MAK LABS — CTET 8 February 2026 Paper I Question Paper with Answer Key

1.Extrinsic motivation comes from __________ while intrinsic motivation is based on __________.

(1) personal satisfaction; rewards such as prizes
(2) avoidance of punishment; rewards such as prizes
(3) approval of others; personal satisfaction
(4) personal satisfaction; approval of others

Why: Extrinsic motivation comes from outside the learner, such as praise or approval from others. Intrinsic motivation comes from within, such as the satisfaction of doing a task well.

2.Which of the following are examples of authentic learning tasks for students in primary grades?

(1) Copying answers from a friends’ notebook.
(2) Applying the concept to daily life.
(3) Memorising a set of definitions.
(4) Recalling factual information from textbook.

Why: An authentic task asks children to use what they learn in real life. Copying answers, memorising definitions and recalling facts from the textbook are not real-life uses of a concept.

3.__________ refers to the time of development when an individual is most ready to acquire a new skill or ability and it is difficult to compensate for the loss of this later on in life.

(1) Developmental Task
(2) Sensitive Period
(3) Zone of Proximal Development
(4) Developmental Milestone

Why: A sensitive period is the time when a child is most ready to pick up a skill, such as language. A loss in this period is hard to make up later in life.

4.Talking aloud to oneself with no intent to communicate with others is __________ in childhood.

(1) Uncommon and abnormal
(2) Abnormal but not uncommon
(3) Normal and common
(4) Uncommon but normal

Why: Young children often talk aloud to themselves while they play or work. Vygotsky called this private speech. It is normal and very common in early childhood.

5.According to Piaget, which of the following is an example of assimilation?

(1) A child realizes that a dog and a cat are both animals.
(2) A child learns to ride a cycle with training wheels.
(3) A child learns to tie their shoes for the first time.
(4) A child learns a new word for a familiar object.

Why: Assimilation means fitting new experience into an existing schema. Placing a dog and a cat in the known category ‘animals’ is assimilation. The CBSE key also accepts option 4, where a new word is fitted to a familiar object.

6.Assertion (A): Learning is always situated in a social context.
Reason (R): What is learned cannot be separated from how it is learned and used.
Choose the correct option:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Learning happens through interaction with people and the setting around us. What we learn cannot be separated from how we learn and use it. So (R) explains (A).

7.Which principle of development is illustrated in the following statement?
During infancy and early childhood, the limbs continue to grow faster than the hands and feet.

(1) Cephalocaudal principle
(2) Principle of centration
(3) Principle of integration
(4) Proximodistal principle

Why: Growth moves from the centre of the body outwards. The arms and legs grow before the hands and feet. This is the proximodistal principle.

8.Which of the following are important to ensure meaningful learning?
(i) Provisioning of emotional support.
(ii) An atmosphere of competition and rivalry.
(iii) Opportunities for doing and experimenting.
(iv) Standardised curriculum.

(1) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(2) (iii), (iv)
(3) (i), (iii)
(4) (i), (iii), (iv)

Why: Emotional support and chances to do and experiment make learning meaningful. Competition, rivalry and a standardised curriculum do not.

9.Formative assessment assumes that:

(1) only quantitative parameters give ‘correct’ feedback.
(2) qualitative parameters are biased and subjective.
(3) learners should also be involved in the process of assessment.
(4) competition is essential for learning.

Why: Formative assessment is assessment for learning. Learners take part in it through self-assessment and peer assessment.

10.Which of the following skill is not actively practiced in the process of ‘reciprocal teaching’?

(1) Memorizing
(2) Predicting
(3) Questioning
(4) Clarifying

Why: Reciprocal teaching practises four skills: predicting, questioning, clarifying and summarising. Memorising is not one of them.

11.In response to the question, “Is it alright to steal the chocolate from the freezer in absence of your parents?” 4-year-old Meera replied, “It will be wrong because doing so can cause punishment from the parent.” Meera’s moral reasoning depicts which stage of Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory of moral development?

(1) Formal Conventional
(2) Post-conventional
(3) Pre-conventional
(4) Conventional

Why: Meera judges stealing as wrong only because it brings punishment. Avoiding punishment is Stage 1 of Kohlberg’s pre-conventional level.

