MAK LABS — CTET 7 February 2026 Paper II (Social Studies) Question Paper with Answer Key

1.Which debate is highlighted in the following question?
“Does an individual’s biologically determined sex bring with it all the characteristics that define one’s socially constructed gender?”

(1) Nature-Nurture influences on development
(2) Continuous-Discontinuous view of development
(3) Stable-Unstable view of development
(4) Entity-Incremental view of ability

Why: Biological sex is given by nature, while gender is shaped by society, which is nurture. Asking whether the first brings the second with it is the nature–nurture question. The other debates are about the shape of development over time or about whether ability is fixed.

2.A major developmental task during _____ is the search for identity—personal, sexual and occupational.

(1) middle childhood
(2) early childhood
(3) adolescence
(4) middle adulthood

Why: Erikson placed “identity versus role confusion” in adolescence. This is when young people work out who they are, how they relate to others and what work they want to do.

3.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): Children learn values and norms of the society in overt as well as covert ways.
Reason (R): Socialization is the simple process of passing on customs and rituals of the society.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A is true: children pick up values through direct teaching and also through the hidden curriculum of observation and example. R is false: socialization is a complex, two-way process in which children actively interpret what they see, not a simple handing-down of customs and rituals.

4.As per Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, which of the following abilities distinguishes formal operational thinking from concrete operational thinking?

(1) Abstract logic
(2) Conservation
(3) Object permanence
(4) Symbolic play

Why: Concrete operational children reason logically only about real, concrete objects. The formal operational stage adds abstract and hypothetical reasoning. Conservation belongs to the concrete stage, object permanence to the sensorimotor stage and symbolic play to the preoperational stage.

5.A significant critique of Jean Piaget is that he failed to adequately consider the influence of _____ on development.

(1) maturation
(2) culture
(3) experience
(4) activity

Why: Piaget saw development as a universal sequence driven by the child’s own activity and maturation. Critics, Vygotsky above all, pointed out that he paid too little attention to the social and cultural setting in which children grow up.

6.Which of the following is a correctly matched pair?

(1) Punishment and Obedience orientation—Avoidance of bad consequences
(2) Good boy-Good girl orientation—Greatest good for greater numbers
(3) Law and Order orientation—Upholding principles of social justice for humanity
(4) Social Contract orientation—Consideration of perception of others

Why: In Kohlberg’s first stage the child judges an act by whether it leads to punishment, so avoiding bad consequences is the right match. “Greatest good for the greatest number” fits the social contract stage, universal principles of justice fit stage 6, and concern for how others see you fits the good boy–good girl stage.

7.Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky are similar in their belief that

(1) children are involved in the process of meaning making.
(2) language influences and determines thought.
(3) culture has a profound effect on the learning.
(4) development of children takes place in stage-like progression.

Why: Both were constructivists: each saw the child as an active builder of meaning. The role of language in shaping thought and the strong effect of culture are Vygotsky’s ideas, while fixed stages belong to Piaget alone.

8.Lev Vygotsky proposed that

(1) children are born ‘unruly’ and society needs to teach them social behaviours.
(2) children’s thinking is ‘quantitatively’ different from adults.
(3) children’s thinking is ‘qualitatively’ different from adults.
(4) children have a lot of potential which includes tasks they can do with the others’ support.

Why: This describes the Zone of Proximal Development: the range of tasks a child cannot yet do alone but can manage with help from an adult or a more capable peer. The claim that children think qualitatively differently from adults is Piaget’s.

9.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): The purpose of administering intelligence tests and extended observation should be to compare children in specific domains and abilities.
Reason (R): Intelligence is an innate ability and cannot be nurtured.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A is false: tests and observation are meant to understand each child’s strengths and needs so that teaching can support them, not to rank children against one another. R is false too: intelligence has a hereditary base but grows with a rich environment and good teaching.

10.A teacher who consciously takes examples of scientists of all genders in her middle school classroom is trying to—

(1) break gender stereotypes.
(2) reinforce gender discrimination.
(3) enable gender identity.
(4) construct gender constancy.

Why: Showing scientists of every gender challenges the stereotype that science is a male field. Gender constancy is a young child’s understanding that gender does not change, which a middle school lesson is not trying to build.

11.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): All girls are hardworking and sincere while boys are intelligent and dominating.
Reason (R): Two distinctive biological brains produce all differences in physical and cognitive skills as well as personalities and temperament in girls and boys.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A is a gender stereotype: qualities such as hard work or intelligence are not fixed by sex. R is false as well: there are no two separate “male” and “female” brains that produce every difference. Most differences are shaped by upbringing and social expectations.

12.Individual differences in learning preferences of students should be seen as—

(1) abnormal parameter of their differing IQ levels.
(2) cognitive abnormality among some children.
(3) developmental deficits among some children.
(4) normal depiction of diversity.

Why: Children differ in how they prefer to learn, and this is a normal part of human diversity. It is not a sign of abnormality or deficit, and a teacher should plan varied activities to suit it.

13.The kind of assessment in which a student’s scores are compared with the average performance of other students is called

(1) criteria-referenced.
(2) format-referenced.
(3) norm-referenced.
(4) self-referenced.

Why: Norm-referenced assessment places a student against the performance of a group, the norm. Criterion-referenced assessment compares the student with a fixed standard, and self-referenced assessment compares the student with his or her own earlier work.

14.Which of the following statements about classroom assessment are correct?
(i) Assessments should influence the students’ cognitive processes while they study.
(ii) Assessments should serve as learning experiences in themselves.
(iii) Assessments should create fear and stress among students to get them to learn.
(iv) Assessments should be standardized and norm-referenced.
Choose the correct option.

(1) (i), (iii)
(2) (i), (ii)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Why: Good classroom assessment shapes how students think while they learn and is itself a learning experience, so (i) and (ii) are correct. Fear and stress block learning, and classroom assessment is meant to be flexible and formative, not standardized and norm-referenced.

15.Which of the following questions would promote higher-order critical and analytical thinking skills among the students?

(1) Identify the assumptions underlying two newspaper articles depicting the same event.
(2) Identify the nouns mentioned in a specific newspaper article.
(3) Read the newspaper articles and make a list of new words.
(4) Read the newspaper article and think of a suitable title.

Why: Comparing two reports of one event and uncovering what each assumes calls for analysis and evaluation, the top levels of Bloom’s taxonomy. Picking out nouns or new words is recall, and suggesting a title needs only comprehension.

16.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): Students with poor writing abilities are often stereotyped by their teachers as ‘intellectually disabled’.
Reason (R): Teachers tend to have implicit bias and hold assumptions about students’ learning behaviours that can affect students’ growth.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A describes a real and harmful labelling: weak writing is often taken as a sign of low intelligence, though it may come from dysgraphia or lack of practice. R explains why: unexamined bias leads teachers to draw such conclusions, and those low expectations can hold the student back.

17.Which of the following is not a way to promote diversity in the classroom?

(1) Incorporating a variety of perspectives and experiences in the curriculum
(2) Encouraging students to express their unique identities and cultures
(3) Adapting behaviour based on stereotyping students according to their backgrounds and cultures
(4) Providing opportunities for students to interact with individuals from different backgrounds and cultures

Why: Treating students according to stereotypes about their background is discrimination, and it works against diversity. The other three options value and include different perspectives.

18.Which of the following is the correct match of learning disability and challenge caused by it?

(1) Dyscalculia—Impacts ability to read and language processing skills
(2) Dysgraphia—Impacts fine motor skills and spelling
(3) Dyslexia—Impacts ability to learn numbers and arithmetic operations
(4) Dyspraxia—Impacts ability to see, hear and talk properly

Why: Dysgraphia is a writing difficulty, affecting handwriting, the fine motor control behind it, and spelling. Dyscalculia affects numbers and arithmetic, dyslexia affects reading, and dyspraxia affects the planning and coordination of movement.

19.Students struggling with ‘autism’ show ease at

(1) communication with strangers.
(2) eye contact during conversation.
(3) familiar and predictable routines.
(4) rapid transitions between activities.

Why: Children on the autism spectrum usually feel secure with fixed, predictable routines. Talking with strangers, keeping eye contact and switching quickly between activities are typically hard for them.

20.Which of the following statements is not correct about gifted children?

(1) Children can be gifted at different levels and some can have some kind of disability also.
(2) Children can be gifted in more than one kind of intelligence.
(3) Gifted children are born with extraordinary abilities and potential that need to be nurtured.
(4) Gifted children have lower sense of curiosity and poor imagination skills.

Why: Gifted children are usually marked by strong curiosity and a rich imagination, so option 4 is false. A child can be gifted and also have a disability (twice-exceptional), and can be gifted in several areas at once.

21.Error analysis by students

(1) creates further gaps in students’ understanding.
(2) hinders metacognitive skills of students.
(3) is a futile activity in process of learning.
(4) supports students in retaining their learning.

Why: When students examine their own mistakes, they see why an answer went wrong and correct the underlying idea. This strengthens metacognition and helps the corrected learning last.

22.Which of the following statements is correct regarding declarative knowledge and procedural knowledge?

(1) Declarative knowledge emphasizes how to do something.
(2) Declarative knowledge is also known as analytical knowledge.
(3) Procedural knowledge is generally process-oriented in nature.
(4) Procedural knowledge tells the factual knowledge about something.

