MAK LABS — CTET 7 February 2026 Paper II (Social Studies) Question Paper with Answer Key

1.Which debate is highlighted in the following question?
“Does an individual’s biologically determined sex bring with it all the characteristics that define one’s socially constructed gender?”

(1) Nature-Nurture influences on development
(2) Continuous-Discontinuous view of development
(3) Stable-Unstable view of development
(4) Entity-Incremental view of ability

Why: Biological sex is given by nature, while gender is shaped by society, which is nurture. Asking whether the first brings the second with it is the nature–nurture question. The other debates are about the shape of development over time or about whether ability is fixed.

2.A major developmental task during _____ is the search for identity—personal, sexual and occupational.

(1) middle childhood
(2) early childhood
(3) adolescence
(4) middle adulthood

Why: Erikson placed “identity versus role confusion” in adolescence. This is when young people work out who they are, how they relate to others and what work they want to do.

3.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): Children learn values and norms of the society in overt as well as covert ways.
Reason (R): Socialization is the simple process of passing on customs and rituals of the society.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A is true: children pick up values through direct teaching and also through the hidden curriculum of observation and example. R is false: socialization is a complex, two-way process in which children actively interpret what they see, not a simple handing-down of customs and rituals.

4.As per Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, which of the following abilities distinguishes formal operational thinking from concrete operational thinking?

(1) Abstract logic
(2) Conservation
(3) Object permanence
(4) Symbolic play

Why: Concrete operational children reason logically only about real, concrete objects. The formal operational stage adds abstract and hypothetical reasoning. Conservation belongs to the concrete stage, object permanence to the sensorimotor stage and symbolic play to the preoperational stage.

5.A significant critique of Jean Piaget is that he failed to adequately consider the influence of _____ on development.

(1) maturation
(2) culture
(3) experience
(4) activity

Why: Piaget saw development as a universal sequence driven by the child’s own activity and maturation. Critics, Vygotsky above all, pointed out that he paid too little attention to the social and cultural setting in which children grow up.

6.Which of the following is a correctly matched pair?

(1) Punishment and Obedience orientation—Avoidance of bad consequences
(2) Good boy-Good girl orientation—Greatest good for greater numbers
(3) Law and Order orientation—Upholding principles of social justice for humanity
(4) Social Contract orientation—Consideration of perception of others

Why: In Kohlberg’s first stage the child judges an act by whether it leads to punishment, so avoiding bad consequences is the right match. “Greatest good for the greatest number” fits the social contract stage, universal principles of justice fit stage 6, and concern for how others see you fits the good boy–good girl stage.

7.Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky are similar in their belief that

(1) children are involved in the process of meaning making.
(2) language influences and determines thought.
(3) culture has a profound effect on the learning.
(4) development of children takes place in stage-like progression.

Why: Both were constructivists: each saw the child as an active builder of meaning. The role of language in shaping thought and the strong effect of culture are Vygotsky’s ideas, while fixed stages belong to Piaget alone.

8.Lev Vygotsky proposed that

(1) children are born ‘unruly’ and society needs to teach them social behaviours.
(2) children’s thinking is ‘quantitatively’ different from adults.
(3) children’s thinking is ‘qualitatively’ different from adults.
(4) children have a lot of potential which includes tasks they can do with the others’ support.

Why: This describes the Zone of Proximal Development: the range of tasks a child cannot yet do alone but can manage with help from an adult or a more capable peer. The claim that children think qualitatively differently from adults is Piaget’s.

9.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): The purpose of administering intelligence tests and extended observation should be to compare children in specific domains and abilities.
Reason (R): Intelligence is an innate ability and cannot be nurtured.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A is false: tests and observation are meant to understand each child’s strengths and needs so that teaching can support them, not to rank children against one another. R is false too: intelligence has a hereditary base but grows with a rich environment and good teaching.

10.A teacher who consciously takes examples of scientists of all genders in her middle school classroom is trying to—

(1) break gender stereotypes.
(2) reinforce gender discrimination.
(3) enable gender identity.
(4) construct gender constancy.

Why: Showing scientists of every gender challenges the stereotype that science is a male field. Gender constancy is a young child’s understanding that gender does not change, which a middle school lesson is not trying to build.

11.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): All girls are hardworking and sincere while boys are intelligent and dominating.
Reason (R): Two distinctive biological brains produce all differences in physical and cognitive skills as well as personalities and temperament in girls and boys.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A is a gender stereotype: qualities such as hard work or intelligence are not fixed by sex. R is false as well: there are no two separate “male” and “female” brains that produce every difference. Most differences are shaped by upbringing and social expectations.

12.Individual differences in learning preferences of students should be seen as—

(1) abnormal parameter of their differing IQ levels.
(2) cognitive abnormality among some children.
(3) developmental deficits among some children.
(4) normal depiction of diversity.

Why: Children differ in how they prefer to learn, and this is a normal part of human diversity. It is not a sign of abnormality or deficit, and a teacher should plan varied activities to suit it.

13.The kind of assessment in which a student’s scores are compared with the average performance of other students is called

(1) criteria-referenced.
(2) format-referenced.
(3) norm-referenced.
(4) self-referenced.

Why: Norm-referenced assessment places a student against the performance of a group, the norm. Criterion-referenced assessment compares the student with a fixed standard, and self-referenced assessment compares the student with his or her own earlier work.

14.Which of the following statements about classroom assessment are correct?
(i) Assessments should influence the students’ cognitive processes while they study.
(ii) Assessments should serve as learning experiences in themselves.
(iii) Assessments should create fear and stress among students to get them to learn.
(iv) Assessments should be standardized and norm-referenced.
Choose the correct option.

(1) (i), (iii)
(2) (i), (ii)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Why: Good classroom assessment shapes how students think while they learn and is itself a learning experience, so (i) and (ii) are correct. Fear and stress block learning, and classroom assessment is meant to be flexible and formative, not standardized and norm-referenced.

15.Which of the following questions would promote higher-order critical and analytical thinking skills among the students?

(1) Identify the assumptions underlying two newspaper articles depicting the same event.
(2) Identify the nouns mentioned in a specific newspaper article.
(3) Read the newspaper articles and make a list of new words.
(4) Read the newspaper article and think of a suitable title.

Why: Comparing two reports of one event and uncovering what each assumes calls for analysis and evaluation, the top levels of Bloom’s taxonomy. Picking out nouns or new words is recall, and suggesting a title needs only comprehension.

16.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): Students with poor writing abilities are often stereotyped by their teachers as ‘intellectually disabled’.
Reason (R): Teachers tend to have implicit bias and hold assumptions about students’ learning behaviours that can affect students’ growth.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A describes a real and harmful labelling: weak writing is often taken as a sign of low intelligence, though it may come from dysgraphia or lack of practice. R explains why: unexamined bias leads teachers to draw such conclusions, and those low expectations can hold the student back.

17.Which of the following is not a way to promote diversity in the classroom?

(1) Incorporating a variety of perspectives and experiences in the curriculum
(2) Encouraging students to express their unique identities and cultures
(3) Adapting behaviour based on stereotyping students according to their backgrounds and cultures
(4) Providing opportunities for students to interact with individuals from different backgrounds and cultures

Why: Treating students according to stereotypes about their background is discrimination, and it works against diversity. The other three options value and include different perspectives.

18.Which of the following is the correct match of learning disability and challenge caused by it?

(1) Dyscalculia—Impacts ability to read and language processing skills
(2) Dysgraphia—Impacts fine motor skills and spelling
(3) Dyslexia—Impacts ability to learn numbers and arithmetic operations
(4) Dyspraxia—Impacts ability to see, hear and talk properly

Why: Dysgraphia is a writing difficulty, affecting handwriting, the fine motor control behind it, and spelling. Dyscalculia affects numbers and arithmetic, dyslexia affects reading, and dyspraxia affects the planning and coordination of movement.

19.Students struggling with ‘autism’ show ease at

(1) communication with strangers.
(2) eye contact during conversation.
(3) familiar and predictable routines.
(4) rapid transitions between activities.

Why: Children on the autism spectrum usually feel secure with fixed, predictable routines. Talking with strangers, keeping eye contact and switching quickly between activities are typically hard for them.

20.Which of the following statements is not correct about gifted children?

(1) Children can be gifted at different levels and some can have some kind of disability also.
(2) Children can be gifted in more than one kind of intelligence.
(3) Gifted children are born with extraordinary abilities and potential that need to be nurtured.
(4) Gifted children have lower sense of curiosity and poor imagination skills.

Why: Gifted children are usually marked by strong curiosity and a rich imagination, so option 4 is false. A child can be gifted and also have a disability (twice-exceptional), and can be gifted in several areas at once.

21.Error analysis by students

(1) creates further gaps in students’ understanding.
(2) hinders metacognitive skills of students.
(3) is a futile activity in process of learning.
(4) supports students in retaining their learning.

Why: When students examine their own mistakes, they see why an answer went wrong and correct the underlying idea. This strengthens metacognition and helps the corrected learning last.

22.Which of the following statements is correct regarding declarative knowledge and procedural knowledge?

(1) Declarative knowledge emphasizes how to do something.
(2) Declarative knowledge is also known as analytical knowledge.
(3) Procedural knowledge is generally process-oriented in nature.
(4) Procedural knowledge tells the factual knowledge about something.

Why: Procedural knowledge is “knowing how”: the steps of a process or a skill. Declarative knowledge is “knowing that”: facts and concepts. Options 1 and 4 swap the two definitions.

23.Contents which require an extension or modification of existing cognitive structures take _____ time for learning and are retained for _____ duration.

(1) long, long
(2) long, short
(3) short, short
(4) short, long

Why: Changing an existing schema is Piaget’s accommodation, which takes more effort and time than simply adding to what is known. Because the new idea is built into the learner’s structure of understanding, it is also kept for a long time.

24.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): Teachers should encourage children to focus on questions such as “what is my learning goal and what do I need to do to get there”.
Reason (R): When students understand how to self-assess their work performance, they can use this understanding to help themselves learn and progress.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: Questions about one’s own goal and next steps are the heart of self-assessment and self-regulated learning. R gives the reason teachers should encourage them: students who can judge their own work can steer their own progress.

25.In guided discovery approach of learning

(1) learners are left on their own without any kind of intervention by teacher.
(2) no prior planning or previous knowledge is required.
(3) opportunities are provided to learners to construct knowledge for themselves.
(4) teacher acts as a dictator and learners act as listeners.

