.
D. Indian Civil Service colleges were set up in England.
Choose the correct option.

(1) One of the above
(2) Two of the above
(3) Three of the above
(4) All of the above

Why: [KEY] The NCERT Class VIII text names two outcomes of the 1854 Despatch: education departments set up to control all matters of education (A), and steps towards university education (C), which would give option 2. The official key credits three. It appears to count B as well, reading the new departments’ control over education as centralization. D has nothing to do with the Despatch.

40.Who amongst the following argued that before Aryan rule, there existed a golden age when warrior-peasants tilled the land and ruled the Maratha countryside in just and fair ways?

(1) Guru Nanak
(2) Ram Mohan Roy
(3) Periyar
(4) Jyotirao Phule

Why: Jyotirao Phule argued that the Aryans were outsiders who conquered the land’s original people, and that before them a golden age existed. He saw the upper castes’ power as the result of that conquest.

41.Consider the following statements on Non-Brahman Movement :
A. The movement came from non-Brahman castes that had acquired access to education.
B. The movement argued that the Aryans were the indigenous races.
C. The movement came from non-Brahman castes with wealth and influence.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A and C are valid
(2) Only B and C are valid
(3) Only C is valid
(4) Only B is valid

Why: The movement began in the early 20th century among non-Brahman castes that had gained education, wealth and influence. It argued the opposite of B: that Brahmans were Aryan outsiders, and that the non-Brahmans were the true indigenous (Dravidian) people.

42.Social insecurities, in any society, result from a sense of alienation. In this context, the Indian Nationalist Movement was a movement :
A. to acknowledge the supremacy of people over the structures of government
B. to do away with the differences of class, colour and language
C. to acknowledge the government as being equal to the God
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only A and B
(4) Only B and C

Why: The national movement worked to make the people sovereign over their government and to unite Indians across class, caste, region and language. Treating the government as equal to God is the opposite of this democratic aim.

43.It was established in Madras (Chennai) in 1864. It worked to abolish caste distinctions and promote widow remarriage and women’s education. It condemned the superstitions and rituals of orthodox Hinduism. Identify the associated movement/organization.

(1) Self-Respect Movement
(2) Veda Samaj
(3) Vedanta Samaj
(4) Theosophical Society

Why: [KEY] The NCERT Class VIII text uses this exact description for the Veda Samaj (option 2), founded in Madras in 1864 and inspired by the Brahmo Samaj. The official key credits option 3, the Vedanta Samaj. The Self-Respect Movement came in the 1920s, and the Theosophical Society was founded in New York in 1875.

44.After the attainment of independence, why did the demand for linguistic States intensify?
A. In the 1920s, the Indian National Congress had promised that after independence each major linguistic group would have its own province.
B. After independence, the Congress did not take any steps to honour its promise of major linguistic groups having its own province.
C. The Kannada, Telugu speakers had looked forward to having their own State. The strongest protest came from Tamil speakers of the Telugu-speaking districts.
D. Nehru and Patel were against the creation of linguistic States.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A, B and C
(2) Only B, C and D
(3) Only A and B
(4) Only C and D

Why: CBSE awarded the mark for every option (key Z), because none of the four combinations is fully right. A, B and D are true: the Congress promised linguistic provinces in the 1920s, took no step after 1947, and Nehru and Patel opposed the idea. C is garbled: the strongest protest came from the Telugu speakers of the Madras Presidency. The correct set, A, B and D, is not offered, and option 3 is the only one with no false statement.

45.In about how many days does the moon move around the earth?

(1) 30 days
(2) 29 days
(3) 28 days
(4) 27 days

Why: The NCERT Class VI geography text says the moon takes about 27 days to go around the earth, which is about 27⅓ days. The cycle of phases seen from the earth takes about 29½ days, because the earth moves around the sun at the same time.

46.Match Column—A with Column—B :

Column—A	Column—B
(a) Tropic of Cancer	(i) 23½° in Southern Hemisphere
(b) Tropic of Capricorn	(ii) 23½° in Northern Hemisphere
(c) Arctic Circle	(iii) 66½° South of the Equator
(d) Antarctic Circle	(iv) 66½° North of the Equator

Choose the correct option.

(1) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
(3) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)
(4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)

Why: The Tropic of Cancer is at 23½° N and the Tropic of Capricorn at 23½° S. The Arctic Circle is at 66½° N and the Antarctic Circle at 66½° S.

47.Which one of the following is not correct about the earth?

(1) The earth is the third nearest planet to the sun
(2) In size, the earth is the fifth largest planet
(3) Rotation is the movement of the earth around the sun
(4) The shape of the earth is described as a geoid

Why: The earth’s movement around the sun is revolution. Rotation is its spin on its own axis. The other three statements are correct.

48.Read the two statements carefully :
Statement A : At any place, a watch can be adjusted to read 12 o’clock when the sun is at the highest point in the sky, i.e., when it is mid-day.
Statement B : The time shown by such a watch will give the local time for that place.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and B are true
(2) Both A and B are false
(3) A is true but B is false
(4) A is false but B is true

Why: Local time is based on the sun: it is noon at a place when the sun is highest in its sky. A watch set to 12 at that moment shows the local time of that place, so both statements are true.

49.Ecosystem is formed by :

(1) lithosphere and biosphere
(2) all plants, animals and human beings
(3) interrelationship between organisms and their surroundings
(4) atmosphere and hydrosphere

Why: An ecosystem is a system formed by the interaction of all living things with each other and with their physical surroundings. The other options list only some parts of it, with no interaction.

50.Read the statements A and B carefully :
A : Human beings interact with the environment and modify it according to their need.
B : A perfect balance is necessary between the natural and human environment.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and B are true and B explains A
(2) Both A and B are true but B does not explain A
(3) A is true but B is false
(4) A is false but B is true

Why: Both are true. But B does not explain why humans modify the environment; that happens because of their needs. B is a separate point about how that change should be managed.

51.Why is tourism a major activity in Ladakh—the cold desert of India?
A. Visits to Gompas
B. Treks to see meadows and glaciers
C. Witnessing ceremonies and festivities
D. It is flat plain area
Choose the correct option.

(1) A, C and D
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, B and D
(4) A, B and C

Why: Tourists come to Ladakh to visit the gompas (monasteries), trek to meadows and glaciers, and watch its ceremonies and festivals. Ladakh is a high, mountainous region, not a flat plain, so D is false.

52.Which one of the following gases is the second most plentiful gas in the air?

(1) Nitrogen
(2) Oxygen
(3) Carbon dioxide
(4) Hydrogen

Why: Air is about 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, so oxygen is second. Carbon dioxide is only a small fraction of one per cent.

53.Given below are four statements :
A : High pressure is associated with clear sunny skies.
B : Air pressure is not influenced by temperature of air.
C : Low pressure is associated with cloudy skies and wet weather.
D : Air always moves from high-pressure to low-pressure areas.
Choose the true statements about air pressure and temperature.