Why: Procedural knowledge is “knowing how”: the steps of a process or a skill. Declarative knowledge is “knowing that”: facts and concepts. Options 1 and 4 swap the two definitions.

23.Contents which require an extension or modification of existing cognitive structures take _____ time for learning and are retained for _____ duration.

(1) long, long
(2) long, short
(3) short, short
(4) short, long

Why: Changing an existing schema is Piaget’s accommodation, which takes more effort and time than simply adding to what is known. Because the new idea is built into the learner’s structure of understanding, it is also kept for a long time.

24.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): Teachers should encourage children to focus on questions such as “what is my learning goal and what do I need to do to get there”.
Reason (R): When students understand how to self-assess their work performance, they can use this understanding to help themselves learn and progress.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: Questions about one’s own goal and next steps are the heart of self-assessment and self-regulated learning. R gives the reason teachers should encourage them: students who can judge their own work can steer their own progress.

25.In guided discovery approach of learning

(1) learners are left on their own without any kind of intervention by teacher.
(2) no prior planning or previous knowledge is required.
(3) opportunities are provided to learners to construct knowledge for themselves.
(4) teacher acts as a dictator and learners act as listeners.

Why: In guided discovery, learners find things out for themselves while the teacher plans the task and steps in with prompts and hints. It is neither unguided discovery (option 1) nor lecture-style teaching (option 4), and it needs careful planning.

26.Which of the following strategies is not effective while developing conceptual understanding in children?

(1) Presenting a wide range of examples in diverse contexts
(2) Presenting non-examples to show what the concept is not
(3) Asking students to generate their own examples
(4) Asking students to memorize the definition as it is

Why: Learning a definition by heart does not show that a child understands the concept. Varied examples, non-examples and children’s own examples all help them see where the concept begins and ends.

27.An active middle school classroom should be founded on the theoretical principles of

(1) behaviourism
(2) psychodynamism
(3) social constructivism
(4) psychoanalysis

Why: An active classroom has students building knowledge through discussion, collaboration and inquiry, which is the core of Vygotsky’s social constructivism. Behaviourism treats the learner as passive, and the psychodynamic and psychoanalytic schools are theories of personality, not of classroom learning.

28.Read the following statements :
Assertion (A): Empathy depends on the ability to understand that others have feelings and to gauge their feelings.
Reason (R): Emotions and cognition are not related to each other.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

Why: A is true: empathy needs the understanding that others have their own feelings (theory of mind) and the skill to read them. R is false: A itself shows that emotion and cognition work together, and each shapes the other.

29.A middle school teacher can enable students become strategic self-motivated learners by—

(1) encouraging students to develop their metacognitive knowledge and skills.
(2) providing varied forms of reinforcement for every task completed.
(3) dictating well-prepared answers to questions in the textbook.
(4) stressing upon objective-type testing at the end of the term.

Why: Strategic learners plan, monitor and evaluate their own learning, and these are metacognitive skills. Rewarding every task builds dependence on external reinforcement, and dictated answers or end-of-term tests do nothing to build self-direction.

30.Which of the following exemplifies intrinsic motivation?

(1) Motivation driven by external rewards
(2) Motivation driven by personal interest or enjoyment of the task
(3) Motivation driven by competition with others
(4) Motivation driven by gaining the appreciation of others

Why: Intrinsic motivation comes from inside the learner: the task is done because it is interesting or enjoyable in itself. Rewards, competition and praise are all outside sources, so they are extrinsic.

31.A place, where documents and manuscripts are stored and today all National and State Governments have them, to keep all their old official records and transactions, is called

(1) Secretariat
(2) Library
(3) Parliament
(4) Archive

Why: An archive is a place where documents and manuscripts are preserved. The National Archives of India and the state archives keep old government records for historians and the public.

32.Which of the following statements related to Tamil region is wrong?

(1) Sangam poems mention the Muvendar.
(2) Muvendar is a Tamil word meaning three chiefs used for heads of three ruling families.
(3) The three ruling families were the Cholas, Cheras and Pandyas.
(4) Each of the three chiefs had three centres of power.

Why: According to the NCERT Class VI history text, each of the three chiefs (Cholas, Cheras and Pandyas) had two centres of power: one inland and one on the coast. So “three centres” is the wrong statement.

33.Assertion : The relationship between the State and religion may be a bone of contention in today’s Indian polity, but history presents workable solutions.
Choose the appropriate reason/reasons for the above assertion.
A. Temples were often central to the economy and society.
B. The town of Ramdaspur had developed around the central Gurudwara called Harmandar Sahib.
C. Sufis were Muslim mystics who rejected outward religiosity and emphasized compassion for all fellow human beings.
D. History is about the battles between different States and religions.

(1) Only A, B and C
(2) Only A
(3) Only B
(4) Only D

Why: A, B and C show religion and society working together: temples supported local economies, a town grew around a gurudwara, and the Sufis preached compassion across communities. D is a narrow and misleading view of history, and it does not support the assertion.

34.Unusual for the 12th century, Kalhana used a variety of sources. Unlike the writers of Prashastis, he was often critical about rulers and their practices. His sources include :

(1) earlier histories
(2) earlier histories and eyewitness accounts
(3) earlier histories, eyewitness accounts and documents
(4) earlier histories, eyewitness accounts, documents and inscriptions

Why: For his Rajatarangini, a history of the kings of Kashmir, Kalhana drew on inscriptions, documents, eyewitness accounts and earlier histories. This range of sources is what made his work unusual for its time.

35.Which of the following are true with regard to the Marathas?
A. Shivaji carved out a stable kingdom with the support of powerful warrior families.
B. Powerful warrior families were called ‘Deshmukhs’.
C. Highly mobile, peasant pastoralists were the backbone of the Maratha army.
D. Highly mobile, peasant pastoralists were called ‘Kunbis’.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A and C
(2) Only C and D
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) Only A, B and C

Why: All four statements come directly from the NCERT account. Shivaji built his kingdom with the support of powerful warrior families called deshmukhs, and highly mobile peasant pastoralists called kunbis were the backbone of his army.

36.Historical claim : “The Ahom built a large State.”
Choose the appropriate evidences for the above claim.
A. The Ahoms used firearms to build a large State.
B. The Ahoms made high-quality gunpowder and cannons.
C. The Ahom State depended upon forced labour.
D. In 1662, the Ahoms defeated the Mughals.

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) A, B and D

Why: Firearms, their own gunpowder and cannon, and a victory over a Mughal army all show the military strength that let the Ahoms build and hold a large state. Forced labour is true of how the state was run, but it is not evidence of the state’s size or power.

37.State the validity of the following on peasant revolts :
Assertion : Those who are oppressed do not always rise up in rebellion. They do so only at times.
Reason : In 1859, the Indigo Ryots felt that they had the support of the local Zamindars against the planters.
Conclusion : Women turned up to fight with pots, pans and kitchen implements.

(1) Assertion, Reason and Conclusion all are valid
(2) Only Assertion and Reason are valid
(3) Only Reason and Conclusion are valid
(4) Only Assertion and Conclusion are valid

Why: The NCERT account of the 1859 indigo revolt makes all three points. The oppressed rebel only at certain times; in 1859 the ryots rose because they felt the local zamindars were with them against the planters; and the revolt drew in everyone, with women fighting using pots, pans and kitchen implements.

38.The following are some facts related to Company policies during the second half of the 18th century :
A. Artisans started deserting villages.
B. The Company purchased goods in India by gold and silver.
C. The revenue collected in Bengal could finance the purchase of goods.
D. The Company became the Diwan.
Arrange them in sequence of their occurrence.

(1) B, D, C, A
(2) B, A, C, D
(3) A, B, C, D
(4) C, B, A, D

Why: Before 1765 the Company paid for Indian goods with gold and silver imported from Britain (B). In 1765 it became the Diwan of Bengal (D), after which Bengal’s revenue paid for the goods (C). Weavers, forced to sell cheap to the Company, then began deserting their villages (A).

39.Which of the following institutional developments was/were direct outcome/outcomes of the Wood’s Despatch?
A. Education departments of the government were set up in provinces.
B. Centralization of education under the Governor General took place.
C. Steps were taken to establish a system of university education.
D. Indian Civil Service colleges were set up in England.
Choose the correct option.

(1) One of the above
(2) Two of the above
(3) Three of the above
(4) All of the above

Why: [KEY] The NCERT Class VIII text names two outcomes of the 1854 Despatch: education departments set up to control all matters of education (A), and steps towards university education (C), which would give option 2. The official key credits three. It appears to count B as well, reading the new departments’ control over education as centralization. D has nothing to do with the Despatch.

40.Who amongst the following argued that before Aryan rule, there existed a golden age when warrior-peasants tilled the land and ruled the Maratha countryside in just and fair ways?

(1) Guru Nanak
(2) Ram Mohan Roy
(3) Periyar
(4) Jyotirao Phule

Why: Jyotirao Phule argued that the Aryans were outsiders who conquered the land’s original people, and that before them a golden age existed. He saw the upper castes’ power as the result of that conquest.

41.Consider the following statements on Non-Brahman Movement :
A. The movement came from non-Brahman castes that had acquired access to education.
B. The movement argued that the Aryans were the indigenous races.
C. The movement came from non-Brahman castes with wealth and influence.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A and C are valid
(2) Only B and C are valid
(3) Only C is valid
(4) Only B is valid

Why: The movement began in the early 20th century among non-Brahman castes that had gained education, wealth and influence. It argued the opposite of B: that Brahmans were Aryan outsiders, and that the non-Brahmans were the true indigenous (Dravidian) people.