Why: In guided discovery, learners find things out for themselves while the teacher plans the task and steps in with prompts and hints. It is neither unguided discovery (option 1) nor lecture-style teaching (option 4), and it needs careful planning.

26.Which of the following strategies is not effective while developing conceptual understanding in children?

(1) Presenting a wide range of examples in diverse contexts
(2) Presenting non-examples to show what the concept is not
(3) Asking students to generate their own examples
(4) Asking students to memorize the definition as it is

Why: Learning a definition by heart does not show that a child understands the concept. Varied examples, non-examples and children’s own examples all help them see where the concept begins and ends.

27.An active middle school classroom should be founded on the theoretical principles of

(1) behaviourism
(2) psychodynamism
(3) social constructivism
(4) psychoanalysis

Why: An active classroom has students building knowledge through discussion, collaboration and inquiry, which is the core of Vygotsky’s social constructivism. Behaviourism treats the learner as passive, and the psychodynamic and psychoanalytic schools are theories of personality, not of classroom learning.

28.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): Empathy depends on the ability to understand that others have feelings and to gauge their feelings.
Reason (R): Emotions and cognition are not related to each other.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A is true: empathy needs the understanding that others have their own feelings (theory of mind) and the skill to read them. R is false: A itself shows that emotion and cognition work together, and each shapes the other.

29.A middle school teacher can enable students become strategic self-motivated learners by—

(1) encouraging students to develop their metacognitive knowledge and skills.
(2) providing varied forms of reinforcement for every task completed.
(3) dictating well-prepared answers to questions in the textbook.
(4) stressing upon objective-type testing at the end of the term.

Why: Strategic learners plan, monitor and evaluate their own learning, and these are metacognitive skills. Rewarding every task builds dependence on external reinforcement, and dictated answers or end-of-term tests do nothing to build self-direction.

30.Which of the following exemplifies intrinsic motivation?

(1) Motivation driven by external rewards
(2) Motivation driven by personal interest or enjoyment of the task
(3) Motivation driven by competition with others
(4) Motivation driven by gaining the appreciation of others

Why: Intrinsic motivation comes from inside the learner: the task is done because it is interesting or enjoyable in itself. Rewards, competition and praise are all outside sources, so they are extrinsic.

31.A place, where documents and manuscripts are stored and today all National and State Governments have them, to keep all their old official records and transactions, is called

(1) Secretariat
(2) Library
(3) Parliament
(4) Archive

Why: An archive is a place where documents and manuscripts are preserved. The National Archives of India and the state archives keep old government records for historians and the public.

32.Which of the following statements related to Tamil region is wrong?

(1) Sangam poems mention the Muvendar.
(2) Muvendar is a Tamil word meaning three chiefs used for heads of three ruling families.
(3) The three ruling families were the Cholas, Cheras and Pandyas.
(4) Each of the three chiefs had three centres of power.

Why: According to the NCERT Class VI history text, each of the three chiefs (Cholas, Cheras and Pandyas) had two centres of power: one inland and one on the coast. So “three centres” is the wrong statement.

33.Assertion : The relationship between the State and religion may be a bone of contention in today’s Indian polity, but history presents workable solutions.
Choose the appropriate reason/reasons for the above assertion.
A. Temples were often central to the economy and society.
B. The town of Ramdaspur had developed around the central Gurudwara called Harmandar Sahib.
C. Sufis were Muslim mystics who rejected outward religiosity and emphasized compassion for all fellow human beings.
D. History is about the battles between different States and religions.

(1) Only A, B and C
(2) Only A
(3) Only B
(4) Only D

Why: A, B and C show religion and society working together: temples supported local economies, a town grew around a gurudwara, and the Sufis preached compassion across communities. D is a narrow and misleading view of history, and it does not support the assertion.

34.Unusual for the 12th century, Kalhana used a variety of sources. Unlike the writers of Prashastis, he was often critical about rulers and their practices. His sources include :

(1) earlier histories
(2) earlier histories and eyewitness accounts
(3) earlier histories, eyewitness accounts and documents
(4) earlier histories, eyewitness accounts, documents and inscriptions

Why: For his Rajatarangini, a history of the kings of Kashmir, Kalhana drew on inscriptions, documents, eyewitness accounts and earlier histories. This range of sources is what made his work unusual for its time.

35.Which of the following are true with regard to the Marathas?
A. Shivaji carved out a stable kingdom with the support of powerful warrior families.
B. Powerful warrior families were called ‘Deshmukhs’.
C. Highly mobile, peasant pastoralists were the backbone of the Maratha army.
D. Highly mobile, peasant pastoralists were called ‘Kunbis’.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A and C
(2) Only C and D
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) Only A, B and C

Why: All four statements come directly from the NCERT account. Shivaji built his kingdom with the support of powerful warrior families called deshmukhs, and highly mobile peasant pastoralists called kunbis were the backbone of his army.

36.Historical claim : “The Ahom built a large State.”
Choose the appropriate evidences for the above claim.
A. The Ahoms used firearms to build a large State.
B. The Ahoms made high-quality gunpowder and cannons.
C. The Ahom State depended upon forced labour.
D. In 1662, the Ahoms defeated the Mughals.

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) A, B and D

Why: Firearms, their own gunpowder and cannon, and a victory over a Mughal army all show the military strength that let the Ahoms build and hold a large state. Forced labour is true of how the state was run, but it is not evidence of the state’s size or power.

37.State the validity of the following on peasant revolts :
Assertion : Those who are oppressed do not always rise up in rebellion. They do so only at times.
Reason : In 1859, the Indigo Ryots felt that they had the support of the local Zamindars against the planters.
Conclusion : Women turned up to fight with pots, pans and kitchen implements.

(1) Assertion, Reason and Conclusion all are valid
(2) Only Assertion and Reason are valid
(3) Only Reason and Conclusion are valid
(4) Only Assertion and Conclusion are valid

Why: The NCERT account of the 1859 indigo revolt makes all three points. The oppressed rebel only at certain times; in 1859 the ryots rose because they felt the local zamindars were with them against the planters; and the revolt drew in everyone, with women fighting using pots, pans and kitchen implements.

38.The following are some facts related to Company policies during the second half of the 18th century :
A. Artisans started deserting villages.
B. The Company purchased goods in India by gold and silver.
C. The revenue collected in Bengal could finance the purchase of goods.
D. The Company became the Diwan.
Arrange them in sequence of their occurrence.

(1) B, D, C, A
(2) B, A, C, D
(3) A, B, C, D
(4) C, B, A, D

Why: Before 1765 the Company paid for Indian goods with gold and silver imported from Britain (B). In 1765 it became the Diwan of Bengal (D), after which Bengal’s revenue paid for the goods (C). Weavers, forced to sell cheap to the Company, then began deserting their villages (A).

39.Which of the following institutional developments was/were direct outcome/outcomes of the Wood’s Despatch?
A. Education departments of the government were set up in provinces.
B. Centralization of education under the Governor General took place.
C. Steps were taken to establish a system of university education.
D. Indian Civil Service colleges were set up in England.
Choose the correct option.

(1) One of the above
(2) Two of the above
(3) Three of the above
(4) All of the above

Why: [KEY] The NCERT Class VIII text names two outcomes of the 1854 Despatch: education departments set up to control all matters of education (A), and steps towards university education (C), which would give option 2. The official key credits three. It appears to count B as well, reading the new departments’ control over education as centralization. D has nothing to do with the Despatch.

40.Who amongst the following argued that before Aryan rule, there existed a golden age when warrior-peasants tilled the land and ruled the Maratha countryside in just and fair ways?

(1) Guru Nanak
(2) Ram Mohan Roy
(3) Periyar
(4) Jyotirao Phule

Why: Jyotirao Phule argued that the Aryans were outsiders who conquered the land’s original people, and that before them a golden age existed. He saw the upper castes’ power as the result of that conquest.

41.Consider the following statements on Non-Brahman Movement :
A. The movement came from non-Brahman castes that had acquired access to education.
B. The movement argued that the Aryans were the indigenous races.
C. The movement came from non-Brahman castes with wealth and influence.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A and C are valid
(2) Only B and C are valid
(3) Only C is valid
(4) Only B is valid

Why: The movement began in the early 20th century among non-Brahman castes that had gained education, wealth and influence. It argued the opposite of B: that Brahmans were Aryan outsiders, and that the non-Brahmans were the true indigenous (Dravidian) people.

42.Social insecurities, in any society, result from a sense of alienation. In this context, the Indian Nationalist Movement was a movement :
A. to acknowledge the supremacy of people over the structures of government
B. to do away with the differences of class, colour and language
C. to acknowledge the government as being equal to the God
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only A and B
(4) Only B and C

Why: The national movement worked to make the people sovereign over their government and to unite Indians across class, caste, region and language. Treating the government as equal to God is the opposite of this democratic aim.

43.It was established in Madras (Chennai) in 1864. It worked to abolish caste distinctions and promote widow remarriage and women’s education. It condemned the superstitions and rituals of orthodox Hinduism. Identify the associated movement/organization.

(1) Self-Respect Movement
(2) Veda Samaj
(3) Vedanta Samaj
(4) Theosophical Society

Why: [KEY] The NCERT Class VIII text uses this exact description for the Veda Samaj (option 2), founded in Madras in 1864 and inspired by the Brahmo Samaj. The official key credits option 3, the Vedanta Samaj. The Self-Respect Movement came in the 1920s, and the Theosophical Society was founded in New York in 1875.

44.After the attainment of independence, why did the demand for linguistic States intensify?
A. In the 1920s, the Indian National Congress had promised that after independence each major linguistic group would have its own province.
B. After independence, the Congress did not take any steps to honour its promise of major linguistic groups having its own province.
C. The Kannada, Telugu speakers had looked forward to having their own State. The strongest protest came from Tamil speakers of the Telugu-speaking districts.
D. Nehru and Patel were against the creation of linguistic States.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A, B and C
(2) Only B, C and D
(3) Only A and B
(4) Only C and D

Why: CBSE awarded the mark for every option (key Z), because none of the four combinations is fully right. A, B and D are true: the Congress promised linguistic provinces in the 1920s, took no step after 1947, and Nehru and Patel opposed the idea. C is garbled: the strongest protest came from the Telugu speakers of the Madras Presidency. The correct set, A, B and D, is not offered, and option 3 is the only one with no false statement.

45.In about how many days does the moon move around the earth?

(1) 30 days
(2) 29 days
(3) 28 days
(4) 27 days

Why: The NCERT Class VI geography text says the moon takes about 27 days to go around the earth, which is about 27⅓ days. The cycle of phases seen from the earth takes about 29½ days, because the earth moves around the sun at the same time.