(1) A, B and C
(2) A, B and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) B, C and D

Why: Temperature does affect pressure: warm air rises and creates low pressure, and cold, sinking air creates high pressure. So B is false. A, C and D are the standard textbook facts.

54.Read the statements A and B carefully :
A : Inland waterways and sea routes have been used for transport since early days.
B : Waterways are the cheapest for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and B are true
(2) Both A and B are false
(3) A is true but B is false
(4) A is false but B is true

Why: Rivers and seas have carried people and goods since ancient times, and water transport is still the cheapest way to move heavy, bulky cargo over long distances. Both statements are true.

55.Many species of plants and animals have become vulnerable or endangered and some are on the verge of extinction. Choose the reasons from the following :
A. Afforestation
B. Landslides
C. Constructional activities
D. Poaching of animals

(1) A, C and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, B and D

Why: Landslides, construction and poaching all destroy habitats or kill wildlife. Afforestation, planting new forests, helps species survive, so it cannot be a cause.

56.Read the statements A and B carefully :
A : Potential resources are those resources whose entire quantity may not be known.
B : These resources are not being used at present.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and B are true
(2) Both A and B are false
(3) A is true but B is false
(4) A is false but B is true

Why: NCERT defines potential resources as those whose entire quantity may not be known and which are not being used at present, such as the uranium in Ladakh. Both statements are part of that definition.

57.Match Column—A with Column—B :

Column—A	Column—B
(a) Sericulture	(i) Growing vegetables, flowers and fruits for commercial use
(b) Pisciculture	(ii) Cultivation of grapes
(c) Viticulture	(iii) Breeding of fish
(d) Horticulture	(iv) Commercial rearing of silkworms

Choose the correct option.

(1) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)
(3) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
(4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)

Why: Sericulture is rearing silkworms, pisciculture is breeding fish, viticulture is growing grapes, and horticulture is growing vegetables, flowers and fruits for sale.

58.Which of the following is not included in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

(1) Equality
(2) Liberty
(3) Freedom
(4) Justice

Why: The Preamble promises Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity. The word it uses is “Liberty” (of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship); “Freedom” does not appear.

59.A situation where a person does not have resources and opportunities that are available to other persons is known as

(1) diversity
(2) inequality
(3) difference
(4) otherness

Why: Inequality means some people are denied the resources and opportunities that others have. Diversity and difference simply mean people are not all alike, which is not in itself unfair.

60.Which of the following is/are not characteristic/characteristics of democratic government?
A. Indirect participation of people in decision making
B. The Prime Minister has absolute power
C. Explain and defend its actions to the people
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only A and C
(4) Only B and C

Why: In a representative democracy people take part in decisions indirectly, through elected representatives, and the government must explain and defend its actions to them. No one holds absolute power in a democracy, the Prime Minister included, so B is the odd one out.

61.Which of the following functions does not come under the jurisdiction of Municipal Corporations?

(1) Education
(2) Making laws
(3) Maintaining law and order
(4) Developing parks

Why: Municipal corporations run local services such as schools, parks, water and sanitation. Laws are made by Parliament and the state legislatures, and law and order is kept by the state police. Both options 2 and 3 are outside a corporation’s powers, and CBSE accepted either (key D).

62.Which of the following sequences in context of market chain is correct?

(1) Wholesaler—Retailer—Producer—Consumer
(2) Wholesaler—Producer—Retailer—Consumer
(3) Producer—Retailer—Wholesaler—Consumer
(4) Producer—Wholesaler—Retailer—Consumer

Why: Goods begin with the producer, go in bulk to a wholesaler, then to retailers who sell in small quantities, and finally reach the consumer.

63.Read the following statements in reference to agricultural labourers :
Statement A : Employment guarantee programmes in rural areas can decrease migration from rural to urban areas.
Statement B : One of the main reasons for rural to urban migration has been the higher income jobs available in urban areas.
Choose the correct option.

(1) A is true but B is false
(2) A is false but B is true
(3) Both A and B are true and B is the reason for A
(4) Both A and B are true but B is not the reason for A

Why: Both are true. Guaranteed work in villages, as under MGNREGA, reduces distress migration, and better-paid city jobs pull people to towns. But B explains why people migrate, not why employment guarantee reduces migration; that follows from people having work at home. So B is not the reason for A.

64.Match Column—A with Column—B :

Column—A (Panchayati Raj Institutions)	Column—B (Tasks)
(a) Gram Sabha	(i) Regulating the money among Gram Panchayats
(b) Gram Panchayat	(ii) Coordinating the activities of the various Panchayats within its jurisdiction
(c) Janpad Panchayat	(iii) Approving BPL list
(d) Zila Parishad	(iv) Maintaining water sources

Choose the correct option.

(1) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
(4) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)

Why: The Gram Sabha, the meeting of all village voters, approves the BPL list. The Gram Panchayat does local works such as maintaining water sources. The Janpad (block) Panchayat coordinates the panchayats under it. The Zila Parishad plans at district level and distributes funds among the Gram Panchayats.

65.What does ‘double burden’ refer to?

(1) Boys are expected to be physically as well as emotionally strong
(2) Pressure on men to get high-salaried job and not be emotionally weak
(3) Women doing household chores and working outside the home too
(4) Young girls doing the household chores and looking after the younger siblings too

Why: The NCERT Class VII text uses “double burden” for women who work outside the home and still carry almost all the housework. It points out that housework is unpaid and rarely recognised as real work.

66.The _____ protect citizens against the arbitrary and absolute exercise of power by the State.

(1) Political Rights
(2) Human Rights
(3) Fundamental Rights
(4) Directive Principles of State Policy

Why: The Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Constitution protect citizens against arbitrary use of power by the State, and they can be enforced in court. The Directive Principles guide policy but cannot be enforced in court.

67.Which of the following acts violate Article 21 of the Constitution of India?
A. A sanitation staff not getting minimum wages fixed by the government
B. Private schools charging exorbitant fees from students
C. A textile company contaminating the groundwater which is a source of drinking water
D. Denying hawkers to carry on their trade on the pavements
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A and B
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only A and C
(4) Only B and D

Why: Courts have read Article 21, the right to life, as a right to live with dignity. That includes a fair wage for one’s labour (A) and access to safe drinking water and a clean environment (C). High school fees are a matter of fee regulation, and street trading comes under the freedom to carry on a trade in Article 19, not Article 21.

68.Consider the following statements :
Statement A : If an FIR has been registered for a cognizable offence, the police can detain any relative of the accused for 24 hours.
Statement B : The police investigation includes collecting different kinds of evidence.
Choose the correct option.

(1) A is true but B is false
(2) A is false but B is true
(3) Both A and B are true and B is the reason for A
(4) Both A and B are true but B is not the reason for A

Why: A is false: the police have no power to hold an accused person’s relatives. Even an arrested person must be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours. B is true: investigation means recording statements and collecting evidence of different kinds.