42.Social insecurities, in any society, result from a sense of alienation. In this context, the Indian Nationalist Movement was a movement :
A. to acknowledge the supremacy of people over the structures of government
B. to do away with the differences of class, colour and language
C. to acknowledge the government as being equal to the God
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only A and B
(4) Only B and C

Why: The national movement worked to make the people sovereign over their government and to unite Indians across class, caste, region and language. Treating the government as equal to God is the opposite of this democratic aim.

43.It was established in Madras (Chennai) in 1864. It worked to abolish caste distinctions and promote widow remarriage and women’s education. It condemned the superstitions and rituals of orthodox Hinduism. Identify the associated movement/organization.

(1) Self-Respect Movement
(2) Veda Samaj
(3) Vedanta Samaj
(4) Theosophical Society

Why: [KEY] The NCERT Class VIII text uses this exact description for the Veda Samaj (option 2), founded in Madras in 1864 and inspired by the Brahmo Samaj. The official key credits option 3, the Vedanta Samaj. The Self-Respect Movement came in the 1920s, and the Theosophical Society was founded in New York in 1875.

44.After the attainment of independence, why did the demand for linguistic States intensify?
A. In the 1920s, the Indian National Congress had promised that after independence each major linguistic group would have its own province.
B. After independence, the Congress did not take any steps to honour its promise of major linguistic groups having its own province.
C. The Kannada, Telugu speakers had looked forward to having their own State. The strongest protest came from Tamil speakers of the Telugu-speaking districts.
D. Nehru and Patel were against the creation of linguistic States.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A, B and C
(2) Only B, C and D
(3) Only A and B
(4) Only C and D

Why: CBSE awarded the mark for every option (key Z), because none of the four combinations is fully right. A, B and D are true: the Congress promised linguistic provinces in the 1920s, took no step after 1947, and Nehru and Patel opposed the idea. C is garbled: the strongest protest came from the Telugu speakers of the Madras Presidency. The correct set, A, B and D, is not offered, and option 3 is the only one with no false statement.

45.In about how many days does the moon move around the earth?

(1) 30 days
(2) 29 days
(3) 28 days
(4) 27 days

Why: The NCERT Class VI geography text says the moon takes about 27 days to go around the earth, which is about 27⅓ days. The cycle of phases seen from the earth takes about 29½ days, because the earth moves around the sun at the same time.

46.Match Column—A with Column—B :

Column—A	Column—B
(a) Tropic of Cancer	(i) 23½° in Southern Hemisphere
(b) Tropic of Capricorn	(ii) 23½° in Northern Hemisphere
(c) Arctic Circle	(iii) 66½° South of the Equator
(d) Antarctic Circle	(iv) 66½° North of the Equator

Choose the correct option.

(1) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
(3) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)
(4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)

Why: The Tropic of Cancer is at 23½° N and the Tropic of Capricorn at 23½° S. The Arctic Circle is at 66½° N and the Antarctic Circle at 66½° S.

47.Which one of the following is not correct about the earth?

(1) The earth is the third nearest planet to the sun
(2) In size, the earth is the fifth largest planet
(3) Rotation is the movement of the earth around the sun
(4) The shape of the earth is described as a geoid

Why: The earth’s movement around the sun is revolution. Rotation is its spin on its own axis. The other three statements are correct.

48.Read the two statements carefully :
Statement A : At any place, a watch can be adjusted to read 12 o’clock when the sun is at the highest point in the sky, i.e., when it is mid-day.
Statement B : The time shown by such a watch will give the local time for that place.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and B are true
(2) Both A and B are false
(3) A is true but B is false
(4) A is false but B is true

Why: Local time is based on the sun: it is noon at a place when the sun is highest in its sky. A watch set to 12 at that moment shows the local time of that place, so both statements are true.

49.Ecosystem is formed by :

(1) lithosphere and biosphere
(2) all plants, animals and human beings
(3) interrelationship between organisms and their surroundings
(4) atmosphere and hydrosphere

Why: An ecosystem is a system formed by the interaction of all living things with each other and with their physical surroundings. The other options list only some parts of it, with no interaction.

50.Read the statements A and B carefully :
A : Human beings interact with the environment and modify it according to their need.
B : A perfect balance is necessary between the natural and human environment.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and B are true and B explains A
(2) Both A and B are true but B does not explain A
(3) A is true but B is false
(4) A is false but B is true

Why: Both are true. But B does not explain why humans modify the environment; that happens because of their needs. B is a separate point about how that change should be managed.

51.Why is tourism a major activity in Ladakh—the cold desert of India?
A. Visits to Gompas
B. Treks to see meadows and glaciers
C. Witnessing ceremonies and festivities
D. It is flat plain area
Choose the correct option.

(1) A, C and D
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, B and D
(4) A, B and C

Why: Tourists come to Ladakh to visit the gompas (monasteries), trek to meadows and glaciers, and watch its ceremonies and festivals. Ladakh is a high, mountainous region, not a flat plain, so D is false.

52.Which one of the following gases is the second most plentiful gas in the air?

(1) Nitrogen
(2) Oxygen
(3) Carbon dioxide
(4) Hydrogen

Why: Air is about 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, so oxygen is second. Carbon dioxide is only a small fraction of one per cent.

53.Given below are four statements :
A : High pressure is associated with clear sunny skies.
B : Air pressure is not influenced by temperature of air.
C : Low pressure is associated with cloudy skies and wet weather.
D : Air always moves from high-pressure to low-pressure areas.
Choose the true statements about air pressure and temperature.

(1) A, B and C
(2) A, B and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) B, C and D

Why: Temperature does affect pressure: warm air rises and creates low pressure, and cold, sinking air creates high pressure. So B is false. A, C and D are the standard textbook facts.

54.Read the statements A and B carefully :
A : Inland waterways and sea routes have been used for transport since early days.
B : Waterways are the cheapest for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and B are true
(2) Both A and B are false
(3) A is true but B is false
(4) A is false but B is true

Why: Rivers and seas have carried people and goods since ancient times, and water transport is still the cheapest way to move heavy, bulky cargo over long distances. Both statements are true.

55.Many species of plants and animals have become vulnerable or endangered and some are on the verge of extinction. Choose the reasons from the following :
A. Afforestation
B. Landslides
C. Constructional activities
D. Poaching of animals

(1) A, C and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, B and D

Why: Landslides, construction and poaching all destroy habitats or kill wildlife. Afforestation, planting new forests, helps species survive, so it cannot be a cause.

56.Read the statements A and B carefully :
A : Potential resources are those resources whose entire quantity may not be known.
B : These resources are not being used at present.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and B are true
(2) Both A and B are false
(3) A is true but B is false
(4) A is false but B is true

Why: NCERT defines potential resources as those whose entire quantity may not be known and which are not being used at present, such as the uranium in Ladakh. Both statements are part of that definition.

57.Match Column—A with Column—B :

Column—A	Column—B
(a) Sericulture	(i) Growing vegetables, flowers and fruits for commercial use
(b) Pisciculture	(ii) Cultivation of grapes
(c) Viticulture	(iii) Breeding of fish
(d) Horticulture	(iv) Commercial rearing of silkworms

Choose the correct option.

(1) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)
(3) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
(4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)

Why: Sericulture is rearing silkworms, pisciculture is breeding fish, viticulture is growing grapes, and horticulture is growing vegetables, flowers and fruits for sale.

58.Which of the following is not included in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

(1) Equality
(2) Liberty
(3) Freedom
(4) Justice

Why: The Preamble promises Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity. The word it uses is “Liberty” (of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship); “Freedom” does not appear.

59.A situation where a person does not have resources and opportunities that are available to other persons is known as

(1) diversity
(2) inequality
(3) difference
(4) otherness

Why: Inequality means some people are denied the resources and opportunities that others have. Diversity and difference simply mean people are not all alike, which is not in itself unfair.

60.Which of the following is/are not characteristic/characteristics of democratic government?
A. Indirect participation of people in decision making
B. The Prime Minister has absolute power
C. Explain and defend its actions to the people
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only A and C
(4) Only B and C

Why: In a representative democracy people take part in decisions indirectly, through elected representatives, and the government must explain and defend its actions to them. No one holds absolute power in a democracy, the Prime Minister included, so B is the odd one out.

61.Which of the following functions does not come under the jurisdiction of Municipal Corporations?

(1) Education
(2) Making laws
(3) Maintaining law and order
(4) Developing parks

Why: Municipal corporations run local services such as schools, parks, water and sanitation. Laws are made by Parliament and the state legislatures, and law and order is kept by the state police. Both options 2 and 3 are outside a corporation’s powers, and CBSE accepted either (key D).

62.Which of the following sequences in context of market chain is correct?

(1) Wholesaler—Retailer—Producer—Consumer
(2) Wholesaler—Producer—Retailer—Consumer
(3) Producer—Retailer—Wholesaler—Consumer
(4) Producer—Wholesaler—Retailer—Consumer

Why: Goods begin with the producer, go in bulk to a wholesaler, then to retailers who sell in small quantities, and finally reach the consumer.