46.Match Column—A with Column—B :

Column—A	Column—B
(a) Tropic of Cancer	(i) 23½° in Southern Hemisphere
(b) Tropic of Capricorn	(ii) 23½° in Northern Hemisphere
(c) Arctic Circle	(iii) 66½° South of the Equator
(d) Antarctic Circle	(iv) 66½° North of the Equator

Choose the correct option.

(1) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
(3) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)
(4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)

Why: The Tropic of Cancer is at 23½° N and the Tropic of Capricorn at 23½° S. The Arctic Circle is at 66½° N and the Antarctic Circle at 66½° S.

47.Which one of the following is not correct about the earth?

(1) The earth is the third nearest planet to the sun
(2) In size, the earth is the fifth largest planet
(3) Rotation is the movement of the earth around the sun
(4) The shape of the earth is described as a geoid

Why: The earth’s movement around the sun is revolution. Rotation is its spin on its own axis. The other three statements are correct.

48.Read the two statements carefully :
Statement A : At any place, a watch can be adjusted to read 12 o’clock when the sun is at the highest point in the sky, i.e., when it is mid-day.
Statement B : The time shown by such a watch will give the local time for that place.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and B are true
(2) Both A and B are false
(3) A is true but B is false
(4) A is false but B is true

Why: Local time is based on the sun: it is noon at a place when the sun is highest in its sky. A watch set to 12 at that moment shows the local time of that place, so both statements are true.

49.Ecosystem is formed by :

(1) lithosphere and biosphere
(2) all plants, animals and human beings
(3) interrelationship between organisms and their surroundings
(4) atmosphere and hydrosphere

Why: An ecosystem is a system formed by the interaction of all living things with each other and with their physical surroundings. The other options list only some parts of it, with no interaction.

50.Read the statements A and B carefully :
A : Human beings interact with the environment and modify it according to their need.
B : A perfect balance is necessary between the natural and human environment.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and B are true and B explains A
(2) Both A and B are true but B does not explain A
(3) A is true but B is false
(4) A is false but B is true

Why: Both are true. But B does not explain why humans modify the environment; that happens because of their needs. B is a separate point about how that change should be managed.

51.Why is tourism a major activity in Ladakh—the cold desert of India?
A. Visits to Gompas
B. Treks to see meadows and glaciers
C. Witnessing ceremonies and festivities
D. It is flat plain area
Choose the correct option.

(1) A, C and D
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, B and D
(4) A, B and C

Why: Tourists come to Ladakh to visit the gompas (monasteries), trek to meadows and glaciers, and watch its ceremonies and festivals. Ladakh is a high, mountainous region, not a flat plain, so D is false.

52.Which one of the following gases is the second most plentiful gas in the air?

(1) Nitrogen
(2) Oxygen
(3) Carbon dioxide
(4) Hydrogen

Why: Air is about 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, so oxygen is second. Carbon dioxide is only a small fraction of one per cent.

53.Given below are four statements :
A : High pressure is associated with clear sunny skies.
B : Air pressure is not influenced by temperature of air.
C : Low pressure is associated with cloudy skies and wet weather.
D : Air always moves from high-pressure to low-pressure areas.
Choose the true statements about air pressure and temperature.

(1) A, B and C
(2) A, B and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) B, C and D

Why: Temperature does affect pressure: warm air rises and creates low pressure, and cold, sinking air creates high pressure. So B is false. A, C and D are the standard textbook facts.

54.Read the statements A and B carefully :
A : Inland waterways and sea routes have been used for transport since early days.
B : Waterways are the cheapest for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and B are true
(2) Both A and B are false
(3) A is true but B is false
(4) A is false but B is true

Why: Rivers and seas have carried people and goods since ancient times, and water transport is still the cheapest way to move heavy, bulky cargo over long distances. Both statements are true.

55.Many species of plants and animals have become vulnerable or endangered and some are on the verge of extinction. Choose the reasons from the following :
A. Afforestation
B. Landslides
C. Constructional activities
D. Poaching of animals

(1) A, C and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, B and D

Why: Landslides, construction and poaching all destroy habitats or kill wildlife. Afforestation, planting new forests, helps species survive, so it cannot be a cause.

56.Read the statements A and B carefully :
A : Potential resources are those resources whose entire quantity may not be known.
B : These resources are not being used at present.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and B are true
(2) Both A and B are false
(3) A is true but B is false
(4) A is false but B is true

Why: NCERT defines potential resources as those whose entire quantity may not be known and which are not being used at present, such as the uranium in Ladakh. Both statements are part of that definition.

57.Match Column—A with Column—B :

Column—A	Column—B
(a) Sericulture	(i) Growing vegetables, flowers and fruits for commercial use
(b) Pisciculture	(ii) Cultivation of grapes
(c) Viticulture	(iii) Breeding of fish
(d) Horticulture	(iv) Commercial rearing of silkworms

Choose the correct option.

(1) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)
(3) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
(4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)

Why: Sericulture is rearing silkworms, pisciculture is breeding fish, viticulture is growing grapes, and horticulture is growing vegetables, flowers and fruits for sale.

58.Which of the following is not included in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

(1) Equality
(2) Liberty
(3) Freedom
(4) Justice

Why: The Preamble promises Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity. The word it uses is “Liberty” (of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship); “Freedom” does not appear.

59.A situation where a person does not have resources and opportunities that are available to other persons is known as

(1) diversity
(2) inequality
(3) difference
(4) otherness

Why: Inequality means some people are denied the resources and opportunities that others have. Diversity and difference simply mean people are not all alike, which is not in itself unfair.

60.Which of the following is/are not characteristic/characteristics of democratic government?
A. Indirect participation of people in decision making
B. The Prime Minister has absolute power
C. Explain and defend its actions to the people
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only A and C
(4) Only B and C

Why: In a representative democracy people take part in decisions indirectly, through elected representatives, and the government must explain and defend its actions to them. No one holds absolute power in a democracy, the Prime Minister included, so B is the odd one out.

61.Which of the following functions does not come under the jurisdiction of Municipal Corporations?

(1) Education
(2) Making laws
(3) Maintaining law and order
(4) Developing parks

Why: Municipal corporations run local services such as schools, parks, water and sanitation. Laws are made by Parliament and the state legislatures, and law and order is kept by the state police. Both options 2 and 3 are outside a corporation’s powers, and CBSE accepted either (key D).

62.Which of the following sequences in context of market chain is correct?

(1) Wholesaler—Retailer—Producer—Consumer
(2) Wholesaler—Producer—Retailer—Consumer
(3) Producer—Retailer—Wholesaler—Consumer
(4) Producer—Wholesaler—Retailer—Consumer

Why: Goods begin with the producer, go in bulk to a wholesaler, then to retailers who sell in small quantities, and finally reach the consumer.

63.Read the following statements in reference to agricultural labourers :
Statement A : Employment guarantee programmes in rural areas can decrease migration from rural to urban areas.
Statement B : One of the main reasons for rural to urban migration has been the higher income jobs available in urban areas.
Choose the correct option.

(1) A is true but B is false
(2) A is false but B is true
(3) Both A and B are true and B is the reason for A
(4) Both A and B are true but B is not the reason for A

Why: Both are true. Guaranteed work in villages, as under MGNREGA, reduces distress migration, and better-paid city jobs pull people to towns. But B explains why people migrate, not why employment guarantee reduces migration; that follows from people having work at home. So B is not the reason for A.

64.Match Column—A with Column—B :

Column—A (Panchayati Raj Institutions)	Column—B (Tasks)
(a) Gram Sabha	(i) Regulating the money among Gram Panchayats
(b) Gram Panchayat	(ii) Coordinating the activities of the various Panchayats within its jurisdiction
(c) Janpad Panchayat	(iii) Approving BPL list
(d) Zila Parishad	(iv) Maintaining water sources

Choose the correct option.

(1) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
(4) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)

Why: The Gram Sabha, the meeting of all village voters, approves the BPL list. The Gram Panchayat does local works such as maintaining water sources. The Janpad (block) Panchayat coordinates the panchayats under it. The Zila Parishad plans at district level and distributes funds among the Gram Panchayats.

65.What does ‘double burden’ refer to?

(1) Boys are expected to be physically as well as emotionally strong
(2) Pressure on men to get high-salaried job and not be emotionally weak
(3) Women doing household chores and working outside the home too
(4) Young girls doing the household chores and looking after the younger siblings too

Why: The NCERT Class VII text uses “double burden” for women who work outside the home and still carry almost all the housework. It points out that housework is unpaid and rarely recognised as real work.

66.The _____ protect citizens against the arbitrary and absolute exercise of power by the State.

(1) Political Rights
(2) Human Rights
(3) Fundamental Rights
(4) Directive Principles of State Policy

Why: The Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Constitution protect citizens against arbitrary use of power by the State, and they can be enforced in court. The Directive Principles guide policy but cannot be enforced in court.

67.Which of the following acts violate Article 21 of the Constitution of India?
A. A sanitation staff not getting minimum wages fixed by the government
B. Private schools charging exorbitant fees from students
C. A textile company contaminating the groundwater which is a source of drinking water
D. Denying hawkers to carry on their trade on the pavements
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A and B
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only A and C
(4) Only B and D

Why: Courts have read Article 21, the right to life, as a right to live with dignity. That includes a fair wage for one’s labour (A) and access to safe drinking water and a clean environment (C). High school fees are a matter of fee regulation, and street trading comes under the freedom to carry on a trade in Article 19, not Article 21.

68.Consider the following statements :
Statement A : If an FIR has been registered for a cognizable offence, the police can detain any relative of the accused for 24 hours.
Statement B : The police investigation includes collecting different kinds of evidence.
Choose the correct option.

(1) A is true but B is false
(2) A is false but B is true
(3) Both A and B are true and B is the reason for A
(4) Both A and B are true but B is not the reason for A

Why: A is false: the police have no power to hold an accused person’s relatives. Even an arrested person must be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours. B is true: investigation means recording statements and collecting evidence of different kinds.

69.Which of the following could be an appropriate way to counter the marginalization of Adivasis?

(1) Ask them to migrate to cities
(2) Showcase their culture as exotic in media
(3) Appeal them to adapt into the ways of living of majority community
(4) Teach their history in schools

Why: Teaching Adivasi history in schools gives their communities recognition and respect and breaks stereotypes. Showing them as exotic, or pressing them to give up their own way of life, deepens their marginalization.