69.Which of the following could be an appropriate way to counter the marginalization of Adivasis?

(1) Ask them to migrate to cities
(2) Showcase their culture as exotic in media
(3) Appeal them to adapt into the ways of living of majority community
(4) Teach their history in schools

Why: Teaching Adivasi history in schools gives their communities recognition and respect and breaks stereotypes. Showing them as exotic, or pressing them to give up their own way of life, deepens their marginalization.

70.Which of the following communities has/have been provided constitutional safeguards by enacting the Prevention of Atrocities Act in 1989?
A. Minorities
B. Women
C. Scheduled Castes
D. Scheduled Tribes
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C and D
(4) Only A, C and D

Why: Its full name is the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. It protects Dalits and Adivasis only.

71.The boundaries of disciplines that make up the social sciences need to be opened up and a plurality of approaches may be applied to understand a given phenomenon. What is this approach called?

(1) Interdisciplinary thinking
(2) Bounded knowledge
(3) Scientific inquiry
(4) Utilitarianism

Why: Using history, geography, political science and economics together to study a single topic is the interdisciplinary approach that NCF 2005 recommends for the social sciences.

72.Which of the following is foundational logic in the drafting of syllabi of social science?

(1) Inclusion of local perception
(2) Focusing on utilitarian aspects
(3) Developing more instructive textbooks
(4) Epistemic shift towards patriarchal nationalist frame

Why: NCF 2005 asks that the social science syllabus draw on local knowledge and learners’ own experiences. It moves away from a narrow utilitarian focus, from purely instructive texts and from a patriarchal frame.

73.The concept of a ‘fair trial’ is an important one while talking about the criminal justice system. To teach this concept, you narrate to the students the story of a person who has been accused of theft and what happens thereafter at the police station and later in the court. What pedagogical resource have you used here?

(1) Survey data
(2) Case study
(3) Charts
(4) Political cartoon

Why: Following one real or realistic case through its stages is a case study. The NCERT Class VIII chapter on the judiciary teaches fair trial through a case of this kind.

74.Which of the following should be followed by the teacher in his/her classroom to promote meaningful learning?

(1) Giving recall-based tasks to the students
(2) Giving easy tasks to the students
(3) Promoting the ‘culture of quizzing’ among the students
(4) Giving those tasks to the students which are challenging

Why: Challenging tasks make students think, connect ideas and build understanding, which is what meaningful learning means. Recall tasks, easy tasks and quizzing mostly test memory.

75.Below are two statements, one of them is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options :
Assertion (A): The study of social science helps the learners in understanding the contemporary society better.
Reason (R): Social science education aims at providing students essential knowledge, skills and attitude necessary for self-development and also for becoming an effective member of the society.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

Why: Social science helps learners understand the society they live in because it aims to give them the knowledge, skills and attitudes needed to take part in that society. R states the aim that leads to the outcome in A.

76.Teaching social science is a

(1) personal activity
(2) professional activity
(3) process of transmission of facts
(4) coaching for memorization

Why: Teaching social science is a professional activity that needs subject knowledge, teaching skill and planning. It is not just passing on facts or coaching students to memorise.

77.Which of the following is/are the most suitable teaching-learning material/materials to explain different parts of the earth to the students?
A. Globe
B. Map
C. Atlas
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) Only A

Why: A globe shows the whole earth in its true shape, and a map shows any part of it in detail on a flat surface. Together they explain the parts of the earth best. An atlas is simply a book of maps.

78.Which of the following pedagogical techniques should be used by teachers for making social science enjoyable for students?
A. Organization of visits to museum
B. Celebration of Social Science Week
C. Encouraging watching of night sky
D. Sharing large statistical data related to social facts
Choose the correct option.

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) A, B and D

Why: Museum visits, a Social Science Week and watching the night sky, which links to the geography of the earth and the solar system, are active and enjoyable. Large tables of statistics tend to make the subject dry for learners.

79.Below are two statements. Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options :
Statement I : Meaningful learning in social science is a generative process of storage and retrieval of information.
Statement II : Thinking, language (verbal or sign) and doing things are intimately intertwined.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Why: NCF 2005 describes meaningful learning as a generative process of constructing knowledge, not the storage and retrieval of information, so I is false. II is true: thought, language and action develop together.

80.Below are two statements. Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options :
Statement I : In a democratic setup, centralization of power such as the ‘Panchayati Raj System’ has gained importance.
Statement II : ‘Panchayati Raj System’ aims at raising the levels of participation and involvement of people.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Why: Panchayati Raj is decentralization: it moves power down to villages and districts, so I is false. II is true, because the aim of that shift is to increase people’s participation in local government.

81.The ‘Sabhas’ in the reign of Pallava, through their subcommittees, performed various works such as irrigation, road construction, maintenance of local temples, etc. Which of the following child-centred activities can be done to acquaint the students with the nuances of their functioning?
A. Description of work division on the school campus
B. Example of different groups created for classroom management
C. Getting a real tour of the Sabhas of the reign of Pallava
D. Getting a tour of the Sabhas of the reign of Pallava through audio-visual material
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, B and D

Why: Comparing the Sabha’s committees with how work is divided in the school and the class links the past to what children already know, and audio-visual material can show the historical setting. A “real tour” of Pallava-era Sabhas is impossible, since those assemblies no longer exist.

82.To ensure that social science teaching moves away from an excessive emphasis on developmental issues to an understanding of issues related to justice and dignity, there needs to be a shift in focus from utilitarianism to _____.

(1) altruism
(2) consequentialism
(3) egalitarianism
(4) existentialism

Why: The NCF 2005 position paper on social sciences calls for a shift from utilitarian concerns towards equality, justice and human dignity, which is an egalitarian outlook.

83.Below are two statements, one of them is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options :
Assertion (A): An important aspect of social science is the possibility of having different shades or at times even diametrically opposite answers.
Reason (R): It is critical for a social science teacher to move away from the age-old habit of preaching to the pulpit.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

Why: Both are true. Social questions often have several valid answers, and teachers should stop lecturing students. But A is a feature of the subject itself; R is advice about how to teach it, so R does not explain A.

84.The use of iron in the Indian subcontinent began about 3000 years ago. What task would you give to your students to develop their understanding on such historical episodes?
A. Reviewing the book ‘What Happened in History’ written by Gordon Childe
B. Meeting someone from the traditional blacksmithing community of your area and gathering information
C. Visiting a factory under the supervision of a teacher and noting down the process of making iron
D. Collecting information by visiting any Megalithic site located in the Deccan under the supervision of a teacher
Choose the correct option.

(1) A, B and C
(2) A, C and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) Only A

Why: Talking to a blacksmith, watching iron being made and visiting a megalithic site where early iron objects have been found are hands-on, age-appropriate tasks. Reviewing an academic book by an archaeologist is beyond middle school learners.