63.Read the following statements in reference to agricultural labourers :
Statement A : Employment guarantee programmes in rural areas can decrease migration from rural to urban areas.
Statement B : One of the main reasons for rural to urban migration has been the higher income jobs available in urban areas.
Choose the correct option.

(1) A is true but B is false
(2) A is false but B is true
(3) Both A and B are true and B is the reason for A
(4) Both A and B are true but B is not the reason for A

Why: Both are true. Guaranteed work in villages, as under MGNREGA, reduces distress migration, and better-paid city jobs pull people to towns. But B explains why people migrate, not why employment guarantee reduces migration; that follows from people having work at home. So B is not the reason for A.

64.Match Column—A with Column—B :

Column—A (Panchayati Raj Institutions)	Column—B (Tasks)
(a) Gram Sabha	(i) Regulating the money among Gram Panchayats
(b) Gram Panchayat	(ii) Coordinating the activities of the various Panchayats within its jurisdiction
(c) Janpad Panchayat	(iii) Approving BPL list
(d) Zila Parishad	(iv) Maintaining water sources

Choose the correct option.

(1) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
(4) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)

Why: The Gram Sabha, the meeting of all village voters, approves the BPL list. The Gram Panchayat does local works such as maintaining water sources. The Janpad (block) Panchayat coordinates the panchayats under it. The Zila Parishad plans at district level and distributes funds among the Gram Panchayats.

65.What does ‘double burden’ refer to?

(1) Boys are expected to be physically as well as emotionally strong
(2) Pressure on men to get high-salaried job and not be emotionally weak
(3) Women doing household chores and working outside the home too
(4) Young girls doing the household chores and looking after the younger siblings too

Why: The NCERT Class VII text uses “double burden” for women who work outside the home and still carry almost all the housework. It points out that housework is unpaid and rarely recognised as real work.

66.The _____ protect citizens against the arbitrary and absolute exercise of power by the State.

(1) Political Rights
(2) Human Rights
(3) Fundamental Rights
(4) Directive Principles of State Policy

Why: The Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Constitution protect citizens against arbitrary use of power by the State, and they can be enforced in court. The Directive Principles guide policy but cannot be enforced in court.

67.Which of the following acts violate Article 21 of the Constitution of India?
A. A sanitation staff not getting minimum wages fixed by the government
B. Private schools charging exorbitant fees from students
C. A textile company contaminating the groundwater which is a source of drinking water
D. Denying hawkers to carry on their trade on the pavements
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A and B
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only A and C
(4) Only B and D

Why: Courts have read Article 21, the right to life, as a right to live with dignity. That includes a fair wage for one’s labour (A) and access to safe drinking water and a clean environment (C). High school fees are a matter of fee regulation, and street trading comes under the freedom to carry on a trade in Article 19, not Article 21.

68.Consider the following statements :
Statement A : If an FIR has been registered for a cognizable offence, the police can detain any relative of the accused for 24 hours.
Statement B : The police investigation includes collecting different kinds of evidence.
Choose the correct option.

(1) A is true but B is false
(2) A is false but B is true
(3) Both A and B are true and B is the reason for A
(4) Both A and B are true but B is not the reason for A

Why: A is false: the police have no power to hold an accused person’s relatives. Even an arrested person must be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours. B is true: investigation means recording statements and collecting evidence of different kinds.

69.Which of the following could be an appropriate way to counter the marginalization of Adivasis?

(1) Ask them to migrate to cities
(2) Showcase their culture as exotic in media
(3) Appeal them to adapt into the ways of living of majority community
(4) Teach their history in schools

Why: Teaching Adivasi history in schools gives their communities recognition and respect and breaks stereotypes. Showing them as exotic, or pressing them to give up their own way of life, deepens their marginalization.

70.Which of the following communities has/have been provided constitutional safeguards by enacting the Prevention of Atrocities Act in 1989?
A. Minorities
B. Women
C. Scheduled Castes
D. Scheduled Tribes
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C and D
(4) Only A, C and D

Why: Its full name is the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. It protects Dalits and Adivasis only.

71.The boundaries of disciplines that make up the social sciences need to be opened up and a plurality of approaches may be applied to understand a given phenomenon. What is this approach called?

(1) Interdisciplinary thinking
(2) Bounded knowledge
(3) Scientific inquiry
(4) Utilitarianism

Why: Using history, geography, political science and economics together to study a single topic is the interdisciplinary approach that NCF 2005 recommends for the social sciences.

72.Which of the following is foundational logic in the drafting of syllabi of social science?

(1) Inclusion of local perception
(2) Focusing on utilitarian aspects
(3) Developing more instructive textbooks
(4) Epistemic shift towards patriarchal nationalist frame

Why: NCF 2005 asks that the social science syllabus draw on local knowledge and learners’ own experiences. It moves away from a narrow utilitarian focus, from purely instructive texts and from a patriarchal frame.

73.The concept of a ‘fair trial’ is an important one while talking about the criminal justice system. To teach this concept, you narrate to the students the story of a person who has been accused of theft and what happens thereafter at the police station and later in the court. What pedagogical resource have you used here?

(1) Survey data
(2) Case study
(3) Charts
(4) Political cartoon

Why: Following one real or realistic case through its stages is a case study. The NCERT Class VIII chapter on the judiciary teaches fair trial through a case of this kind.

74.Which of the following should be followed by the teacher in his/her classroom to promote meaningful learning?

(1) Giving recall-based tasks to the students
(2) Giving easy tasks to the students
(3) Promoting the ‘culture of quizzing’ among the students
(4) Giving those tasks to the students which are challenging

Why: Challenging tasks make students think, connect ideas and build understanding, which is what meaningful learning means. Recall tasks, easy tasks and quizzing mostly test memory.

75.Below are two statements, one of them is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options :
Assertion (A): The study of social science helps the learners in understanding the contemporary society better.
Reason (R): Social science education aims at providing students essential knowledge, skills and attitude necessary for self-development and also for becoming an effective member of the society.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

Why: Social science helps learners understand the society they live in because it aims to give them the knowledge, skills and attitudes needed to take part in that society. R states the aim that leads to the outcome in A.

76.Teaching social science is a

(1) personal activity
(2) professional activity
(3) process of transmission of facts
(4) coaching for memorization

Why: Teaching social science is a professional activity that needs subject knowledge, teaching skill and planning. It is not just passing on facts or coaching students to memorise.

77.Which of the following is/are the most suitable teaching-learning material/materials to explain different parts of the earth to the students?
A. Globe
B. Map
C. Atlas
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) Only A

Why: A globe shows the whole earth in its true shape, and a map shows any part of it in detail on a flat surface. Together they explain the parts of the earth best. An atlas is simply a book of maps.

78.Which of the following pedagogical techniques should be used by teachers for making social science enjoyable for students?
A. Organization of visits to museum
B. Celebration of Social Science Week
C. Encouraging watching of night sky
D. Sharing large statistical data related to social facts
Choose the correct option.

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) A, B and D

Why: Museum visits, a Social Science Week and watching the night sky, which links to the geography of the earth and the solar system, are active and enjoyable. Large tables of statistics tend to make the subject dry for learners.

79.Below are two statements. Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options :
Statement I : Meaningful learning in social science is a generative process of storage and retrieval of information.
Statement II : Thinking, language (verbal or sign) and doing things are intimately intertwined.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Why: NCF 2005 describes meaningful learning as a generative process of constructing knowledge, not the storage and retrieval of information, so I is false. II is true: thought, language and action develop together.

80.Below are two statements. Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options :
Statement I : In a democratic setup, centralization of power such as the ‘Panchayati Raj System’ has gained importance.
Statement II : ‘Panchayati Raj System’ aims at raising the levels of participation and involvement of people.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Why: Panchayati Raj is decentralization: it moves power down to villages and districts, so I is false. II is true, because the aim of that shift is to increase people’s participation in local government.

81.The ‘Sabhas’ in the reign of Pallava, through their subcommittees, performed various works such as irrigation, road construction, maintenance of local temples, etc. Which of the following child-centred activities can be done to acquaint the students with the nuances of their functioning?
A. Description of work division on the school campus
B. Example of different groups created for classroom management
C. Getting a real tour of the Sabhas of the reign of Pallava
D. Getting a tour of the Sabhas of the reign of Pallava through audio-visual material
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, B and D

Why: Comparing the Sabha’s committees with how work is divided in the school and the class links the past to what children already know, and audio-visual material can show the historical setting. A “real tour” of Pallava-era Sabhas is impossible, since those assemblies no longer exist.

82.To ensure that social science teaching moves away from an excessive emphasis on developmental issues to an understanding of issues related to justice and dignity, there needs to be a shift in focus from utilitarianism to _____.

(1) altruism
(2) consequentialism
(3) egalitarianism
(4) existentialism

Why: The NCF 2005 position paper on social sciences calls for a shift from utilitarian concerns towards equality, justice and human dignity, which is an egalitarian outlook.

83.Below are two statements, one of them is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options :
Assertion (A): An important aspect of social science is the possibility of having different shades or at times even diametrically opposite answers.
Reason (R): It is critical for a social science teacher to move away from the age-old habit of preaching to the pulpit.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

Why: Both are true. Social questions often have several valid answers, and teachers should stop lecturing students. But A is a feature of the subject itself; R is advice about how to teach it, so R does not explain A.