70.Which of the following communities has/have been provided constitutional safeguards by enacting the Prevention of Atrocities Act in 1989?
A. Minorities
B. Women
C. Scheduled Castes
D. Scheduled Tribes
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C and D
(4) Only A, C and D

Why: Its full name is the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. It protects Dalits and Adivasis only.

71.The boundaries of disciplines that make up the social sciences need to be opened up and a plurality of approaches may be applied to understand a given phenomenon. What is this approach called?

(1) Interdisciplinary thinking
(2) Bounded knowledge
(3) Scientific inquiry
(4) Utilitarianism

Why: Using history, geography, political science and economics together to study a single topic is the interdisciplinary approach that NCF 2005 recommends for the social sciences.

72.Which of the following is foundational logic in the drafting of syllabi of social science?

(1) Inclusion of local perception
(2) Focusing on utilitarian aspects
(3) Developing more instructive textbooks
(4) Epistemic shift towards patriarchal nationalist frame

Why: NCF 2005 asks that the social science syllabus draw on local knowledge and learners’ own experiences. It moves away from a narrow utilitarian focus, from purely instructive texts and from a patriarchal frame.

73.The concept of a ‘fair trial’ is an important one while talking about the criminal justice system. To teach this concept, you narrate to the students the story of a person who has been accused of theft and what happens thereafter at the police station and later in the court. What pedagogical resource have you used here?

(1) Survey data
(2) Case study
(3) Charts
(4) Political cartoon

Why: Following one real or realistic case through its stages is a case study. The NCERT Class VIII chapter on the judiciary teaches fair trial through a case of this kind.

74.Which of the following should be followed by the teacher in his/her classroom to promote meaningful learning?

(1) Giving recall-based tasks to the students
(2) Giving easy tasks to the students
(3) Promoting the ‘culture of quizzing’ among the students
(4) Giving those tasks to the students which are challenging

Why: Challenging tasks make students think, connect ideas and build understanding, which is what meaningful learning means. Recall tasks, easy tasks and quizzing mostly test memory.

75.Below are two statements, one of them is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options :
Assertion (A): The study of social science helps the learners in understanding the contemporary society better.
Reason (R): Social science education aims at providing students essential knowledge, skills and attitude necessary for self-development and also for becoming an effective member of the society.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

Why: Social science helps learners understand the society they live in because it aims to give them the knowledge, skills and attitudes needed to take part in that society. R states the aim that leads to the outcome in A.

76.Teaching social science is a

(1) personal activity
(2) professional activity
(3) process of transmission of facts
(4) coaching for memorization

Why: Teaching social science is a professional activity that needs subject knowledge, teaching skill and planning. It is not just passing on facts or coaching students to memorise.

77.Which of the following is/are the most suitable teaching-learning material/materials to explain different parts of the earth to the students?
A. Globe
B. Map
C. Atlas
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) Only A

Why: A globe shows the whole earth in its true shape, and a map shows any part of it in detail on a flat surface. Together they explain the parts of the earth best. An atlas is simply a book of maps.

78.Which of the following pedagogical techniques should be used by teachers for making social science enjoyable for students?
A. Organization of visits to museum
B. Celebration of Social Science Week
C. Encouraging watching of night sky
D. Sharing large statistical data related to social facts
Choose the correct option.

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) A, B and D

Why: Museum visits, a Social Science Week and watching the night sky, which links to the geography of the earth and the solar system, are active and enjoyable. Large tables of statistics tend to make the subject dry for learners.

79.Below are two statements. Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options :
Statement I : Meaningful learning in social science is a generative process of storage and retrieval of information.
Statement II : Thinking, language (verbal or sign) and doing things are intimately intertwined.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Why: NCF 2005 describes meaningful learning as a generative process of constructing knowledge, not the storage and retrieval of information, so I is false. II is true: thought, language and action develop together.

80.Below are two statements. Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options :
Statement I : In a democratic setup, centralization of power such as the ‘Panchayati Raj System’ has gained importance.
Statement II : ‘Panchayati Raj System’ aims at raising the levels of participation and involvement of people.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Why: Panchayati Raj is decentralization: it moves power down to villages and districts, so I is false. II is true, because the aim of that shift is to increase people’s participation in local government.

81.The ‘Sabhas’ in the reign of Pallava, through their subcommittees, performed various works such as irrigation, road construction, maintenance of local temples, etc. Which of the following child-centred activities can be done to acquaint the students with the nuances of their functioning?
A. Description of work division on the school campus
B. Example of different groups created for classroom management
C. Getting a real tour of the Sabhas of the reign of Pallava
D. Getting a tour of the Sabhas of the reign of Pallava through audio-visual material
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, B and D

Why: Comparing the Sabha’s committees with how work is divided in the school and the class links the past to what children already know, and audio-visual material can show the historical setting. A “real tour” of Pallava-era Sabhas is impossible, since those assemblies no longer exist.

82.To ensure that social science teaching moves away from an excessive emphasis on developmental issues to an understanding of issues related to justice and dignity, there needs to be a shift in focus from utilitarianism to _____.

(1) altruism
(2) consequentialism
(3) egalitarianism
(4) existentialism

Why: The NCF 2005 position paper on social sciences calls for a shift from utilitarian concerns towards equality, justice and human dignity, which is an egalitarian outlook.

83.Below are two statements, one of them is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options :
Assertion (A): An important aspect of social science is the possibility of having different shades or at times even diametrically opposite answers.
Reason (R): It is critical for a social science teacher to move away from the age-old habit of preaching to the pulpit.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

Why: Both are true. Social questions often have several valid answers, and teachers should stop lecturing students. But A is a feature of the subject itself; R is advice about how to teach it, so R does not explain A.

84.The use of iron in the Indian subcontinent began about 3000 years ago. What task would you give to your students to develop their understanding on such historical episodes?
A. Reviewing the book ‘What Happened in History’ written by Gordon Childe
B. Meeting someone from the traditional blacksmithing community of your area and gathering information
C. Visiting a factory under the supervision of a teacher and noting down the process of making iron
D. Collecting information by visiting any Megalithic site located in the Deccan under the supervision of a teacher
Choose the correct option.

(1) A, B and C
(2) A, C and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) Only A

Why: Talking to a blacksmith, watching iron being made and visiting a megalithic site where early iron objects have been found are hands-on, age-appropriate tasks. Reviewing an academic book by an archaeologist is beyond middle school learners.

85.How will you assess the students through the ‘project of wallpaper’?
A. Seeing the selection of the subjects by the students
B. Seeing the presentation on the subject matter by the students
C. Asking follow-up questions after the presentation on the topic by the students
D. Asking follow-up questions before the presentation on the topic by the students
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B
(2) A, B and C
(3) A and D
(4) A, C and D

Why: A wallpaper project can be assessed at each stage: how students chose their topic, how they presented it, and how they answered follow-up questions afterwards. A follow-up question cannot come before the presentation it follows, so D does not make sense.

86.Which of the following statements is not true about formative assessments?

(1) Formative assessments are a way for teachers to frequently check students’ progress in a course.
(2) The main objective of such tests is to make a final judgement about whether students have met the learning goals of the course.
(3) They allow teachers to modify their own teaching strategies through ongoing feedback.
(4) They are diagnostic in nature.

Why: Making a final judgement at the end of a course is the purpose of summative assessment. Formative assessment is ongoing and diagnostic, and teachers use it to adjust their teaching.

87.Which of the following is true about testing?

(1) It is a ground for critical examination
(2) It is not a standard for comparison
(3) It is a ground for admission only
(4) It is not a trial of a student’s qualities

Why: A test is a structured way of examining a learner’s knowledge and abilities critically. Tests are also used for comparison and to judge a student’s qualities, and admission is only one of their uses, so the other three options are false.

88.Below are two statements. Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options :
Statement I : Learning is a continuous process.
Statement II : Learning cannot take place outside the school premises.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Why: Learning goes on all through life, and much of it happens at home, in the community and through daily experience. NCF 2005 asks schools to connect learning with life outside school, so II is false.

89.Below are two statements, one of them is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options :
Assertion (A): Testing has a diagnostic function to indicate the presence or absence of a characteristic.
Reason (R): Testing is an event or a situation that comprises a set of questions or problems that analyze a person’s quality of learning or determine his knowledge, abilities, etc.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

Why: Because a test is a set of questions designed to analyse a learner’s knowledge and abilities (R), it can reveal whether a particular skill or characteristic is present or missing (A). R explains A.

90.Below are two statements. Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options :
Statement I : In school education, paper-pencil tests are the only way of testing the learners.
Statement II : During the testing in schools, values or numbers are assigned to represent that the learner has performed.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Why: Oral tests, projects, observation and portfolios are also ways of assessing learners, so I is false. II is true: marks or grades are assigned to show how the learner has performed.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

91._____ की परम्परा का वर्णन नहीं है।

(1) लोक-साहित्य
(2) लोक-विज्ञान
(3) लोक-गीत
(4) लोक-शास्त्र

Why: गद्यांश के पहले ही वाक्य में लोक-साहित्य, लोक-विज्ञान और लोक-शास्त्र की परम्परा का उल्लेख है। लोक-गीत की परम्परा की बात गद्यांश में कहीं नहीं है।

92.मौखिक परम्परा की विशेषता नहीं है

(1) शिक्षा का कंठस्थ होना
(2) शिक्षा का पीढ़ियों तक जीवित रहना
(3) शिक्षा का पीढ़ी-दर-पीढ़ी चलना
(4) किताबों की जरूरत होना

Why: गद्यांश स्पष्ट कहता है कि मौखिक परम्परा में “किताबों की भी जरूरत नहीं थी”। शिक्षा कंठस्थ होती थी और पीढ़ी-दर-पीढ़ी जीवित रहती थी।

93.लोकशाला के लिए उचित वक्तव्य है

(1) यह स्वावलंबी एवं निःशुल्क शिक्षा देती थी
(2) परिवार एक से अधिक ग्रंथों को जीवित रखता था
(3) शिक्षा उदरस्थ फिर हृदयस्थ होती थी
(4) समाज से इसके लिए शुल्क लिया जाता था

Why: गद्यांश लोकशाला को “एक स्वावलंबी एवं निःशुल्क शिक्षा व्यवस्था” कहता है। शिक्षा पहले कंठस्थ, फिर हृदयस्थ और उसके बाद उदरस्थ होती थी, इसलिए विकल्प 3 का क्रम उलटा है। एक व्यक्ति या परिवार के साथ एक-एक ग्रंथ जीवित रहता था, एक से अधिक नहीं।

94.लोकशाला के संदर्भ में किस बात की जरूरत नहीं है?