85.How will you assess the students through the ‘project of wallpaper’?
A. Seeing the selection of the subjects by the students
B. Seeing the presentation on the subject matter by the students
C. Asking follow-up questions after the presentation on the topic by the students
D. Asking follow-up questions before the presentation on the topic by the students
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B
(2) A, B and C
(3) A and D
(4) A, C and D

Why: A wallpaper project can be assessed at each stage: how students chose their topic, how they presented it, and how they answered follow-up questions afterwards. A follow-up question cannot come before the presentation it follows, so D does not make sense.

86.Which of the following statements is not true about formative assessments?

(1) Formative assessments are a way for teachers to frequently check students’ progress in a course.
(2) The main objective of such tests is to make a final judgement about whether students have met the learning goals of the course.
(3) They allow teachers to modify their own teaching strategies through ongoing feedback.
(4) They are diagnostic in nature.

Why: Making a final judgement at the end of a course is the purpose of summative assessment. Formative assessment is ongoing and diagnostic, and teachers use it to adjust their teaching.

87.Which of the following is true about testing?

(1) It is a ground for critical examination
(2) It is not a standard for comparison
(3) It is a ground for admission only
(4) It is not a trial of a student’s qualities

Why: A test is a structured way of examining a learner’s knowledge and abilities critically. Tests are also used for comparison and to judge a student’s qualities, and admission is only one of their uses, so the other three options are false.

88.Below are two statements. Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options :
Statement I : Learning is a continuous process.
Statement II : Learning cannot take place outside the school premises.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Why: Learning goes on all through life, and much of it happens at home, in the community and through daily experience. NCF 2005 asks schools to connect learning with life outside school, so II is false.

89.Below are two statements, one of them is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options :
Assertion (A): Testing has a diagnostic function to indicate the presence or absence of a characteristic.
Reason (R): Testing is an event or a situation that comprises a set of questions or problems that analyze a person’s quality of learning or determine his knowledge, abilities, etc.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

Why: Because a test is a set of questions designed to analyse a learner’s knowledge and abilities (R), it can reveal whether a particular skill or characteristic is present or missing (A). R explains A.

90.Below are two statements. Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options :
Statement I : In school education, paper-pencil tests are the only way of testing the learners.
Statement II : During the testing in schools, values or numbers are assigned to represent that the learner has performed.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Why: Oral tests, projects, observation and portfolios are also ways of assessing learners, so I is false. II is true: marks or grades are assigned to show how the learner has performed.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

91.What is the prerequisite for high effect and good quality work?

(1) Good quality office
(2) Health club
(3) Exercising and stretching
(4) Sound mind in a sound body

Why: The first paragraph says plainly that a sound mind in a sound body is a prerequisite for high efficiency and good quality work. Health clubs and exercise are ways of reaching that state, not the prerequisite itself.

92.Japanese companies ensure loyalty and motivation by making their workers

(1) start off the day with exercising
(2) drink healthy drinks
(3) sing the company’s song
(4) join health clubs

Why: The passage says the company song is designed to promote loyalty and motivation. The morning stretching session is mentioned too, but the loyalty purpose is tied specifically to the song.

93.Why do companies have health clubs?

(1) They attract more workforce
(2) They attract profit to the company
(3) They help in better efficiency and high productivity of the workers
(4) Health insurance companies can tie up with these health clubs

Why: The passage calls the spending on health clubs a wise investment in better efficiency and higher productivity. Lower insurance premiums are described only as an indirect side benefit.

94.‘The movement towards health clubs is yet to gain momentum in India’ signifies that

(1) health clubs are getting popular in Indian companies
(2) insurance companies are getting good premium due to health clubs
(3) health clubs in Indian companies have not yet become popular
(4) due to health clubs, many consultancies have opened up

Why: “Yet to gain momentum” means the trend has not picked up speed. Indian firms have medical schemes, but in-house health clubs have not caught on.

95.What is directly affected by physical health?

(1) Mind
(2) Business
(3) Efficiency
(4) Insurance premium

Why: The passage opens by saying that physical health affects the mind and vice versa. Efficiency and business are affected only through that link.

96.Which one of the following words is opposite in meaning to the word ‘nominal’?

(1) Above-mentioned
(2) Cursory
(3) Simple
(4) Substantial

Why: A nominal contribution is a very small, token amount. The opposite is substantial, meaning large or considerable.

97.Which one of the following words is nearest in meaning to the word ‘prerequisite’?

(1) Unnecessary
(2) Required
(3) Optional
(4) Secondary

Why: A prerequisite is something required beforehand as a condition. Unnecessary and optional mean the opposite.

98.Which Part of Speech is the underlined word?
Japanese companies particularly excel in this.

(1) Adjective
(2) Adverb
(3) Noun
(4) Conjunction

Why: “Particularly” modifies the verb “excel”, telling us to what degree, so it is an adverb. The -ly ending on the adjective “particular” is a clue.

99.Identify the clause in the underlined part of the sentence :
It is estimated that some 20,000 American firms have established in-house health clubs.

(1) Adverb clause
(2) Adjective clause
(3) Noun clause
(4) Principal clause

Why: “It is estimated” can stand alone and carries the main verb, so it is the principal (main) clause. The part beginning “that some 20,000 American firms…” is a noun clause depending on it.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

100.The speaker says that the cage-bird flutters its sorrowful wings. The wings are being described as ‘sorrowful’ because

(1) the wings are broken
(2) the bird is sad as it is caged
(3) the bird can’t sing
(4) the bird is hungry

Why: Wings cannot feel sorrow. It is the bird that is sad, because it is shut in a cage and cannot fly, and the poet transfers that feeling to its wings.

101.The speaker’s bird can do a number of things. It is because

(1) the bird is talented
(2) the bird is caged
(3) the bird is free
(4) the bird is sorrowful

Why: The speaker’s bird is “free to build and thrive”. It can sing, wheel and soar in the sunshine because nothing confines it.

102.The caged bird is described as ‘a crippled thing’ because

(1) its one leg is broken
(2) it is not free to fly and soar
(3) it is poor
(4) it is wild

Why: The bird is not physically injured. The cage takes away its ability to fly, so it is “crippled” in the sense of being unable to live as a bird should.

103.Which poetic device is used in the expression ‘sorrowful wings’?

(1) Metaphor
(2) Simile
(3) Transferred epithet
(4) Personification

Why: A transferred epithet moves an adjective from the thing it really describes to something nearby. The bird is sorrowful, but the adjective is attached to its wings.

104.What is the theme of the poem?

(1) The caged bird lives a fruitful life
(2) The birds should be kept in a cage
(3) The birds should be given good food
(4) Birds living in the open enjoy their lives

Why: The poem contrasts a caged bird, sad and “only half alive”, with a free wild bird that sings, soars and thrives. Its theme is the joy of freedom.