84.The use of iron in the Indian subcontinent began about 3000 years ago. What task would you give to your students to develop their understanding on such historical episodes?
A. Reviewing the book ‘What Happened in History’ written by Gordon Childe
B. Meeting someone from the traditional blacksmithing community of your area and gathering information
C. Visiting a factory under the supervision of a teacher and noting down the process of making iron
D. Collecting information by visiting any Megalithic site located in the Deccan under the supervision of a teacher
Choose the correct option.

(1) A, B and C
(2) A, C and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) Only A

Why: Talking to a blacksmith, watching iron being made and visiting a megalithic site where early iron objects have been found are hands-on, age-appropriate tasks. Reviewing an academic book by an archaeologist is beyond middle school learners.

85.How will you assess the students through the ‘project of wallpaper’?
A. Seeing the selection of the subjects by the students
B. Seeing the presentation on the subject matter by the students
C. Asking follow-up questions after the presentation on the topic by the students
D. Asking follow-up questions before the presentation on the topic by the students
Choose the correct option.

(1) A and B
(2) A, B and C
(3) A and D
(4) A, C and D

Why: A wallpaper project can be assessed at each stage: how students chose their topic, how they presented it, and how they answered follow-up questions afterwards. A follow-up question cannot come before the presentation it follows, so D does not make sense.

86.Which of the following statements is not true about formative assessments?

(1) Formative assessments are a way for teachers to frequently check students’ progress in a course.
(2) The main objective of such tests is to make a final judgement about whether students have met the learning goals of the course.
(3) They allow teachers to modify their own teaching strategies through ongoing feedback.
(4) They are diagnostic in nature.

Why: Making a final judgement at the end of a course is the purpose of summative assessment. Formative assessment is ongoing and diagnostic, and teachers use it to adjust their teaching.

87.Which of the following is true about testing?

(1) It is a ground for critical examination
(2) It is not a standard for comparison
(3) It is a ground for admission only
(4) It is not a trial of a student’s qualities

Why: A test is a structured way of examining a learner’s knowledge and abilities critically. Tests are also used for comparison and to judge a student’s qualities, and admission is only one of their uses, so the other three options are false.

88.Below are two statements. Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options :
Statement I : Learning is a continuous process.
Statement II : Learning cannot take place outside the school premises.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Why: Learning goes on all through life, and much of it happens at home, in the community and through daily experience. NCF 2005 asks schools to connect learning with life outside school, so II is false.

89.Below are two statements, one of them is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options :
Assertion (A): Testing has a diagnostic function to indicate the presence or absence of a characteristic.
Reason (R): Testing is an event or a situation that comprises a set of questions or problems that analyze a person’s quality of learning or determine his knowledge, abilities, etc.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

Why: Because a test is a set of questions designed to analyse a learner’s knowledge and abilities (R), it can reveal whether a particular skill or characteristic is present or missing (A). R explains A.

90.Below are two statements. Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options :
Statement I : In school education, paper-pencil tests are the only way of testing the learners.
Statement II : During the testing in schools, values or numbers are assigned to represent that the learner has performed.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Why: Oral tests, projects, observation and portfolios are also ways of assessing learners, so I is false. II is true: marks or grades are assigned to show how the learner has performed.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

91.मोरपिसांचे विविधरंग दिसण्यामागचे प्राथमिक कारण कोणते?

(1) कॅरोटेनॉईड रंग
(2) पिसांमधून वाऱ्याचे अपवर्तन
(3) विशिष्ट कोनात प्रकाश परावर्तित करणाऱ्या पिसांच्या सूक्ष्म रचना
(4) त्वचेची वैशिष्ट्यपूर्ण रचना

Why: उताऱ्यानुसार मोराचा झळाळता निळा, हिरवा, मोरपंखी रंग पिसांच्या सूक्ष्म रचनेमुळे तयार होतो. प्रकाश कोणत्या कोनात पडतो आणि कसा परावर्तित होतो, त्यानुसार हे रंग बदलतात. कॅरोटेनॉईडपासून फक्त पिवळा, लाल असे रंग मिळतात.

92.पक्ष्यांचे खाद्य आणि त्यांच्या पिसांचे रंग यांच्यात कोणता संबंध दिसतो?

(1) जे पक्षी वैविध्यपूर्ण पदार्थ खातात त्यांची पिसे विविधरंगी असतात.
(2) जे पक्षी कॅरोटेनॉईड समृद्ध पदार्थ खातात त्यांच्या पिसांना पिवळा किंवा लाल रंग येतो.
(3) फक्त कीटक आहारावर जगणारे पक्षी रंगीबेरंगी असतात.
(4) खाद्य पदार्थ आणि पिसांचे रंग यांच्यात कोणताही संबंध नसतो.

Why: पिवळा, लाल असे रंग कॅरोटेनॉईड रंगद्रव्यांपासून मिळतात. बहुतेक पक्ष्यांना ही रंगद्रव्ये शरीरात तयार करता येत नाहीत, ती खाण्यातून मिळवावी लागतात. रोहित पक्ष्यांचा गुलाबी-केशरी रंग कोळंबी खाऊन मिळतो.

93.‘पोपटांना फार दूरवर उडता येत नाही’. वाक्यातील अधोरेखित शब्दाला कोणता व्याकरणिक घटक जोडला गेला आहे?

(1) गुण विशेषण
(2) उभयान्वयी अव्यय
(3) आत्मवाचक सर्वनाम
(4) शब्दयोगी अव्यय

Why: ‘दूरवर’ म्हणजे दूर + वर. ‘वर’ हे शब्दाला जोडून येणारे शब्दयोगी अव्यय आहे.

94.पुढीलपैकी कोणत्या मूख्य कारणास्तव पोपट हे जगात सर्वात लोकप्रिय आहेत?

(1) त्यांचे वयोमान आणि माणसाच्या आवाजाची नक्कल करण्याची क्षमता.
(2) त्यांचा आकार आणि फार दूरवर उडता येत नसल्यामुळे.
(3) शरीरातच रंगद्रव्ये तयार करता येण्याच्या क्षमतेमुळे.
(4) पिंजऱ्यात सहज ठेवता येत असल्यामुळे.

Why: पोपट 30-40 वर्षे जगू शकतात आणि माणसांच्या आवाजाची नक्कल करू शकतात. उतारा सांगतो की या वैशिष्ट्यांमुळेच पाळीव पक्षी म्हणून पोपटांना जगभर मागणी आहे. रंगद्रव्ये तयार करण्याची क्षमता त्यांच्या रंगांचे कारण आहे, जगभरच्या मागणीचे नाही.

95.रोहित पक्ष्यांच्या उदाहरणातून लेखकाने कोणती महत्त्वाची बाब निदर्शनास आणून दिली आहे?

(1) रंगद्रव्ये तयार करण्यात प्रकाशाचे महत्त्व
(2) चटकदार रंग मिळविण्यासाठी पक्षी स्थलांतर करतात
(3) त्यांना खाद्य पदार्थातून रंगद्रव्ये मिळवावी लागतात
(4) सर्व पक्ष्यांना एकसारखे रंग धारण करता येतात

Why: रोहित पक्ष्यांचा गुलाबी-केशरी रंग मोठ्या प्रमाणावर कोळंबी खाऊन, त्यातील घटकांपासून मिळतो. यावरून दिसते की पक्ष्यांना रंगद्रव्ये खाद्यातून मिळवावी लागतात.

96.‘अपवाद’ शब्दाचा आशय व्यक्त करणारा पर्याय निवडा.

(1) एक प्रकारची उदास, निराशाजनक आणि निष्क्रिय मनःस्थिती
(2) प्रगती किंवा कार्याला थांबवणारी गोष्ट
(3) सर्वसाधारणपणे उपलब्ध होणारी गोष्ट
(4) सामान्य नियमांच्या चौकटीत न बसणारी गोष्ट

Why: अपवाद म्हणजे सर्वसाधारण नियमाला न लागू होणारी गोष्ट. उताऱ्यात पोपट हा अपवाद आहे, कारण बहुतेक पक्ष्यांना रंगद्रव्ये शरीरात तयार करता येत नाहीत, पण पोपटांना येतात.

97.‘निम्मे पोपट’! अधोरेखित शब्दाच्या विशेषणाचा प्रकार कोणता?

(1) अपूर्णांक वाचक गणना विशेषण
(2) आवृत्तिवाचक संख्याविशेषण
(3) गुणविशेषण
(4) सार्वनामिक विशेषण

Why: ‘निम्मे’ म्हणजे अर्धे (½). हे अपूर्णांक दाखवणारे संख्याविशेषण आहे, म्हणून ते अपूर्णांकवाचक गणना विशेषण आहे.

98.उताऱ्याप्रमाणे पोपट गटातील पक्ष्यांतील रंग तफावतीच्या संदर्भात कोणते विधान अचूक आहे?

(1) नर आणि मादी पोपटांच्या रंगात फार फरक असतो.
(2) वेगवेगळ्या जातींमध्ये आकार आणि रंग यांच्यात वैविध्य असते.
(3) पोपटांच्या सर्व जातींमध्ये रंगसंगती सारखीच असते.
(4) जे पोपट थव्यात राहतात त्यांचे रंग फार चित्ताकर्षक असतात.