(1) लोकशालाएँ स्थापित करने की
(2) लोकोन्मुखी बनने की
(3) लोकशालाओं में किताबी ज्ञान देने की
(4) लोकशालाओं में अनुभवी लोगों को बुलाने की

Why: लेखक लोकशालाएँ स्थापित करने, लोकोन्मुखी बनने और सत्तर बरस से ऊपर के अनुभवी लोगों को आमंत्रित करने की जरूरत बताते हैं। लोकशाला का आधार अनुभव है, किताबी ज्ञान नहीं।

95.लोकशाला में क्या सीखने को मिलेगा?

(1) पुस्तकों में संकलित ज्ञान
(2) पुस्तकेतर अनुभव-आधारित ज्ञान
(3) संसार में उपलब्ध समस्त ज्ञान
(4) गूगल या वेब पर उपलब्ध ज्ञान

Why: गद्यांश के अंत में कहा गया है कि लोकशाला में ऐसी कई बातें सीखने को मिलेंगी जो आज तक विश्व की किसी भी पुस्तक का हिस्सा नहीं बन सकी हैं। यह पुस्तकों से बाहर का, अनुभव पर आधारित ज्ञान है।

96.गद्यांश के अनुसार अनुभव-सिद्ध समुदाय का अंग नहीं है

(1) वयोवृद्ध वैज्ञानिक
(2) वयोवृद्ध पशुपालक
(3) वयोवृद्ध कारीगर
(4) वयोवृद्ध कृषक

Why: लेखक अनुभव-सिद्ध समुदाय में माताओं, बहनों और वयोवृद्ध कृषक, पशुपालक एवं कारीगर भाइयों को गिनाते हैं। वैज्ञानिकों का उल्लेख नहीं है।

97.भिन्न शब्द पहचानिए :

(1) सायास
(2) सजग
(3) साहित्य
(4) सुदीर्घ

Why: सायास, सजग और सुदीर्घ तीनों विशेषण हैं (प्रयासपूर्वक, सावधान, बहुत लंबा)। ‘साहित्य’ संज्ञा है, इसलिए वह भिन्न है।

98.‘कुदरती संसाधनों के उपयोग की मर्यादा’ का आशय है

(1) मनमर्जी से संसाधनों का उपयोग
(2) कुदरती संसाधनों का अनाप-शनाप उपयोग
(3) विकास के लिए कुदरती संसाधनों का दोहन
(4) आवश्यक होने पर ही कुदरती संसाधनों का उपयोग

Why: ‘मर्यादा’ का अर्थ है सीमा। संसाधनों के उपयोग की मर्यादा का अर्थ है उन्हें केवल ज़रूरत भर, संयम से उपयोग करना। बाकी तीनों विकल्प सीमा तोड़ने की बात करते हैं।

99.‘लोकोन्मुखी’ का संधि-विच्छेद है

(1) लोक+ओन्मुखी
(2) लोकोन्+मुखी
(3) लोक+उन्मुखी
(4) लोकोत्+मुखी

Why: लोक + उन्मुखी में अ + उ = ओ होता है, इसलिए यह गुण संधि है और शब्द बनता है ‘लोकोन्मुखी’।

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

100.कवि अपने मन को अधीर होने से क्यों रोक रहा है?

(1) क्योंकि नाग घूम रहे हैं
(2) क्योंकि दानवता की चमू खिलखिला रही है
(3) क्योंकि धुआँ ही धुआँ है
(4) क्योंकि धरती की कोमल किरण जूझ रही है

Why: चारों ओर के अंधकार के बीच कवि आशा का कारण देखता है: इस व्यूह के बीच धरती की एक कोमल किरण जूझ रही है। इसलिए वह मन से कहता है कि अधीर मत हो। बाकी विकल्प निराशा के कारण हैं, धैर्य के नहीं।

101.‘छा रहा चतुर्दिक विकट धूम’ का आशय है

(1) चारों कोनों में बहुत अधिक धुआँ है
(2) चारों ओर बहुत कम धुआँ है
(3) चारों दिशाओं में भयंकर धुआँ है
(4) चारों ओर बहुत अधिक धुआँ है

Why: ‘चतुर्दिक’ का अर्थ है चारों दिशाओं में, ‘विकट’ का अर्थ है भयंकर और ‘धूम’ का अर्थ है धुआँ। विकल्प 4 ‘विकट’ को केवल ‘अधिक’ कर देता है, इसलिए वह पूरा सही अर्थ नहीं है।

102.बचाव/त्राण कहाँ है?

(1) शेष बचे भोगों में
(2) कोमल किरण के जूझने में
(3) दानवता की चमू सजने में
(4) कुटिल नागों के घूमने में

Why: कवि पहले पूछता है “पर, त्राण कहाँ?” और अंत में उत्तर देता है कि धरती की कोमल किरण इस व्यूह के बीच जूझ रही है। वही संघर्ष बचाव की आशा है। बाकी सब संकट के रूप हैं।

103.नागों का गुण नहीं है

(1) विषैला होना
(2) कुटिल होना
(3) घुमक्कड़ होना
(4) निर्भय होना

Why: कविता नागों को “विष के मतवाले” (विषैले), “कुटिल” और “निर्भय” कहती है; ये उनके गुण हैं। वे फन जोड़े घूम रहे हैं, पर यह इस समय की क्रिया है; उन्हें घुमक्कड़ स्वभाव का नहीं बताया गया।

104.भिन्न शब्द चुनिए :

(1) दानवता
(2) कुटिल
(3) कोमलता
(4) मानवता

Why: [KEY] व्याकरण के आधार पर ‘कुटिल’ (विकल्प 2) भिन्न है: वह विशेषण है, जबकि दानवता, कोमलता और मानवता तीनों ‘-ता’ प्रत्यय वाली भाववाचक संज्ञाएँ हैं। आधिकारिक कुंजी ‘कोमलता’ को सही मानती है। संभवतः इसलिए कि दानवता और मानवता संज्ञा (दानव, मानव) से बनी हैं, जबकि कोमलता विशेषण (कोमल) से बनी है।

105.‘हो अधीर मत मानवते!’ में _____ अलंकार है।

(1) रूपक
(2) उत्प्रेक्षा
(3) मानवीकरण
(4) उपमा

Why: कवि ‘मानवता’ को एक व्यक्ति की तरह संबोधित करता है और उससे अधीर न होने को कहता है। किसी भाव या अमूर्त वस्तु पर मानवीय व्यवहार का आरोप मानवीकरण अलंकार है।

106.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा भाषा में अर्थ के पहलुओं से संबंधित है?

(1) स्वनिम
(2) अर्थग्राम
(3) वाक्य-विन्यास
(4) आकृतिमूलक

Why: अर्थ से संबंधित अध्ययन अर्थविज्ञान (semantics) है, और विकल्पों में उसी का सूचक ‘अर्थग्राम’ है। स्वनिम ध्वनि से, वाक्य-विन्यास वाक्य-रचना से और आकृतिमूलक शब्द-रचना से संबंधित हैं।

107.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा भाषा अधिगम का सिद्धांत नहीं है?

(1) भाषा अधिगम में कौशल और ज्ञान दोनों में ही निपुणता शामिल है
(2) शिक्षार्थियों की अधिगम के प्रति उपागमों की अपनी-अपनी प्राथमिकता हो सकती है
(3) भाषा सम्प्रेषण के लिए एक उपकरण है
(4) भाषा व्याकरण की संरचना/नियमों के कंठस्थीकरण के माध्यम से सीखी जाती है

Why: भाषा सार्थक प्रयोग से सीखी जाती है, व्याकरण के नियम रटने से नहीं। बाकी तीनों कथन भाषा अधिगम के स्वीकृत सिद्धांत हैं।

108.कक्षा छः का एक अध्यापक श्यामपट्ट के बिलकुल मध्य में एक शब्द लिखता है और शिक्षार्थियों से उन सभी शब्दों के बारे में सोचने-विचारने के लिए कहता है, जो मध्य में लिखे इस शब्द से संबंधित हों। इस गतिविधि का मुख्य उद्देश्य क्या है?

(1) लेखन-कौशल समृद्ध करना
(2) शिक्षार्थियों की शब्द-संपदा में सुधार करना
(3) व्याकरण के प्रति समझ बनाना
(4) पठन कौशल समृद्ध करना

Why: यह शब्द-जाल (word web) की गतिविधि है। एक केंद्रीय शब्द से जुड़े अनेक शब्द सोचने से शब्द-भंडार बढ़ता और व्यवस्थित होता है।

109.निम्नलिखित कथनों को पढ़िए :
अभिकथन (A) : शुरुआती वर्षों में भाषाओं के अधिगम में देरी करना बच्चों के लिए नई भाषाओं के अर्जन में कठिनाई पैदा करता है।
कारण (R) : बच्चों के शुरुआती वर्ष भाषा अर्जन के लिए बहुत ही संवेदनशील अवधि होती है।
सही विकल्प चुनिए।

(1) A और R दोनों सही हैं तथा R, A की सही व्याख्या है।
(2) A और R दोनों सही हैं तथा R, A की सही व्याख्या नहीं है।
(3) A सही नहीं है तथा R सही है।
(4) A सही है तथा R सही नहीं है।

Why: शुरुआती वर्षों में बच्चे भाषाएँ विशेष सहजता से सीखते हैं; यह संवेदनशील अवधि है। इस अवधि को चूकने से बाद में भाषा सीखना कठिन हो जाता है, इसलिए R, A की सही व्याख्या है।

110.बहुभाषावाद के संदर्भ में बुनियादी चरण के राष्ट्रीय पाठ्यचर्या रूपरेखा (2022) का एक मुख्य सिद्धांत है

(1) कक्षा की बहुभाषिक प्रकृति पाठ्यचर्या के प्रभावशाली सम्प्रेषण में अवरोधक के रूप में कार्य करती है
(2) बच्चे अपने शुरुआती वर्षों में नाना प्रकार की मौखिक भाषाएँ नहीं सीख पाते हैं
(3) बहुभाषावाद के संज्ञानात्मक और सामाजिक/सांस्कृतिक दोनों ही लाभ हैं
(4) बच्चों को अपने घर की भाषा भूलने में मदद करनी चाहिए और विद्यालय का मुख्य केन्द्र इस बात पर होना चाहिए कि बच्चे विद्यालय की भाषा सीखें

Why: NCF-FS 2022 बहुभाषिकता को एक शक्ति मानती है, जिसके संज्ञानात्मक और सामाजिक-सांस्कृतिक लाभ हैं। वह कहती है कि छोटे बच्चे कई भाषाएँ सहजता से सीखते हैं और घर की भाषा को आधार बनाना चाहिए, भुलाना नहीं।

111.कुछ वाक् समुदायों में एक ही भाषा के विविध प्रकार साथ-साथ विद्यमान हैं, सभी प्रकारों के सामाजिक कार्यों की विशिष्ट शृंखला है। इस स्थिति को किस रूप में वर्णित किया जाएगा?