105.“But my bird sings!” denotes that

(1) my bird sings sweetly
(2) my bird is free
(3) my bird doesn’t feel free
(4) my bird has regained her voice

Why: Throughout the poem, singing is the mark of freedom: the caged bird only “pipes of sorrowful things”. So the closing line tells us that the speaker’s bird is free.

106._____ is concerned with the aspects of meaning in language.

(1) Phonetics
(2) Semantics
(3) Syntax
(4) Morphology

Why: Semantics is the study of meaning. Phonetics studies speech sounds, syntax studies sentence structure, and morphology studies how words are formed.

107.Which of the following is not the principle of language learning?

(1) Learning a language involves mastery of both skill and knowledge
(2) Learners may vary in their preferred approaches to learning
(3) Language is a tool for communication
(4) Language is learnt through memorization of structures/rules of grammar

Why: Language is acquired by using it meaningfully, not by memorising grammar rules and structures. The other three are accepted principles.

108.A teacher of Grade 6 writes a word in the centre of the blackboard, and asks the learners to brainstorm all the words they can think of which are connected to the central word.
The major objective of this activity is

(1) enhancing writing skills
(2) improving vocabulary of learners
(3) understanding grammar
(4) enhancing reading skills

Why: This is a word web (mind map). Linking many related words to one central word builds and organises vocabulary.

109.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): Delaying the learning of languages in the early years makes it more difficult for children to acquire new languages.
Reason (R): Early years of the child are sensitive periods for language acquisition.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is a correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(3) A is not true but R is true
(4) A is true but R is not true

Why: Young children pick up languages with special ease during a sensitive period. Missing that window makes later acquisition harder, so R explains A.

110.One of the key principles of National Curriculum Framework for Foundational Stage (2022) with respect to multilingualism is

(1) multilingual nature of a classroom acts as a barrier in effective curriculum transaction
(2) children are not able to pick up multiple oral languages in the early years
(3) multilingualism has both cognitive and societal/cultural benefits
(4) children must be helped to unlearn their home language and focus of the school must shift on learning the language of the school

Why: NCF-FS 2022 treats multilingualism as a strength with cognitive and social benefits. It says young children learn several languages easily and that the home language should be built on, not unlearnt.

111.In some of the speech communities, two different varieties of language coexist, each with a distinct range of social function. This situation is described as

(1) code mixing
(2) register
(3) diglossia
(4) dialect

Why: Diglossia is when a community uses two varieties of a language for different social purposes, typically a formal “high” variety and an everyday “low” one. Code mixing is blending two languages within a single utterance.

112.Children work in pairs. A text is divided in half. One child reads their text for the partner which the other child writes. Two of them work out the whole text. This activity is called

(1) running dictation
(2) word web
(3) partial dictation
(4) storytelling

Why: Each child holds only part of the text and dictates it to the other, and together they rebuild the whole. This is partial dictation. In running dictation, one child runs to a text posted away from the desk and memorises chunks of it to dictate.

113.Which of the following statements is not true of study about the literary texts in language classroom?

(1) Literary texts should be used to teach grammar.
(2) Literary texts are cultural inputs for language learning.
(3) Literary texts develop critical thinking and reflection.
(4) Literary texts are for appreciation and enjoyment.

Why: Literature is taught for enjoyment, cultural understanding and reflection. Using a poem or story mainly as material for grammar drills defeats that purpose.

114.Naveen of Class VI struggles with reading the text. The teacher gives him simpler text to read. She conducts shared reading sessions for him. The support provided by the teacher is called

(1) reading readiness
(2) scaffolding
(3) brainstorming
(4) ice breaking

Why: Temporary support fitted to a learner’s level, such as simpler texts and reading together, and withdrawn as he improves, is scaffolding.

115.Which approach to language teaching-learning believes ‘language is a habit’?

(1) Audiolingualism
(2) Communicative language teaching
(3) Natural approach
(4) Cooperative language learning

Why: The audiolingual method is based on behaviourism. It treats language as a set of habits formed through drills, repetition and reinforcement.

116.A child reads an unseen passage for which he is expected to answer the questions that follow. This type of reading is referred to as

(1) scanning
(2) exclusive reading
(3) skimming
(4) extensive reading

Why: Reading a short passage closely to answer detailed questions is what is usually called intensive reading; the booklet prints it as “exclusive reading”, and that is the keyed option. Skimming is for the gist, scanning is for a specific detail, and extensive reading is reading long texts for pleasure.

117.Teacher shows five pictures to the students and asks them to write story based on these pictures.
This is an example of

(1) show and tell
(2) jigsaw dictation
(3) shared reading
(4) creative writing

Why: Composing an original story from a picture sequence is creative writing. Show and tell is an oral activity, and the other two are reading and dictation tasks.

118.Which of the following is the characteristic of performance-based assessment in language?

(1) Multiple-choice questions
(2) Non-interactive performance
(3) Decontextualized test items
(4) Contextualized communicative tasks

Why: Performance-based assessment asks learners to use language in real situations, such as role plays, presentations or writing a letter. The other options describe traditional objective testing.

119.Read the following statements :
A : Reading is just to understand letter-sound relationships and pronounce the words correctly.
B : Reading is decoding symbols to arrive at meaning.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and B are true
(2) A is true but B is false
(3) B is true but A is false
(4) Both A and B are false

Why: Reading means making meaning from print. Decoding letters into sounds is only the first step, so A’s “just” makes it false, while B is true.

120.A teacher has to assess listening skill of her students. Which of the following activities can she select as a listening assessment?

(1) Rating the children on their oral presentation
(2) Teacher tells a story and after that asks comprehension-based questions
(3) Teacher asks the children to read a story and after that asks comprehension-based questions
(4) Teacher gives vocabulary-based tasks

Why: Children hear the story and then show what they understood, so listening is what is being tested. An oral presentation tests speaking, reading a story tests reading, and vocabulary tasks test word knowledge.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

121.हम ईर्ष्या किससे करते हैं?

(1) जिन्हें लोग हमारे साथ खेलता देखते हैं
(2) जिन्हें लोग हमारे साथ पढ़ता देखते हैं
(3) जिन पर लोगों की हमारे साथ दृष्टि पड़ती है
(4) जिन्हें लोग हमारे साथ नौकरी करते देखते हैं

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार ईर्ष्या उन्हीं से होती है जिनके बारे में यह धारणा होती है कि लोगों की दृष्टि हमारे साथ-साथ उन पर भी अवश्य पड़ती होगी। खेलना, पढ़ना या नौकरी करना इसके केवल उदाहरण हो सकते हैं, मूल कारण नहीं।

122._____ के बीच ईर्ष्या नहीं फूलती-फलती।

(1) सहपाठियों
(2) पड़ोसियों
(3) दूर रहने वालों
(4) रिश्तेदारों

Why: अपने से दूरस्थ लोगों पर लोगों का ध्यान हमारे साथ-साथ नहीं जाता, इसलिए उनके प्रति ईर्ष्या नहीं होती। काशी के धनी को अमेरिका के धनी से ईर्ष्या नहीं होती। इसके विपरीत, सम्बन्धियों, सहपाठियों और पड़ोसियों के बीच ईर्ष्या अधिक देखी जाती है।