Why: उतारा सांगतो की नर आणि मादी यांच्या रंगात फार फरक नसतो, पण वेगवेगळ्या जातींमध्ये आकार आणि रंग दोन्हीत खूप वैविध्य आहे.

99.उताऱ्यातून प्रमुख्याने कोणत्या बाबीवर चर्चा करण्यात आली आहे?

(1) पक्ष्यांची चित्ताकर्षक रंगसंगती
(2) पोपट आणि इतर पक्ष्यांची बुद्धिमत्ता
(3) पोपटांची पाळीव अवस्था
(4) पक्ष्यांचे रंग यामागील जैविक आणि वैज्ञानिक कारणांचे स्पष्टीकरण

Why: उतारा पक्ष्यांचे रंग कसे तयार होतात हे समजावतो: सूक्ष्म रचनांमुळे प्रकाशाचे परावर्तन आणि खाद्यातून मिळणारी रंगद्रव्ये. पोपटांची पाळीव अवस्था हा फक्त शेवटचा एक भाग आहे.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

100.‘उर’ या शब्दाचा समानार्थी शब्द निवडा.

(1) हृदय
(2) जत्रा
(3) शिल्लक
(4) आशा

Why: ‘उर’ म्हणजे छाती, हृदय. कवितेतील “उरी घ्यायचे” म्हणजे हृदयाशी धरणे.

101.कवीच्या मते आकाशाला केव्हा नैराश्य यायचे?

(1) मनासारखा अर्थ लाभल्यावर
(2) तारा निखळल्यावर
(3) सांजवेळ होताना
(4) पावसाळ्यात

Why: कवितेत म्हटले आहे की जरा एक तारा कुठेही निखळला तरी नभाला किती खिन्न वाटायचे.

102.पुढीलपैकी विशेषनाम कोणते?

(1) घर
(2) दिशा
(3) चंद्र
(4) ऋतू

Why: घर, दिशा आणि ऋतू ही अनेक वस्तूंना लागू होणारी सामान्यनामे आहेत. ‘चंद्र’ हा एकमेव, विशिष्ट खगोलीय पदार्थ दाखवतो, म्हणून तो विशेषनाम मानला जातो.

103.भोवती चंद्र नसताही कोणती गोष्ट कवीच्या अनुभवास येत असे?

(1) खिन्नता
(2) दिशाहीनता
(3) निरर्थकता
(4) शुभ्रता

Why: कवितेत आहे: “मनाभोवती चंद्र नव्हता तरीही मनाला किती शुभ्र वाटायचे”. मनातील काळोखातही काजवे चमकायचे, असा आशय आहे.

104.जुने झाड नव्याने केव्हा उगवायचे?

(1) ऋतूंना ऋतूंनी भागिल्यावर
(2) पाऊले दुःखू लागल्यावर
(3) मनात काळोख दाटल्यावर
(4) मनासारखे शब्द आल्यावर

Why: कवितेतील ओळ आहे: “ऋतुंना ऋतुंनी जरा भागिले की नव्याने जुने झाड उगवायचे”, म्हणजे ऋतू बदलले की जुने झाड पुन्हा नव्याने बहरायचे.

105.कवीच्या मते अबोलपणे व्यक्त होण्याचे विशेष कोणत्या घटकांचे?

(1) तारा-नभ
(2) ऋतू-झाड
(3) काळोख-काजवे
(4) नदी-सागराचे तट

Why: कवितेत म्हटले आहे की नदी-सागराचे किनारे कितीही मुक्याने किती वेळ बोलायचे. न बोलता व्यक्त होणे, म्हणजे अबोलपणे व्यक्त होणे, हे किनाऱ्यांचे वैशिष्ट्य आहे.

106.पुढीलपैकी कोणाचा संबंध भाषेतील अर्थाच्या पैलूशी आहे?

(1) स्वनविज्ञान (Phonetics)
(2) शब्दार्थ मीमांसा (Semantics)
(3) वाक्य विन्यास (Syntax)
(4) रूपविज्ञान (Morphology)

Why: अर्थाचा अभ्यास म्हणजे शब्दार्थ मीमांसा (Semantics). स्वनविज्ञान ध्वनींचा, वाक्य विन्यास वाक्यरचनेचा आणि रूपविज्ञान शब्दरचनेचा अभ्यास करते.

107.पुढीलपैकी कोणता सिद्धांत भाषा शिक्षण यासंबंधीचा नाही?

(1) भाषा शिक्षणात नैपुण्य आणि ज्ञान या दोहोंचा अंतर्भाव असतो.
(2) विद्यार्थ्यांच्या भाषा शिक्षण पद्धतीच्या आवडीत वैविध्य असू शकते.
(3) भाषा हे संभाषणाचे साधन असते.
(4) भाषा ही व्याकरणाचे नियम/रुप यांना पाठ करुन शिकली जाते.

Why: भाषा अर्थपूर्ण वापरातून शिकली जाते, व्याकरणाचे नियम पाठ करून नाही. इतर तीन विधाने भाषा शिक्षणाची मान्य तत्त्वे आहेत.

108.इयत्ता सहावीची शिक्षिका फळ्याच्या मध्यभागी एक शब्द लिहिते आणि विद्यार्थ्यांना त्या शब्दाशी संबंधित सर्व शब्दांवर विचार करण्यास सांगते.
या उपक्रमातील महत्त्वाचे उद्दिष्ट …

(1) लेखन कौशल्यात वाढ करणे
(2) विद्यार्थ्यांच्या शब्दसंग्रहात सुधारणा करणे
(3) व्याकरण समजावणे
(4) वाचन कौशल्यात वाढ करणे

Why: हा शब्दजाळे (word web) उपक्रम आहे. एका मध्यवर्ती शब्दाशी संबंधित अनेक शब्द सुचवल्याने शब्दसंग्रह वाढतो आणि सुसंघटित होतो.

109.खालील वाक्ये वाचा :
विधान (A) : सुरवातीच्या वर्षांत भाषा शिकण्यात उशीर झाल्यामुळे मुलांना नवीन भाषा आत्मसात करण्यात अडचण येते.
कारण (R) : भाषा आत्मसात करण्याच्या दृष्टीने मुलांची सुरुवातीची वर्षे ही अत्यंत महत्त्वाची असतात.
अचूक पर्याय निवडा.

(1) विधान A आणि कारण R दोन्ही बरोबर असून R हे A चे योग्य विश्लेषण आहे.
(2) विधान A आणि कारण R दोन्ही बरोबर आहेत मात्र R हे A चे अचूक विश्लेषण नाही.
(3) विधान A बरोबर नाही, कारण R बरोबर आहे.
(4) विधान A बरोबर आहे, कारण R बरोबर नाही.

Why: सुरुवातीच्या वर्षांत मुले भाषा विशेष सहजतेने आत्मसात करतात; हा संवेदनशील कालखंड आहे. तो चुकला की नंतर भाषा शिकणे कठीण जाते, म्हणून R हे A चे योग्य स्पष्टीकरण आहे.

110.आधारभूत पातळीसाठीच्या राष्ट्रीय अभ्यासक्रम आराखडा (2022) नुसार बहुभाषिकतेच्या संबंधीचा महत्त्वाचा सिद्धांत कोणता?

(1) वर्गातील बहुभाषिक स्वरुपामुळे अभ्यासक्रमाच्या देवाण-घेवाण प्रक्रियेत अडथळा निर्माण होतो.
(2) मुलांना सुरूवातीच्या वर्षांमध्ये एकापेक्षा अधिक मौखिकभाषा आत्मसात करता येत नाही.
(3) बहुभाषिकतेचे ज्ञानात्मक आणि समाज सांस्कृतिक दोन्ही प्रकारचे लाभ आहेत.
(4) मुलांना त्यांची घरगुती भाषा विसरुन जायला मदत करणे आणि शाळेचा भर मुलांनी शाळेची भाषा शिकावी यावर असला पाहिजे.

Why: NCF-FS 2022 बहुभाषिकतेला बलस्थान मानतो, ज्याचे ज्ञानात्मक आणि सामाजिक-सांस्कृतिक लाभ आहेत. त्यानुसार लहान मुले अनेक भाषा सहज शिकतात आणि घरची भाषा पाया म्हणून वापरायला हवी, विसरायला लावू नये.

111.काही भाषिक समूहांमध्ये भाषेची दोन वेगळी रूपे अस्तित्वात असून प्रत्येकाचे सामाजिक कार्य हे वैशिष्ट्यपूर्ण असते ही परिस्थिती म्हणजे

(1) कूट मिश्रण (Code mixing)
(2) प्रयुक्ती (Register)
(3) द्वैभाषिकता (Diglossia)
(4) बोली (Dialect)

Why: एखादा समाज एकाच भाषेची दोन रूपे वेगवेगळ्या सामाजिक कामांसाठी वापरतो (उदा. औपचारिक “उच्च” रूप आणि रोजचे “निम्न” रूप), त्याला द्वैभाषिकता (Diglossia) म्हणतात.

112.विद्यार्थी जोडीने काम करतात. एका मजकुराचे दोन भाग करण्यात येतात. आलटून पालटून एक मुलगा मजकूर वाचतो नि दुसरा लिहितो नंतर दोघेही एकत्रितपणे पूर्ण मजकूर तयार करतात. या उपक्रमाला काय म्हणतात?