(1) कोड मिश्रण (मिक्सिंग)
(2) प्रयुक्ति
(3) द्विभाषारूपिता (डिग्लॉसिया)
(4) बोली

Why: जब एक समुदाय एक ही भाषा के दो रूपों का प्रयोग अलग-अलग सामाजिक कार्यों के लिए करता है (जैसे औपचारिक “उच्च” रूप और रोज़मर्रा का “निम्न” रूप), तो उसे द्विभाषारूपिता (डिग्लॉसिया) कहते हैं।

112.बच्चे अपने-अपने जोड़ीदार के साथ कार्य करते हैं। एक पाठ्य सामग्री को दो खंडों में विभाजित किया जाता है। एक बालक अपनी पाठ्य सामग्री अपने जोड़ीदार को पढ़कर सुनाता है और दूसरा बालक उसे सुनकर लिखता है। फिर दोनों समूची पाठ्य सामग्री पर कार्य करते हैं। इस गतिविधि को क्या कहेंगे?

(1) जारी रहने वाला श्रुतलेख (रनिंग डिक्टेशन)
(2) शब्द जाल
(3) आंशिक श्रुतलेख
(4) कथा वाचन

Why: हर बच्चे के पास पाठ का केवल एक भाग है और वे एक-दूसरे को बोलकर लिखवाते हुए पूरा पाठ बनाते हैं। यह आंशिक श्रुतलेख है। रनिंग डिक्टेशन में बच्चा दूर लगे पाठ तक दौड़कर जाता है और उसके अंश याद करके लिखवाता है।

113.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा भाषा की कक्षा में साहित्यिक पठन सामग्री के अध्ययन के बारे में सही नहीं है?

(1) साहित्यिक पठन सामग्री का प्रयोग व्याकरण शिक्षण के लिए किया जाना चाहिए
(2) साहित्यिक पठन सामग्री भाषा अधिगम के लिए सांस्कृतिक निवेश है
(3) साहित्यिक पठन सामग्री समालोचनात्मक चिंतन और विमर्श विकसित करती है
(4) साहित्यिक पठन सामग्री सराहना और आनंद के लिए है

Why: साहित्य आनंद, सराहना, सांस्कृतिक समझ और चिंतन के लिए पढ़ाया जाता है। कविता या कहानी को मुख्यतः व्याकरण अभ्यास की सामग्री बना देना उसके उद्देश्य के विपरीत है।

114.कक्षा छः के विद्यार्थी नवीन को पाठ्य सामग्री के पठन में कठिनाई महसूस होती है। अध्यापक उसे कुछ सरल स्तर की पाठ्य सामग्री पढ़ने के लिए देता है। अध्यापक उसके लिए साझा पठन सत्रों का भी आयोजन करता है। अध्यापक द्वारा दी जा रही इस मदद को क्या कहा जाएगा?

(1) पठन तत्परता
(2) अवलम्बन (स्कैफोल्डिंग)
(3) मानस मंथन
(4) मेल-मिलाप करवाना (आइस-ब्रेकिंग)

Why: शिक्षार्थी के स्तर के अनुसार दी गई अस्थायी सहायता, जैसे सरल सामग्री और साथ बैठकर पढ़ना, जो उसकी प्रगति के साथ धीरे-धीरे हटा ली जाती है, अवलम्बन (स्कैफोल्डिंग) कहलाती है।

115.भाषा शिक्षण-अधिगम का कौन-सा उपागम इस मत में विश्वास करता है कि ‘भाषा एक आदत है’?

(1) श्रव्यभाषावाद
(2) सम्प्रेषणात्मक भाषा-शिक्षण
(3) प्राकृतिक उपागम
(4) सहयोगात्मक भाषा-अधिगम

Why: श्रव्यभाषावाद (audiolingual method) व्यवहारवाद पर आधारित है। वह भाषा को अभ्यास, दोहराव और पुनर्बलन से बनी आदतों का समूह मानता है।

116.एक बच्चे को अपठित गद्य खंड पढ़ने के लिए दिया गया है। बच्चे को इसे पढ़कर उस गद्य खंड के नीचे लिखे प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने हैं। इस प्रकार के पठन को किस रूप में जाना जाता है?

(1) बारीकी से पठन (स्कैनिंग)
(2) विशिष्ट पठन
(3) सरसरी तौर पर पठन (स्किमिंग)
(4) विस्तृत पठन

Why: प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने के लिए छोटे अपठित गद्यांश को ध्यान से, बारीकी से पढ़ना गहन पठन है, और हिंदी कुंजी ‘बारीकी से पठन’ को ही सही मानती है। कोष्ठक में लिखा ‘स्कैनिंग’ शब्द इस वर्णन से मेल नहीं खाता, क्योंकि स्कैनिंग किसी विशेष सूचना को जल्दी खोजना है। अंग्रेज़ी प्रश्नपत्र में इसी प्रश्न का उत्तर विकल्प 2 माना गया है।

117.एक अध्यापक विद्यार्थियों को पाँच चित्र दिखाता है और इन चित्रों के आधार पर कहानी लिखने के लिए कहता है। यह गतिविधि किसका उदाहरण है?

(1) दिखाओ और बताओ
(2) जिगसॉ श्रुतलेख
(3) साझा पठन
(4) रचनात्मक लेखन

Why: चित्रों के क्रम से अपनी मौलिक कहानी रचना रचनात्मक लेखन है। ‘दिखाओ और बताओ’ मौखिक गतिविधि है, और बाकी दो पठन व श्रुतलेख की गतिविधियाँ हैं।

118.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी भाषा में प्रदर्शन-आधारित आकलन की विशेषता है?

(1) बहुवैकल्पिक प्रश्न
(2) अन्तःक्रिया के बिना प्रदर्शन
(3) संदर्भ रहित परीक्षण प्रश्न
(4) संदर्भ सहित सम्प्रेषणात्मक कार्य

Why: प्रदर्शन-आधारित आकलन में शिक्षार्थी वास्तविक संदर्भ में भाषा का प्रयोग करते हैं, जैसे भूमिका-निर्वाह, प्रस्तुति या पत्र-लेखन। बाकी विकल्प पारंपरिक वस्तुनिष्ठ परीक्षा के लक्षण हैं।

119.पठन के बारे में दिए गए कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
A : पठन केवल अक्षर ध्वनि संबंध की समझ और शब्दों को सही प्रकार से उच्चारित करना भर है।
B : पठन अर्थ तक पहुँचने के लिए संकेतों को डिकोड करना है।
सही विकल्प चुनिए।

(1) A और B दोनों सही हैं
(2) A सही है लेकिन B गलत है
(3) B सही है लेकिन A गलत है
(4) A और B दोनों गलत हैं

Why: पठन का अर्थ है लिखित संकेतों से अर्थ ग्रहण करना। अक्षर-ध्वनि संबंध समझना केवल पहला चरण है, इसलिए A में ‘केवल…भर’ उसे गलत बनाता है, जबकि B सही है।

120.एक अध्यापक को अपने विद्यार्थियों के श्रवण-कौशल का आकलन करना है। श्रवण-आकलन हेतु वह किस गतिविधि का चयन कर सकता है?

(1) बच्चों को उनकी मौखिक प्रस्तुति के आधार पर श्रेणी देना
(2) अध्यापक कहानी सुनाता है और इसके बाद बोध-आधारित प्रश्न पूछता है
(3) अध्यापक बच्चों को कहानी पढ़ने के लिए कहता है और इसके बाद बोध-आधारित प्रश्न पूछता है
(4) अध्यापक शब्द-संपदा-आधारित कार्य करने के लिए देता है

Why: बच्चे कहानी सुनते हैं और फिर प्रश्नों के उत्तर देकर दिखाते हैं कि उन्होंने क्या समझा, इसलिए यहाँ श्रवण का आकलन होता है। मौखिक प्रस्तुति बोलने का, कहानी पढ़ना पठन का और शब्द-संपदा कार्य शब्द-ज्ञान का आकलन है।

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121.कोणत्याप्रकरचे प्राणी ‘कॅमोफ्लॅज किंवा क्रिप्टिक कलरेशन’ आत्मसात करतात?

(1) विषारी प्राणी
(2) भक्षक पक्षी
(3) दुर्बल प्राणी
(4) सरपटणारे प्राणी

Why: उतारा सांगतो की विषारी प्राणी भडक रंगांनी स्वतःचे अस्तित्व जाहीर करतात, तर दुबळे प्राणी निसर्गात लपून जाण्यासाठी कॅमोफ्लॅज किंवा क्रिप्टिक कलरेशन दर्शवतात.

122.नर पक्षी हा मादीच्या तुलनेत अधिक रंगीबेरंगी असण्याचे प्राथमिक कारण कोणते?

(1) भक्षकाला चकवता यावे म्हणून
(2) भक्षकापासून वाचता यावे म्हणून
(3) आमच्यापासून लांब राहा, हे सुचविण्यासाठी
(4) मादीचे लक्ष वेधता यावे म्हणून

Why: उताऱ्यानुसार पक्ष्यांमध्ये नर जास्त रंगीत असतात, कारण प्रणयाराधनाच्या वेळी मादीचे लक्ष वेधून घेण्यासाठी ही रंगांची उधळण दिसते.

123.‘साप सावकाश सरपटत जातो.’ वाक्यात अधोरेखित शब्दाची जात ओळखा

(1) शब्दयोगी अव्यय
(2) उभयान्वयी अव्यय
(3) क्रियाविशेषण अव्यय
(4) कालवाचक विशेषण

Why: ‘सरपटत’ हा शब्द साप कसा जातो हे सांगतो, म्हणजे तो ‘जातो’ या क्रियापदाविषयी अधिक माहिती देतो. म्हणून तो क्रियाविशेषण अव्यय आहे.