123.किसी परिचित के प्रतिष्ठित हो जाने से

(1) उसके विकास को रोकने का मन करता है
(2) हमें कोई फर्क नहीं पड़ता है
(3) हम उसे पहले से अधिक इज्जत देते हैं
(4) ईर्ष्या और द्वेष की नींव पड़ती है

Why: गद्यांश कहता है कि जब हम किसी को संसर्ग-सूत्र में बाँधकर अपने साथ एक पंक्ति में खड़ा करते हैं, तब सहानुभूति के साथ-साथ ईर्ष्या और द्वेष की सम्भावना की नींव भी पड़ जाती है। परिचित के आगे बढ़ने पर यही नींव ईर्ष्या बनकर सामने आती है।

124.ईर्ष्या पैदा करने के लिए आवश्यक नहीं है

(1) ईर्ष्या करने वाला
(2) किसी का ऐश्वर्य
(3) ईर्ष्या का पात्र
(4) स्थिति पर ध्यान देने वाला समाज

Why: गद्यांश के अंत में ईर्ष्या के संचार के लिए तीन चीज़ें आवश्यक बताई गई हैं: ईर्ष्या करने वाला, ईर्ष्या का पात्र, और स्थिति पर ध्यान देने वाला समाज। ऐश्वर्य उनमें नहीं है, क्योंकि ईर्ष्या गुण या मन की सम्पन्नता से भी हो सकती है।

125.‘सूत्रपात करना’ का आशय है

(1) बहुत प्रयत्न करना
(2) कुछ न करना
(3) प्रारम्भ करना
(4) समाप्त करना

Why: ‘सूत्रपात’ का अर्थ है किसी काम की शुरुआत या नींव डालना। इसलिए ‘सूत्रपात करना’ का अर्थ है प्रारम्भ करना।

126.लड़कपन के साथी की बढ़ती से कोई

(1) जलता है
(2) खुश होता है
(3) द्वेष करता है
(4) सुखी होता है

Why: गद्यांश कहता है कि लड़कपन से जो लोग एक साथ उठते-बैठते देखे गए हैं, उन्हीं में से कोई एक-दूसरे की बढ़ती से जलता हुआ भी पाया गया है। उत्तर वही शब्द है जो गद्यांश में आया है।

127.‘पड़ोसियों’ पड़ोसी संज्ञा का _____ रूप है।

(1) सामान्य एकवचन
(2) सामान्य बहुवचन
(3) तिर्यक बहुवचन
(4) तिर्यक एकवचन

Why: परसर्ग (जैसे ‘के बीच’, ‘को’) लगने पर संज्ञा का जो रूप बदलता है, वह तिर्यक (विकारी) रूप है। ‘पड़ोसी’ का सामान्य बहुवचन भी ‘पड़ोसी’ है, जबकि ‘पड़ोसियों’ तिर्यक बहुवचन है।

128.उन्नति के गुप्त बाधक को खोजने पर हमें क्या पता चलता है?

(1) वह सहपाठी था
(2) वह बालसखा था
(3) वह पड़ोसी था
(4) वह पुराना मित्र था

Why: गद्यांश कहता है कि अपनी उन्नति के गुप्त बाधकों का पता लगाते-लगाते लोग प्रायः अपने किसी बड़े पुराने मित्र तक पहुँच जाते हैं।

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

129.मनुष्य का दुःख बढ़ने का कारण है

(1) लोग मुझे कुछ नहीं समझते
(2) मैं जैसा हूँ उससे कम समझा जाता हूँ
(3) मैं जैसा हूँ वैसा ही समझा जाता हूँ
(4) मैं समझा ही नहीं जाता हूँ

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार “मैं क्षुद्र हूँ” के साथ “मैं क्षुद्र समझा जाता हूँ” की धारणा जुड़ने से दुःख के अनुभव में वृद्धि होती है। यानी दूसरों की दृष्टि में छोटा समझा जाना दुःख बढ़ाता है।

130.मनुष्य के लिए आनंददायक है

(1) मैं जैसा हूँ उससे बहुत अधिक बड़ा समझा जाता हूँ
(2) मैं जैसा हूँ उससे निम्न समझा जाता हूँ
(3) मैं जैसा हूँ वैसा ही जाना जाता हूँ
(4) मैं जैसा हूँ उससे बड़ा समझा जाता हूँ

Why: गद्यांश कहता है कि “मैं बड़ा समझा जाता हूँ” का निश्चय जुड़ने से मनुष्य के आनंद या सुख में वृद्धि होती है। विकल्प 1 का “बहुत अधिक” गद्यांश में नहीं है।

131.ईर्ष्या पर _____ का एकाधिकार है।

(1) प्राणी जगत्
(2) जानवरों
(3) मानव जाति
(4) न प्राणी जगत् का न मानव जगत् का

Why: गद्यांश स्पष्ट कहता है कि ईर्ष्या का अनन्य अधिकार मनुष्य जाति पर ही है। कुत्ते का उदाहरण यह दिखाता है कि पशु को दूसरों की दृष्टि में अपनी स्थिति की चिंता नहीं होती।

132.‘मानव की स्थिति दोहरी हो गई है’ का आशय है

(1) जैसा हूँ वैसा नहीं समझा जाता
(2) जैसा हूँ वैसा ही समझा जाता हूँ
(3) न समझता हूँ, न समझना चाहता हूँ
(4) कोई कुछ भी समझे मुझे फर्क नहीं पड़ता

Why: समाज में आने पर मनुष्य की स्थिति के दो विभाग हो जाते हैं: वह जैसा है, और वह जैसा समझा जाता है। ये दोनों अलग-अलग हो सकते हैं, यानी वह जैसा है वैसा ही नहीं समझा जाता। यही दोहरी स्थिति है।

133.‘ईर्ष्या ऐसे लोगों के हृदय में जगह पाती है’, का आशय है

(1) ऐसे लोग ही ईर्ष्या करते हैं
(2) ऐसे लोगों के हृदय में ईर्ष्या छिपी रहती है
(3) ऐसे लोगों का हृदय ईर्ष्या से भर जाता है
(4) ऐसे लोगों के हृदय में ईर्ष्या का घर होता है

Why: गद्यांश में कहा गया है कि ईर्ष्या ऐसे लोगों के हृदय में “बहुत जगह पाती है”, यानी उनका हृदय ईर्ष्या से भर जाता है। विकल्प 1 का “ऐसे लोग ही” बहुत अधिक कह देता है।

134.सही कथन चुनिए :

(1) ईर्ष्या का बहुवचन रूप है ईर्ष्ये।
(2) ईर्ष्या का बहुवचन रूप है इर्ष्याएँ।
(3) ईर्ष्या का बहुवचन रूप है ईर्ष्यायों।
(4) ईर्ष्या का बहुवचन रूप नहीं होता।