(1) धावते श्रुतिलेखन (Running Dictation)
(2) शब्द जाळे (Word Web)
(3) अंशतःश्रुतिलेखन (Partial Dictation)
(4) कथाकथन (Story telling)

Why: प्रत्येकाकडे मजकुराचा फक्त एक भाग असतो आणि ते एकमेकांना सांगून लिहून घेत पूर्ण मजकूर तयार करतात. हे अंशतः श्रुतिलेखन आहे. धावत्या श्रुतिलेखनात मुलगा लांब लावलेल्या मजकुराकडे धावत जाऊन तो लक्षात ठेवून सांगतो.

113.‘भाषा वर्गात साहित्यिक मजकूर अभ्यासणे’ या संदर्भात पुढीलपैकी कोणते विधान योग्य नाही?

(1) साहित्यिक मजकूर व्याकरण शिकविण्यासाठी वापरावा.
(2) भाषा शिकण्यासाठी साहित्यिक मजकूर म्हणजे सांस्कृतिक आदान (inputs) असते.
(3) साहित्यिक मजकुरामुळे समीक्षात्मक चिंतन आणि प्रतिसाद वाढीस लागतो.
(4) साहित्यिक मजकूर म्हणजे रसग्रहण आणि आनंद.

Why: साहित्य आनंद, रसग्रहण, सांस्कृतिक समज आणि चिंतन यांसाठी शिकवले जाते. कविता किंवा कथा मुख्यतः व्याकरणाच्या सरावासाठी वापरणे हा त्याचा हेतू नाही.

114.इयत्ता सहावीचा विद्यार्थी, नवीन हा मजकूर वाचताना अडखळतो. शिक्षिका त्याला सोपा मजकूर वाचायला देते. ती त्याच्यासाठी सहवाचनाचे सत्र देखील घेते, शिक्षिकेकडून त्याला मिळणारी वागणूक म्हणजे

(1) वाचन तयारी (Reading readiness)
(2) परातीकरण (Scaffolding)
(3) बुद्धिमंथन (Brainstorming)
(4) काहीतरी बोलणे/करणे (ice-breaking)

Why: विद्यार्थ्याच्या पातळीनुसार दिलेला तात्पुरता आधार, जसे सोपा मजकूर आणि सहवाचन, आणि प्रगतीबरोबर हळूहळू कमी केला जाणारा, याला परातीकरण (Scaffolding) म्हणतात.

115.भाषा अध्ययन अध्यापनाच्या संदर्भात पुढीलपैकी कोणती बाब असे मानते की ‘भाषा ही एक सवय’ आहे?

(1) श्रव्यभाषिकता (Audiolingualism)
(2) संभाषणात्मक भाषा शिक्षण (Communicative language teaching)
(3) नैसर्गिक पद्धती (Natural Approach)
(4) सहभागी भाषा अध्ययन (Cooperative Language learning)

Why: श्रव्यभाषिक पद्धत (Audiolingualism) वर्तनवादावर आधारित आहे. ती भाषेला सराव, पुनरावृत्ती आणि पुनर्बलनातून बनलेल्या सवयींचा संच मानते.

116.एका विद्यार्थ्याला एक अपठित उतारा वाचून त्यावरील प्रश्नांची उत्तरे द्यायची आहेत. या प्रकारचे वाचन म्हणजे

(1) न्याहाळणे (Scanning)
(2) अनन्य वाचन (Exclusive reading)
(3) चाळणे (Skimming)
(4) विस्तृत वाचन (Extensive Reading)

Why: प्रश्नांची उत्तरे देण्यासाठी छोटा अपठित उतारा बारकाईने वाचणे हे सखोल वाचन आहे, आणि मराठी उत्तरसूची ‘न्याहाळणे’ (बारकाईने पाहणे) हा पर्याय बरोबर मानते. कंसातील ‘Scanning’ ही संज्ञा मात्र विशिष्ट माहिती पटकन शोधण्यासाठी वापरली जाते. इंग्रजी प्रश्नपत्रिकेत याच प्रश्नाचे उत्तर पर्याय 2 मानले आहे.

117.शिक्षिका विद्यार्थ्यांना पाच चित्र दाखवते आणि त्यांना त्या आधारे एक गोष्ट लिहिण्यास सांगते. हे कशाचे उदाहरण आहे?

(1) दाखवणे आणि सांगणे (Show and tell)
(2) जिगसॉ श्रुतिलेखन (Jigsaw Dictation)
(3) सह वाचन (Shared reading)
(4) सर्जनशील लेखन (Creative writing)

Why: चित्रांच्या क्रमावरून स्वतःची गोष्ट रचणे हे सर्जनशील लेखन आहे. ‘दाखवणे आणि सांगणे’ हा तोंडी उपक्रम आहे, आणि बाकीचे दोन वाचन व श्रुतिलेखनाचे उपक्रम आहेत.

118.भाषेत कामगिरी आधारित मुल्यमापनाचे महत्त्वाचे वैशिष्ट्य कोणते?

(1) बहुपर्यायी प्रश्न (Multiple choice questions)
(2) चर्चारहित सादरीकरण (Non interactive performance)
(3) संदर्भरहित चाचणी सामग्री (Decontexualized test items)
(4) ससंदर्भ संभाषणात्मक नियुक्त कार्य (Contexualized communication tasks)

Why: कामगिरी आधारित मूल्यमापनात विद्यार्थी प्रत्यक्ष संदर्भात भाषा वापरतात, जसे भूमिका-अभिनय, सादरीकरण किंवा पत्रलेखन. इतर पर्याय पारंपरिक वस्तुनिष्ठ चाचणीची वैशिष्ट्ये आहेत.

119.खालील वाक्ये वाचा :
(A) : वाचन म्हणजे फक्त वर्ण-ध्वनि यांचा संबंध समजणे आणि शब्द अचूक उच्चारणे
(B) : वाचन म्हणजे-अर्थ लावण्यासाठी चिन्हांचा (Symbols) उलगडा करणे
अचूक पर्याय निवडा.

(1) A आणि B दोन्ही बरोबर आहेत
(2) A बरोबर आहे मात्र B चूक आहे
(3) B बरोबर आहे मात्र A चूक आहे
(4) A आणि B दोन्ही चूक आहेत

Why: वाचन म्हणजे लिखित चिन्हांतून अर्थ समजून घेणे. वर्ण-ध्वनी संबंध समजणे ही फक्त पहिली पायरी आहे, म्हणून A मधील ‘फक्त’ हा शब्द ते विधान चूक ठरवतो, तर B बरोबर आहे.

120.शिक्षिकेला तिच्या विद्यार्थांच्या श्रवण कौशल्याचे मूल्यमापन करायचे आहे. पुढीलपैकी कोणत्या उपक्रमाचा तिला ‘श्रवण मूल्यमापन’ म्हणून वापर करता येईल?

(1) मौखिक सादरणीकरणाच्या आधारे विद्यार्थ्यांची वर्गवारी लावणे.
(2) शिक्षिका एक गोष्ट सांगते आणि नंतर आकलन आधारित प्रश्न विचारते.
(3) शिक्षिका विद्यार्थ्यांना एक गोष्ट वाचण्यास सांगते आणि नंतर आकलन आधारित प्रश्न विचारते.
(4) शिक्षिका शब्दसंग्रह आधारित नियुक्त कार्य देते.

Why: विद्यार्थी गोष्ट ऐकतात आणि नंतर प्रश्नांची उत्तरे देऊन काय समजले ते दाखवतात, म्हणून येथे श्रवणाचे मूल्यमापन होते. मौखिक सादरीकरण बोलण्याचे, गोष्ट वाचणे वाचनाचे आणि शब्दसंग्रह कार्य शब्दज्ञानाचे मूल्यमापन करते.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

121.Why did the Emperor call the doctor one morning?

(1) He wanted to eat some medicinal leaves
(2) He was feeling tired and sleepy
(3) He wanted the doctor to give him some hot water
(4) He wanted to discuss about his health with the doctor

Why: The story opens with the Emperor feeling so tired and sleepy that he cannot keep his eyes open. He thinks he may be sick and sends for his doctor.

122.The Emperor was angry because

(1) the tea leaves were covered with mud
(2) he couldn’t chew the tea leaves
(3) the tea leaves weren’t tasty
(4) the doctor gave him something that was inedible

Why: The Emperor did chew the leaves, but they did not taste nice at all. That is why he refused them and grew angry with the doctor.

123.Read the following statements and write which of the options given below is correct :
A. As he was leaving the Emperor’s room, the doctor dropped some tea leaves into the Emperor’s bathwater on purpose.
B. The Emperor tasted the hot tea water and soon he started feeling sleepy.

(1) Only A is correct
(2) Only B is correct
(3) Both A and B are correct
(4) Both A and B are incorrect

Why: The leaves fell into the bathwater by accident as the servants came in, not on purpose, so A is wrong. After drinking the tea the Emperor stopped feeling sleepy and felt fully awake, so B is wrong too.

124.The doctor gave the Emperor some _____ to help him stay _____.

(1) neem leaves, awake
(2) giloy leaves, fit
(3) tea leaves, awake
(4) tea leaves, sleepy

Why: The doctor gave him tea leaves because the Emperor could not keep his eyes open. The tea was meant to keep him awake.

125.Which one of the following words is nearest in meaning to the word ‘youthful’?