124.डार्विनच्या सिद्धांतानुसार कोणती प्रजाती यशस्वी होते?

(1) जी आपल्या परिसराशी जुळवून घेते.
(2) ज्यांचे रंग चटकदार असतात
(3) जी मोठ्या समूहात असते
(4) जी सुरक्षित ठिकाणी जाऊन राहते

Why: डार्विनच्या नैसर्गिक निवडीच्या सिद्धांतानुसार जी प्रजाती आपल्या परिसराशी अनुकूलित होते, ती जगण्याच्या शर्यतीत यशस्वी होते, असे उताऱ्याच्या शेवटी सांगितले आहे.

125.परिसंस्थेत संतुलन राखण्यास भक्ष्य-भक्षक संबंध कशाप्रकारे मदत करतो?

(1) त्यामुळे विषारी वनस्पतींमध्ये वाढ होते.
(2) त्यामुळे नैसर्गिकरित्या प्रजातींची संख्या नियंत्रणात येते.
(3) त्यामुळे दुर्बल प्रजाती नामशेष होतात.
(4) त्यामुळे छद्मावरण तयार होते.

Why: भक्ष्य-भक्षकांच्या नात्यातून अन्नसाखळी आणि अन्नजाळी तयार होतात, आणि त्या परिसंस्थेत संतुलन राखतात. भक्षकांमुळे भक्ष्यांची संख्या नैसर्गिकरीत्या मर्यादेत राहते.

126.‘अतिशयता’ या अर्थाचा कोणता शब्द उताऱ्यात आला आहे?

(1) डौलदार
(2) छद्मावरण
(3) रेलचेल
(4) नियोजन

Why: ‘रेलचेल’ म्हणजे विपुलता, भरपूर प्रमाण. उताऱ्यात “रंगांची रेलचेल वनस्पतींत खूपच जास्त दिसते” असे आले आहे.

127.‘जीवो जीवस्य जीवनम्’ याचा नेमका अन्वयार्थ काय आहे?

(1) जीवसृष्टीत प्रत्येक घटक स्वायत्त आहे.
(2) प्राणी वनस्पतींवर अवलंबून असतात.
(3) एक जीव जगण्यासाठी दुसऱ्या जिवावर अवलंबून असतो
(4) वंशसातत्त्य सदैव टिकून राहते

Why: ‘जीवो जीवस्य जीवनम्’ म्हणजे एक जीव हाच दुसऱ्या जीवाचे जीवन (अन्न) असतो. म्हणजेच एक जीव जगण्यासाठी दुसऱ्या जिवावर अवलंबून असतो. हा भक्ष्य-भक्षक नात्याचा पाया आहे.

128.‘वॉर्निंग कलरेशन’ म्हणजे काय?

(1) भक्षकापासून स्वतःला वाचवणे
(2) रंगांच्या माध्यमातून धोक्याची सूचना देणे
(3) स्वतःला इतरांच्या रंगात मिसळून घेणे
(4) पिल्लांची फिकट रंगसंगती

Why: उताऱ्यानुसार जे प्राणी भडक रंगांचे प्रदर्शन करून धोक्याची सूचना देतात, त्या रंगसंगतीला वॉर्निंग कलरेशन म्हणतात. स्वतःला रंगात मिसळून घेणे हे छद्मावरण (कॅमोफ्लॅज) आहे.

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129.माहिती पाठविण्याचा (कमी ते अधिक) वेग दाखविणारा योग्य पर्याय निवडा.

(1) किलोबिट—मेगाबिट—गिगाबिट
(2) मेगाबिट—किलोबिट—गिगाबिट
(3) गिगाबिट—किलोबिट—मेगाबिट
(4) बिट—किलोबिट—बाईट

Why: उताऱ्यानुसार मेगाबिट हा किलोबिटपेक्षा आणि गिगाबिट हा मेगाबिटपेक्षा जास्त वेगवान आहे. म्हणून कमी ते अधिक क्रम किलोबिट, मेगाबिट, गिगाबिट असा आहे. बाइट हे वेगाचे एकक नसून आठ बिट्सचा समूह आहे.

130.पूर्वीच्या काळी इंटरनेटवर माहिती वाहून नेण्यासाठी कोणती यंत्रणा अमलात होती?

(1) उपग्रह आधारित यंत्रणा
(2) लँडलाईन दूरध्वनी यंत्रणा
(3) ऑप्टिक फायबर यंत्रणा
(4) रेडियो तरंग यंत्रणा

Why: उतारा सांगतो की पूर्वीच्या काळी इंटरनेटवरची माहिती वाहून नेण्यासाठी ‘लँडलाइन’ दूरध्वनीच्या यंत्रणेचा वापर केला जात असे.

131.पुढीलपैकी कोणते नाम एकवचन आणि अनेकवचन या दोन्ही अवस्थेत एकसारखेच राहते?

(1) माणूस
(2) आवाज
(3) नदी
(4) फाईल

Why: ‘माणूस’ हा शब्द एकवचनात आणि अनेकवचनात दोन्हीकडे ‘माणूस’ असाच राहतो (एक माणूस, दहा माणूस). नदी → नद्या, फाईल → फाईली अशी रूपे बदलतात.

132.जपानमध्ये विकसित झालेल्या नवीन इंटरनेट तंत्रज्ञानाचे वैशिष्ट्य कोणते?

(1) ते ध्वनिलहरी वापरून डेटा प्रसारित करते
(2) ते डिजिटल फाइल्सचा आकार कमी करते
(3) ते 1802 किलोमीटर लांबपर्यंत माहिती पाठवू शकते
(4) ते थेट उपग्रहाशी जोडले जाते

Why: उताऱ्यानुसार या तंत्रज्ञानाने प्रतिसेकंद 1,25,000 गिगाबाइट्स इतक्या वेगाने तब्बल 1802 किलोमीटर अंतरापर्यंत माहिती पाठवली.

133.‘इंटरनेटच्या सरासरी वेगापेक्षा तब्बल 40 लाख पट जास्त वेगाचं इंटरनेट.’ वाक्यातील अधोरेखित शब्दाची जात शोधा.

(1) शब्दयोगी अव्यय
(2) उभयान्वयी अव्यय
(3) क्रियाविशेषण अव्यय
(4) विकल्पबोधक अव्यय

Why: ‘पेक्षा’ हे नामाला (वेग) जोडून येते आणि तुलना दाखवते, म्हणून ते शब्दयोगी अव्यय आहे.

134.लँडलाईन दूरध्वनी व्यवस्था असताना इंटरनेटचा जास्तीत जास्त वेग किती असे?

(1) 128 किलोबिट्स दर सेकंद
(2) 1 मेगाबिट दर सेकंद
(3) 1024 बिट्स दर सेकंद
(4) 64 किलोबिट्स दर सेकंद

Why: उताऱ्यात म्हटले आहे की त्या वेळी जास्तीत जास्त 64 किलोबिट्स प्रतिसेकंद इतक्या वेगाने इंटरनेट चालू शकायचे.

135.‘आढावा’ शब्दाचा नेमका अर्थ कोणता?

(1) सातव्या नंतर येणारा संख्याक्रम
(2) मिजासखोरी किंवा डौल
(3) घटना किंवा त्याच्या परिणामांची स्थूलमानाने माहिती
(4) एखाद्या क्रियेची प्रतिक्रिया

Why: ‘आढावा घेणे’ म्हणजे एखाद्या विषयाची, घटनेची किंवा तिच्या परिणामांची थोडक्यात, स्थूलमानाने माहिती घेणे. पहिला पर्याय ‘आठवा’ या शब्दाशी गोंधळ करतो.

136.विद्यार्थी एखादे काम मदतीशिवाय करतात किंवा तेच काम ते वरिष्ठांच्या मदतीने अथवा आपल्या सवंगड्यांच्या मदतीने करतात. या दोहोंमधील अवकाश म्हणजे…

(1) परिपक्वतेची पातळी (Level of maturity)
(2) सान्निध्य विकासाचा प्रांत (Zone of proximal Development)
(3) यशाचा प्रांत (Zone of achievement)
(4) दुरस्थ अध्ययन (Distance learning)

Why: वायगॉट्स्कीने या अंतराला सान्निध्य विकासाचा प्रांत (ZPD) म्हटले. या प्रांतात योग्य आधार (स्कॅफोल्डिंग) देऊन शिकवणे सर्वात परिणामकारक ठरते.

137.मेंदूमध्ये झालेल्या क्षतीमुळे होणारी भाषिक अक्षमता ज्यात भाषिक रूपांना समजणे किंवा त्यांचा उच्चार करण्यास अडचण येते. ते म्हणजे…

(1) अफासिया (Aphasia)
(2) डिसलेक्सिया (Dyslexia)
(3) डिसकेल्कुलिआ (Dyscalculia)
(4) डिसारथ्रिया (Dysarthria)

Why: मेंदूच्या विशिष्ट भागाला इजा झाल्याने (उदा. स्ट्रोक) होणारा भाषा-विकार म्हणजे अफासिया. डिसारथ्रिया हा बोलण्याच्या स्नायूंचा विकार आहे, आणि डिसलेक्सिया व डिसकॅल्क्युलिया या अध्ययन अक्षमता आहेत.

138.भाषा एका पिढीकडून दुसऱ्या पिढीकडे जाते. या प्रक्रियेला काय म्हणता येईल?

(1) सांस्कृतिक परिवाहन
(2) उत्पादकता
(3) स्वच्छंदता
(4) विस्थापन

Why: भाषा जन्मतः मिळत नाही; ती समाजाकडून शिकली जाते आणि पिढ्यान्पिढ्या पुढे जाते. भाषेच्या या वैशिष्ट्याला सांस्कृतिक परिवाहन म्हणतात. इतर पर्याय भाषेची इतर वैशिष्ट्ये आहेत.

139.12-ते 18 महिन्याच्या वयात मूल समजता येतील असं अनेक एकेक ध्वनी उच्चारतो. नेहमीच्या वस्तुंसाठी मूल ज्या एकेक संज्ञा (ध्वनी) उच्चारतो हा काळ म्हणजे…

(1) गुजबुजणे (Cooing)
(2) टेलिग्राफिक भाषा (Telegraphic speech)
(3) शब्द-वाक्य अवस्था (Holophrastic stage)
(4) बडबडणे (Babbling)

Why: शब्द-वाक्य अवस्थेत एकच शब्द संपूर्ण वाक्याचा अर्थ देतो: “दूध” म्हणजे “मला दूध हवे”. गुजबुजणे आणि बडबडणे या आधीच्या अवस्था आहेत, आणि टेलिग्राफिक भाषा नंतरची.