Why: ‘ईर्ष्या’ भाववाचक संज्ञा है, और भाववाचक संज्ञाएँ सामान्यतः एकवचन में ही प्रयुक्त होती हैं। इसलिए इसका बहुवचन रूप नहीं माना जाता।

135.“दृष्टि रखकर प्रयत्न करते हैं” में ‘रखकर’ _____ है।

(1) क्रिया
(2) वर्तमानकालिक कृदंत
(3) भूतकालिक कृदंत
(4) संयोजक

Why: [KEY] व्याकरण की दृष्टि से ‘रखकर’ पूर्वकालिक कृदंत है: धातु + ‘कर’, जो मुख्य क्रिया से पहले पूरी हुई क्रिया बताता है। यह नाम किसी विकल्प में नहीं है। आधिकारिक कुंजी भूतकालिक कृदंत को सही मानती है, संभवतः इसलिए कि यह क्रिया मुख्य क्रिया से पहले पूरी हो चुकी होती है।

136.एक शिक्षार्थी बिना मदद के क्या कर सकता है और किसी वयस्क या अधिक समर्थ सहपाठी के सहयोग से क्या कर सकता है, इन दोनों के बीच की स्थिति को क्या कहेंगे?

(1) परिपक्वता का स्तर
(2) निकटस्थ विकास का क्षेत्र
(3) उपलब्धि का क्षेत्र
(4) दूरस्थ अधिगम

Why: वाइगोत्स्की ने इस अंतर को निकटस्थ विकास का क्षेत्र (ZPD) कहा। इसी क्षेत्र में उचित सहायता (स्कैफोल्डिंग) के साथ सिखाना सबसे प्रभावी होता है।

137.प्रमस्तिष्क में क्षति के कारण भाषा के कार्य में विकार जिससे भाषिक स्वरूपों व नियमों को समझने और उत्पन्न करने में कठिनाई हो, उसे क्या कहेंगे?

(1) वाचाघात (अफ़ेज़िया)
(2) पठन वैकल्य (डिस्लेक्सिया)
(3) गणन वैकल्य (डिस्कैलकुलिया)
(4) उच्चारण वैकल्य (डिसरथिया)

Why: मस्तिष्क के किसी भाग में क्षति (जैसे स्ट्रोक) से होने वाला भाषा-विकार वाचाघात (अफ़ेज़िया) है। डिसरथिया बोलने की मांसपेशियों का विकार है, और डिस्लेक्सिया व डिस्कैलकुलिया अधिगम कठिनाइयाँ हैं।

138.उस प्रक्रिया का नाम बताइए जिसके द्वारा भाषा एक पीढ़ी से दूसरी पीढ़ी को स्थानांतरित होती है।

(1) सांस्कृतिक प्रसारण
(2) उत्पादकता
(3) यादृच्छिकता
(4) विस्थापन

Why: भाषा जन्म से नहीं मिलती, बल्कि समाज से सीखी जाती है और पीढ़ी-दर-पीढ़ी आगे बढ़ती है। भाषा की इस विशेषता को सांस्कृतिक प्रसारण कहते हैं। बाकी विकल्प भाषा की अन्य विशेषताएँ हैं।

139.12–18 माह की आयु के बच्चे पहचाने जाने योग्य एक इकाईवाली ध्वनियाँ निकालना शुरू कर देते हैं, यह अवधि जिसके अंतर्गत प्रतिदिन की वस्तुओं के लिए एक ही पदावली बोली जाती है, क्या कहलाती है?

(1) कूजन (कूइंग)
(2) संक्षिप्त वाक् (टेलिग्राफ़िक)
(3) एक-शब्दीय वाक्य अवस्था
(4) बबलाना

Why: एक-शब्दीय वाक्य अवस्था (होलोफ़्रेस्टिक) में एक शब्द पूरे वाक्य का अर्थ देता है: “दूध” का अर्थ हो सकता है “मुझे दूध चाहिए”। कूजन और बबलाना इससे पहले आते हैं, और संक्षिप्त वाक् इसके बाद।

140.पठन और लेखन कौशलों पर नीचे दिए गए कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
A : पठन की समझ और योग्यता लेखन की योग्यता को प्रभावित करती है।
B : पठन और लेखन दोनों पृथक् प्रक्रियाएँ हैं और एक-दूसरे से स्वतंत्र होकर विकसित होती हैं।
सही विकल्प चुनिए।

(1) A और B दोनों सही हैं
(2) A सही है लेकिन B गलत है
(3) A और B दोनों गलत हैं
(4) A गलत है लेकिन B सही है

Why: पठन और लेखन साथ-साथ विकसित होते हैं और एक-दूसरे को मज़बूत करते हैं। अच्छा पाठक जो शब्द, वाक्य-रचना और शैली पढ़ता है, वही लेखन में काम आती है। इसलिए A सही और B गलत है।

141.सभी भाषाओं में कुछ सर्वसामान्य गुणधर्म होते हैं, इन्हें क्या कहा जाता है?

(1) द्विभाषारूपिता (डिग्लोसिया)
(2) भाषा सार्वभौमिक
(3) प्रयुक्ति
(4) बोलियाँ

Why: वे विशेषताएँ जो हर मानव भाषा में पाई जाती हैं, जैसे संज्ञा-क्रिया का होना या प्रश्न पूछने के तरीके, भाषा सार्वभौमिक (language universals) कहलाती हैं।

142.किसी भी कक्षा में भाषिक विविधता की स्वीकार्यता

(1) भाषा प्रवाह को प्राप्त करने में अवरोध पैदा करेगी
(2) बच्चों के आत्मविश्वास को क्षति पहुँचाएगी जिससे कल्पनाशीलता और रचनात्मकता में क्षति आएगी
(3) भाषा अधिगम में किसी प्रकार का प्रभाव नहीं पड़ेगा
(4) बच्चों के आत्मविश्वास में वृद्धि होगी परिणामस्वरूप उनकी कल्पनाशीलता और रचनात्मकता में वृद्धि होगी

Why: जब कक्षा में बच्चों की घर की भाषा को स्वीकार किया जाता है, तो वे सम्मानित महसूस करते हैं और खुलकर बोलते हैं। इससे उनका आत्मविश्वास, कल्पनाशीलता और रचनात्मकता बढ़ती है।

143.उद्गामी साक्षरता के संदर्भ में मुद्रित सामग्री के प्रति जागरूकता की कौन-सी विशेषता नहीं है?