(1) Elderly
(2) Adult
(3) Experienced
(4) Young

Why: “Youthful” means having the energy and freshness of youth, that is, young. “Elderly” is its opposite.

126.Which one of the following words is opposite in meaning to the word ‘flavourful’?

(1) Yummy
(2) Nice
(3) Bland
(4) Appetizing

Why: “Flavourful” means full of taste. “Bland” means lacking taste, so it is the opposite. The other three are close in meaning to “flavourful”.

127.Identify the clause in the underlined part of the sentence :
When a few minutes had passed, he stopped feeling sleepy.

(1) Adverb clause
(2) Adjective clause
(3) Noun clause
(4) Principal clause

Why: The clause begins with “when” and tells us when he stopped feeling sleepy, so it modifies the verb as an adverb clause of time. It cannot stand alone as a sentence.

128.Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) When the servant brought the cup of hot water, the Emperor put some tea leaves into it.
(2) The Emperor tasted the water.
(3) There was a smile on his face.
(4) After drinking it, he started feeling weak and lifeless.

Why: After drinking the tea, the Emperor felt fully awake, youthful and strong. So “weak and lifeless” is the opposite of what the passage says. The other three statements follow the story.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

129.The flamingoes are not ordinary visitors to Kachchh as

(1) they come from Australia
(2) they are very beautiful birds
(3) they have medicinal value
(4) they have been the honoured guests of King Lakho

Why: According to legend, the flamingoes were the honoured guests of King Lakho, who forbade anyone to hunt them. That history is what makes them “no ordinary visitors”.

130.Flamingo City is known

(1) as a hunting ground of flamingoes
(2) as one of the biggest breeding grounds of the Greater Flamingoes
(3) for its beauty
(4) as the biggest island in the world

Why: The passage says Flamingo City is known the world over as one of the biggest breeding grounds of the Greater Flamingo. Hunting there was in fact forbidden.

131.What has caused increased salinity in the Rann of Kachchh?

(1) Arrival of flamingoes
(2) Arrival of a large number of tourists
(3) Construction of dams on rivers that flow into the region
(4) A large number of hunting expeditions

Why: Himmatsinghji traces the rise in salinity to dams built on the rivers that flow into the Rann. The dams cut off the fresh water that balances the salt.

132.Which one of the following words, as used in the passage, is similar in meaning to the phrase ‘unable to be reached’?

(1) Visitors
(2) Inaccessible
(3) Migratory
(4) Proliferation

Why: “Inaccessible” means impossible to reach or enter. In the passage, the nesting site has to be inaccessible to predatory cats and birds.

133.Which one of the following words is opposite in meaning to the word ‘destruction’?

(1) Honoured
(2) Breeding
(3) Starvation
(4) Construction

Why: Destruction is tearing something down; construction is building it up. They are direct opposites.

134.Identify the clause in the underlined part of the sentence :
When they were faced with starvation, flamingoes fled the island leaving their chicks to fend for themselves.

(1) Adjective clause
(2) Adverb clause
(3) Noun clause
(4) Principal clause

Why: The “when” clause tells us when (or under what condition) the flamingoes fled, so it modifies the verb “fled” as an adverb clause. The principal clause is “flamingoes fled the island”.

135.Which part of the following sentence contains an error?
The right mix of (A) / sweet and brackish (B) / water in the Rann are crucial (C) / for the proliferation of algae. (D)

(1) B
(2) D
(3) C
(4) A

Why: The subject is “the right mix”, which is singular; “of sweet and brackish water” only describes it. So the verb must be “is crucial”, not “are”, and the error is in part C. Note that option 3 is part C.

136.The space between what a learner can do without assistance and what they can do in collaboration with adults or more capable peers is termed as

(1) level of maturity
(2) zone of proximal development
(3) zone of achievement
(4) distance learning

Why: Vygotsky called this gap the Zone of Proximal Development. Teaching is most useful inside it, with the right support (scaffolding).

137.An impairment of language function due to localized cerebral damage which leads to difficulty in understanding and/or producing linguistic forms is called

(1) aphasia
(2) dyslexia
(3) dyscalculia
(4) dysarthria

Why: Aphasia is a language disorder caused by damage to particular areas of the brain, often after a stroke. Dysarthria affects the muscles of speech, not language itself, and dyslexia and dyscalculia are learning difficulties.

138.The process by which the language is passed from one generation to another is called

(1) cultural transmission
(2) productivity
(3) arbitrariness
(4) displacement

Why: Cultural transmission is the property of human language by which it is learnt from the community, generation after generation, rather than inherited genetically. The other options are other properties of language.

139.Between 12–18 months, children begin to produce a variety of recognizable single-unit utterances. This period, in which single terms are uttered for everyday objects, is called

(1) cooing
(2) telegraphic speech
(3) holophrastic stage
(4) babbling

Why: In the holophrastic (one-word) stage a single word carries a whole idea: “milk” can mean “I want milk”. Cooing and babbling come earlier, and telegraphic speech, with two or more words, comes after.

140.Read the statements given below on reading and writing skills :
A : The understanding of and ability to read also affects the ability to write.
B : Reading and writing are separate processes and develop independent of each other.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both A and B are correct
(2) A is correct but B is incorrect
(3) Both A and B are incorrect
(4) A is incorrect but B is correct

Why: Reading and writing develop together and support each other: good readers pick up vocabulary, structure and style that they use in their writing. So A is correct and B is incorrect.

141.All languages have certain common properties. These are called

(1) diglossia
(2) language universals
(3) register
(4) dialect

Why: Features that every human language shares, such as nouns and verbs, or ways of asking questions, are called language universals.

142.Acceptance of linguistic diversity in a class will

(1) hinder in attaining language fluency
(2) destroy the confidence of children leading to decreased imagination and creativity
(3) have no impact on the language learning
(4) boost up the confidence of children leading to increased imagination and creativity

Why: When children’s home languages are accepted in class, they feel valued and speak up more freely. This confidence supports their imagination, creativity and learning of new languages.

143.Which of the following is not the characteristic of print awareness as part of emergent literacy?

(1) Handling a book
(2) Recognizing difference between letters and words
(3) Reading is done from left to right and top to bottom
(4) Starting to read full sentences

Why: Print awareness is about how print works: holding a book the right way, telling letters from words, and knowing the direction of reading. Reading full sentences is actual reading, a later stage.

144.Given below are the learning outcomes for reading skill at foundational stage :
A. Reads short passages accurately and fluently with appropriate intonation, pauses and voice modulation
B. Reads a few sentences of familiar words with accuracy
C. Reads short passages accurately with appropriate intonation and pauses
Arrange them in order of progression.

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, C, A
(3) A, C, B
(4) C, A, B

Why: Reading grows from a few familiar sentences (B), to short passages with intonation and pauses (C), to short passages read fluently with voice modulation as well (A). Each step adds to the one before.

145.Which of the following is not the part of extensive listening?

(1) Listening for the gist
(2) Listening for a main idea
(3) Making inferences
(4) Listening for certain facts and information

Why: Extensive listening means listening to longer material for overall understanding: the gist, the main idea, and what is implied. Listening for particular facts is intensive (selective) listening.

146.Which of the following tasks cannot be used for assessment of reading skill?

(1) Read aloud
(2) Multiple-choice questions based on the text read
(3) Picture-cued word identification
(4) Storytelling session by the teacher

Why: When the teacher tells a story, the children are listening, not reading, so it cannot assess their reading. The other three tasks all require students to read.

147.Which of the following statements correctly defines running dictation?

(1) Students hear or read different parts of the text, then exchange information with others to complete the task.
(2) Children work in pairs. A text is divided in half. One child reads their text for the partner which the other child writes. Two of them work out the whole text.
(3) Children work in pairs. The runner runs to see the text and dictate to the partner. The partner writes the text.
(4) Teacher dictates the word/text to the class and students note it.

Why: In running dictation, the text is placed away from the desks. The runner goes to it, memorises a chunk, comes back and dictates it to the partner, who writes it down. Option 1 describes a jigsaw task, option 2 partial dictation, and option 4 ordinary dictation.

148.“A child is born with the innate capacity to acquire language.” This idea of language acquisition is supported by

(1) nativist
(2) cognitivist
(3) social interactionist
(4) behaviourist

Why: The nativist view, associated with Chomsky, holds that children are born with an inborn ability to acquire language, the Language Acquisition Device. Behaviourists say language is learnt through imitation and reinforcement.

149.In process writing approach, the element of the writing process during which writers formally share their work with the wider audience refers to

(1) drafting
(2) publishing
(3) editing
(4) revising

Why: Process writing moves through drafting, revising and editing to publishing. Publishing is the final stage, when the finished work is shared with readers.

150.For dealing with difficult words in the text, a language teacher first converts the words into mother tongue and then asks the students to memorize them. She is using

(1) grammar-translation method
(2) direct method
(3) structural approach
(4) communicative approach

Why: Translating words into the mother tongue and memorising them is the grammar-translation method. The direct method avoids the mother tongue altogether.

CTET February 2026 — Paper II (Social Studies)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper II (Social Studies)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part III — Social Studies / Social Science

Part IV — Language I — Marathi

Part V — Language II — English

Answer Key

CTET February 2026 — Paper II (Social Studies)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026Paper II (Social Studies)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part III — Social Studies / Social Science

Part IV — Language I — Marathi

Part V — Language II — English

Answer Key

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper II (Social Studies)