140.वाचन आणि लेखन कौशल्याच्या संदर्भात पुढील विधान वाचा.
A : वाचन करण्याच्या क्षमतेचा परिणाम लेखनाच्या क्षमतेवर होतो.
B : वाचन आणि लेखन या दोन्ही वेगवेगळ्या प्रक्रिया असून त्या स्वतंत्रपणे विकसित होतात
अचूक पर्याय निवडा.

(1) A आणि B दोन्ही बरोबर आहेत
(2) A बरोबर आहे आणि B चूक आहे
(3) A आणि B दोन्ही चूक आहेत
(4) A चूक आहे आणि B बरोबर आहे

Why: वाचन आणि लेखन एकत्रितपणे विकसित होतात आणि एकमेकांना बळकट करतात. चांगला वाचक जे शब्द, वाक्यरचना आणि शैली वाचतो, तीच लेखनात उपयोगी पडते. म्हणून A बरोबर आणि B चूक आहे.

141.सर्व भाषांमध्ये काही समान गुण-धर्म असतात. त्यांना काय म्हणतात?

(1) द्वैभाषिकता (Diglossia)
(2) भाषा सार्वत्रिकता (Language Universals)
(3) प्रयुक्ती (Register)
(4) बोली (Dialect)

Why: प्रत्येक मानवी भाषेत आढळणारी वैशिष्ट्ये, जसे नाम-क्रियापद असणे किंवा प्रश्न विचारण्याच्या पद्धती, यांना भाषा सार्वत्रिकता (Language Universals) म्हणतात.

142.वर्गात भाषा विविधतेचा स्वीकार म्हणजे…

(1) भाषिक अस्खलितता प्राप्त करण्यात अडथळा.
(2) विद्यार्थ्यांच्या सर्जनशीलता आणि कल्पकतेत ऱ्हास होतो ज्यामुळे त्यंाचा आत्मविश्वास डळमळतो.
(3) याचा भाषा शिकण्यावर काहीही परिणाम होत नाही.
(4) विद्यार्थ्यांच्या सर्जनशीलता आणि कल्पकता यात वाढ होते आणि त्यांचा आत्मविश्वास वाढतो.

Why: वर्गात मुलांच्या घरच्या भाषेचा स्वीकार झाला की त्यांना सन्मान वाटतो आणि ते मोकळेपणाने बोलतात. त्यामुळे त्यांचा आत्मविश्वास, सर्जनशीलता आणि कल्पकता वाढते.

143.उदयोन्युख साक्षरतेमध्ये छापिल साहित्याविषयी जागरुकता नसल्याचे वैशिष्ट्य असलेला पूढीलपैकी कोणता पर्याय आहे?

(1) पुस्तकाची हाताळणी
(2) अक्षरे आणि शब्दातील फरक ओळखणे
(3) डावीकडून उजवीकडे आणि वरपासून तळापर्यंत वाचन केल्या जाते
(4) पूर्ण वाक्य वाचल्या जाते

Why: छापील साहित्याविषयी जागरूकता म्हणजे छपाई कशी काम करते हे समजणे: पुस्तक योग्य धरणे, अक्षर आणि शब्द यांतील फरक ओळखणे, आणि वाचनाची दिशा जाणणे. पूर्ण वाक्य वाचणे हे प्रत्यक्ष वाचन आहे, जी पुढची पायरी आहे.

144.सुरूवातीच्या पातळीवर केलेल्या वाचनकौशल्याची फलनिष्पत्ती पुढे दिलेली आहे
A. लहान उताऱ्याचे वाचन अगदी बरोबर आणि अस्खलीतपणे आवाजाच्या योग्य चढ उतारासह, योग्य तेथे विराम घेऊन आणि आवाजातील योग्य तो बदलासह केले जाते.
B. परिचित शब्द असलेल्या वाक्यांचे वाचन स्पष्टपणे केले जाते.
C. लहान उताऱ्याचे वाचन स्पष्टपणे, आवाजतील योग्य चढ उतारासह आणि योग्य तेथे विराम घेऊन केले जाते.
विकासाच्या क्रमानुसार उपरोक्त मुद्यांची मांडणी करा

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, C, A
(3) A, C, B
(4) C, A, B

Why: वाचन आधी परिचित शब्दांच्या वाक्यांपासून सुरू होते (B), मग चढ-उतार आणि विरामासह लहान उतारा वाचणे येते (C), आणि शेवटी अस्खलितपणे, आवाजातील बदलांसह वाचणे (A). प्रत्येक पायरी आधीच्या पायरीवर आधारित आहे.

145.पुढीलपैकी कोणता पर्याय हा ‘विस्तृत श्रवणाचा’ भाग नाही?

(1) ढोबळमानाने श्रवण करणे
(2) मुख्य कल्पनेसाठी श्रवण करणे
(3) निष्कर्ष काढणे
(4) निश्चित तथ्य आणि माहितीसाठी श्रवण करणे

Why: विस्तृत श्रवणात मोठा मजकूर एकूण आकलनासाठी ऐकला जातो: ढोबळ आशय, मुख्य कल्पना आणि निष्कर्ष. विशिष्ट तथ्ये किंवा माहितीसाठी ऐकणे हे सखोल (निवडक) श्रवण आहे.

146.वाचन कौशल्याचे मूल्यमापन करण्यासाठी पुढीलपैकी कोणती कृती केल्या जात नाही?

(1) मोठ्याने वाचन करणे
(2) बहुपर्यायी प्रश्न असलेल्या वाक्याचे वाचन करणे
(3) सूचक चिन्हात असलेल्या चित्रातून शब्द ओळखणे
(4) कथा कथन वर्गाचे शिक्षिके-कडून आयोजन करणे

Why: शिक्षिका कथा सांगत असताना विद्यार्थी ऐकत असतात, वाचत नाहीत. त्यामुळे त्यातून वाचनाचे मूल्यमापन होऊ शकत नाही. इतर तिन्ही कृतींत विद्यार्थ्यांना स्वतः वाचावे लागते.

147.पुढीलपैकी कोणते कथन योग्यपणे ‘धावते मजकूर कथन’ करणे स्पष्ट करते?

(1) विद्यार्थी मजकुराचे विविध भाग ऐकतात किंवा वाचतात, त्यानंतर दिलेली कृतीपूर्ण करण्यासाठी माहितीचे एकमेकांसोबत आदान-प्रदान करतात
(2) विद्यार्थी जोडीने कार्य करतात. मजकुराचा अर्ध्या भागात विभाजन केले जाते. एक विद्यार्थी त्याच्या सोबत्यासाठी वाचन करतो तेव्हा दुसरा सोबती लेखन करतो. दोघेही पूर्ण मजकुरासाठी कार्य करतात.
(3) विद्यार्थी जोडीने कार्य करतात. एक विद्यार्थी धावत्या मजकुराचा अनुकरण करतो आणि सोबत्याला तो सांगतो. सोबती त्याचे लेखन करतो.
(4) शिक्षक वर्गातील विद्यार्थ्यांना शब्द/वाक्याचे धावते मजकूर कथन करतात आणि विद्यार्थी त्याची नोंद घेतात.

Why: धावत्या श्रुतिलेखनात मजकूर लांब लावलेला असतो. एक विद्यार्थी धावत जाऊन तो पाहतो, एक भाग लक्षात ठेवतो आणि परत येऊन सोबत्याला सांगतो; सोबती तो लिहितो. पर्याय 1 जिगसॉ उपक्रम आहे, पर्याय 2 अंशतः श्रुतिलेखन, आणि पर्याय 4 साधे श्रुतिलेखन.

148.‘लहान मूल भाषा ग्रहण करण्याची नैसर्गिक क्षमता घेऊन जन्माला येतं.’ भाषा ग्रहण करण्याच्या या कल्पनेला पुढीलपैकी कशाचे समर्थन आहे?

(1) देशीवादी (Nativist)
(2) बौद्धिकतावादी (Cognitivist)
(3) सामाजिक संबंधवादी (Social interactionist)
(4) वर्तणूकवादी (Behaviourist)

Why: चॉम्स्कीशी जोडलेला देशीवादी (Nativist) दृष्टिकोन मानतो की मूल भाषा आत्मसात करण्याची जन्मजात क्षमता (Language Acquisition Device) घेऊन जन्माला येते. वर्तणूकवादी भाषेला अनुकरण आणि पुनर्बलनातून शिकलेली मानतात.

149.प्रक्रिया लेखनपद्धतीमध्ये, लेखन प्रक्रियेतील ठळक घटक लेखक औपचारिकपणे त्याचे काम म्हणून मोठ्या श्रोतावर्गापूढे सादर करतो. त्याला पूढीलपैकी काय म्हणता येईल?

(1) प्रारूपलेखन (Drafting)
(2) प्रकाशन (Publication)
(3) संपादन (Editing)
(4) उजळणी (Revising)

Why: प्रक्रिया लेखन प्रारूपलेखन, उजळणी आणि संपादन यांतून प्रकाशनापर्यंत पोहोचते. प्रकाशन ही शेवटची पायरी आहे, ज्यात तयार रचना वाचकांसमोर मांडली जाते.

150.मजकुरातील कठीण शब्दाची हाताळणी करण्यासाठी, भाषा शिक्षक अशा शब्दांना मातृभाषेत भाषांतरीत करतात आणि नंतर ते शब्द विद्यार्थ्यांना पाठ करायला सांगतात. यासाठी वापरलेल्या पद्धतीला पुढीलपैकी काय म्हणतात?

(1) व्याकरण भाषांतर पद्धती (Grammar translation method)
(2) प्रत्यक्ष पद्धती (Direct method)
(3) संरचना पद्धती (Structural approach)
(4) संभाषणात्मक पद्धती (Communicative approach)

Why: शब्दांचे मातृभाषेत भाषांतर करून ते पाठ करून घेणे ही व्याकरण भाषांतर पद्धती आहे. प्रत्यक्ष पद्धतीत मातृभाषेचा वापर टाळला जातो.

CTET February 2026 — Paper II (Social Studies)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper II (Social Studies)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part III — Social Studies / Social Science

Part IV — Language I — Hindi

Part V — Language II — Marathi

Answer Key

CTET February 2026 — Paper II (Social Studies)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026Paper II (Social Studies)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part III — Social Studies / Social Science

Part IV — Language I — Hindi

Part V — Language II — Marathi

Answer Key

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper II (Social Studies)