(1) पुस्तक पकड़ना
(2) अक्षरों और शब्दों के मध्य अंतर की पहचान कर पाना
(3) बाएँ से दाएँ और ऊपर से नीचे की ओर पढ़ पाना
(4) पूरे-पूरे वाक्य पढ़ना आरंभ करना

Why: मुद्रित सामग्री के प्रति जागरूकता का अर्थ है यह समझना कि छपाई कैसे काम करती है: पुस्तक सही पकड़ना, अक्षर और शब्द का अंतर पहचानना, और पढ़ने की दिशा जानना। पूरे वाक्य पढ़ना वास्तविक पठन है, जो बाद का चरण है।

144.नीचे बुनियादी चरण के संदर्भ में पठन कौशल के अधिगम प्रतिफल दिए गए हैं, उन्हें अनुक्रम में व्यवस्थित करें।
A. संक्षिप्त खंड उपयुक्त तान-अनुतान, विराम, ध्वनि में उतार-चढ़ाव के साथ सटीकता और प्रवाह के साथ पढ़ते हैं।
B. परिचित शब्दों के कुछ वाक्यों को सटीकता के साथ पढ़ते हैं।
C. संक्षिप्त खंड उपयुक्त तान-अनुतान और विराम के साथ सटीकता से पढ़ते हैं।
सही विकल्प चुनिए।

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, C, A
(3) A, C, B
(4) C, A, B

Why: पठन पहले परिचित शब्दों के कुछ वाक्यों से शुरू होता है (B), फिर तान-अनुतान और विराम के साथ संक्षिप्त खंड पढ़ना आता है (C), और अंत में प्रवाह व ध्वनि के उतार-चढ़ाव के साथ पढ़ना (A)। हर चरण पिछले पर आधारित है।

145.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा विस्तृत (एक्स्टेन्सिव) श्रवण का भाग नहीं है?

(1) सारांश के लिए श्रवण
(2) मुख्य विचार बिन्दु के लिए श्रवण
(3) निष्कर्ष निकालना
(4) कुछ तथ्यों व सूचनाओं के लिए श्रवण

Why: विस्तृत श्रवण में लंबी सामग्री को समग्र समझ के लिए सुना जाता है: सारांश, मुख्य विचार और निष्कर्ष। विशिष्ट तथ्यों या सूचनाओं के लिए सुनना गहन (चयनात्मक) श्रवण है।

146.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कार्य पठन कौशल के आकलन हेतु प्रयोग में नहीं लाया जा सकता?

(1) सस्वर पठन
(2) पढ़ी गई पाठ्य सामग्री के आधार पर बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न
(3) चित्र के माध्यम से संकेत आधारित शब्द सूचना
(4) अध्यापक द्वारा कथा वाचन

Why: जब अध्यापक कहानी सुनाता है, तो बच्चे सुन रहे होते हैं, पढ़ नहीं रहे। इसलिए इससे पठन का आकलन नहीं हो सकता। बाकी तीनों कार्यों में विद्यार्थियों को स्वयं पढ़ना पड़ता है।

147.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन जारी रहने वाले श्रुतलेख (रनिंग डिक्टेशन) को सही रूप में परिभाषित करता है?

(1) विद्यार्थी पाठ्य सामग्री के विभिन्न अंशों को पढ़ते हैं, तत्पश्चात् कार्य को पूरा करने के लिए एक-दूसरे के साथ सूचनाओं का आदान-प्रदान करते हैं।
(2) बच्चे दो-दो के समूह में कार्य करते हैं। पाठ्य सामग्री को दो अंशों में विभाजित किया जाता है। एक बालक अपने जोड़ीदार के लिए अपना अंश पढ़ता है, दूसरा बालक उसे लिखता है। समूची पाठ्य सामग्री के लिए दोनों मिलकर कार्य करते हैं।
(3) बच्चे दो-दो के जोड़ों में कार्य करते हैं। एक बालक दौड़कर पाठ्य सामग्री देखता है और अपने जोड़ीदार को श्रुतलेख बोलता है, जोड़ीदार उस सामग्री को लिखता है।
(4) अध्यापक समूची कक्षा को शब्दों/पाठ्यसामग्री का श्रुतलेख बोलता है, विद्यार्थी उसे नोट करते हैं।

Why: रनिंग डिक्टेशन में पाठ दूर लगाया जाता है। एक बच्चा दौड़कर उसे देखता है, एक अंश याद करता है और लौटकर जोड़ीदार को लिखवाता है। विकल्प 1 जिगसॉ गतिविधि है, विकल्प 2 आंशिक श्रुतलेख, और विकल्प 4 सामान्य श्रुतलेख।

148.“बालक भाषा अर्जन की सहजात क्षमता के साथ जन्म लेते हैं।” भाषा अर्जन के इस विचार बिन्दु को किसके द्वारा समर्थन दिया गया है?

(1) प्राकृतवादी (नेटीविस्ट)
(2) संज्ञानात्मक वादी
(3) सामाजिक अन्तःक्रियावादी
(4) व्यवहारवादी

Why: चॉम्स्की से जुड़ा प्राकृतवादी (नेटीविस्ट) मत मानता है कि बच्चे भाषा सीखने की जन्मजात क्षमता (भाषा अर्जन उपकरण, LAD) के साथ पैदा होते हैं। व्यवहारवादी भाषा को अनुकरण और पुनर्बलन से सीखी गई मानते हैं।

149.प्रक्रिया लेखन उपागम में लेखन प्रक्रिया का वह तत्त्व क्या कहलाएगा जिसके अंतर्गत लेखक औपचारिक रूप से अपने कार्य को बृहत्तर स्तर पर पाठकों के साथ साझा करते हैं?

(1) प्रारूप तैयार करना
(2) प्रकाशन
(3) संपादन
(4) पुनरावृत्ति

Why: प्रक्रिया लेखन प्रारूप, पुनरावृत्ति और संपादन से होते हुए प्रकाशन तक पहुँचता है। प्रकाशन अंतिम चरण है, जिसमें तैयार रचना पाठकों के साथ साझा की जाती है।

150.किसी पाठ्य सामग्री में आए कठिन शब्दों के संदर्भ में एक अध्यापक उस शब्द को मातृभाषा में बताता है और फिर विद्यार्थियों को याद करने के लिए कहता है। अध्यापक किस विधि का प्रयोग कर रहा है?

(1) व्याकरण अनुवाद विधि
(2) प्रत्यक्ष विधि (डायरेक्ट)
(3) संरचनात्मक उपागम
(4) सम्प्रेषणात्मक उपागम

Why: शब्दों का मातृभाषा में अनुवाद करके उन्हें याद करवाना व्याकरण अनुवाद विधि है। प्रत्यक्ष विधि में मातृभाषा का प्रयोग नहीं किया जाता।

CTET February 2026 — Paper II (Social Studies)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper II (Social Studies)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part III — Social Studies / Social Science

Part IV — Language I — English

Part V — Language II — Hindi

Answer Key

CTET February 2026 — Paper II (Social Studies)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026Paper II (Social Studies)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part III — Social Studies / Social Science

Part IV — Language I — English

Part V — Language II — Hindi

Answer Key

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper II (Social Studies)