12.Assertion (A): An effective pedagogical strategy is to ask children to make linkages of new information with what they already know.
Reason (R): Identifying commonalities and differences can help children organize information which help them to think as well as remember better.
Choose the correct option:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Linking new information with what children already know is a good strategy. Finding likenesses and differences helps them organise and remember it. So (R) explains (A).

13.Which of the following is an effective way to reduce the influence of gender stereotypes amongst children prevalent in society?

(1) Providing children with materials that are gender-specific.
(2) Exposing children to diverse gender roles and encouraging them to pursue their interests.
(3) Assuming that children will naturally incline towards gender-neutral activities and interests.
(4) Encouraging children to conform to traditional gender roles.

Why: Children learn about gender roles from what they see. Showing them many different roles and letting them follow their interests weakens stereotypes.

14.Which of the following hinders the process of effective problem solving?

(1) Concept mapping
(2) Brainstorming
(3) Analogical thinking
(4) Response set

Why: A response set (mental set) makes a person keep using an old method even when it does not fit. This blocks problem solving. The other three options help problem solving.

15.Which of the following is an effective strategy for teaching children with autism?

(1) Avoiding use of any audio-visual aids.
(2) Maintaining a predictable routine.
(3) Using strict discipline and punishment.
(4) Providing constant eye contact.

Why: Children with autism feel secure with a fixed and predictable routine. Strict punishment and forced eye contact cause stress.

16.As per Jean Piaget’s theory of development, children develop __________ by the end of sensorimotor stage.

(1) Hypothetical logical reasoning
(2) Object permanence
(3) Symbolic thinking
(4) Conservation

Why: By the end of the sensorimotor stage (about 2 years) the child knows that objects exist even when they are out of sight. This is object permanence.

17.As per Lev Vygotsky, ‘inner speech’:

(1) hinders the cognitive development of children.
(2) is a sign of cognitive immaturity among children.
(3) occurs from birth until the age of three.
(4) helps in reasoning and organizing thoughts.

Why: For Vygotsky, inner speech is silent talk to oneself. It helps the child plan, reason and organise thoughts.

18.Principle of cephalocaudal development talks about __________ of development.

(1) linear nature
(2) multiple dimensions
(3) orderly sequence
(4) discontinuous nature

Why: The cephalocaudal principle says growth follows an orderly sequence from head to toe.

19.Assertion (A): Invented spellings, free explorations of writings provide teachers with opportunities of authentic assessment of learner levels.
Reason (R): Given the vast linguistic diversity in the classroom assessment in language should be dynamic.
Choose the correct option:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Invented spellings and free writing show the real level of each learner. In a classroom with many languages, such dynamic assessment is needed. So (R) explains (A).

20.Assertion (A): Creativity needs to be nurtured by presenting practical problems and issues to children for contemplation and reflection.
Reason (R): Creative children have the ability to discover something that is novel and need intellectual stimulation.
Choose the correct option:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Creative children can discover new things and need mental challenge. Practical problems for thinking and reflection give them this challenge. So (R) explains (A).

21.Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder is characterised by:

(1) Ongoing pattern of impulsivity.
(2) Restricted and repetitive behavioural patterns.
(3) Delayed motor and language skills.
(4) High levels of depression and mood swings.

Why: ADHD shows a lasting pattern of inattention, hyperactivity and impulsivity. Restricted and repetitive behaviour is a feature of autism.

22.In inclusive classrooms the curriculum should be __________ and instruction should be __________.

(1) standardized; uniform
(2) flexible; uniform
(3) standardized; differentiated
(4) flexible; differentiated

Why: An inclusive class needs a flexible curriculum and differentiated teaching so that every child can learn.

23.According to Vygotsky’s theory, the zone of proximal development refers to:

(1) The level of skill or knowledge a student is capable of mastering with help.
(2) The level of skill or knowledge a student is unlikely to ever achieve.
(3) The level of skill or knowledge a student must master to pass a test or receive a grade.
(4) The level of skill or knowledge a student has already mastered.

Why: The zone of proximal development is the gap between what a child can do alone and what the child can do with help.

24.Assertion (A): Teachers should provide a lot of scaffolding to children in the forms of prompts and cues.
Reason (R): Jean Piaget emphasized that more knowledgeable others play a significant role in advancing children’s cognitive skills through social interaction.
Choose the correct option:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Scaffolding through prompts and cues is a good practice, so (A) is true. The idea of the ‘more knowledgeable other’ belongs to Vygotsky, not Piaget, so (R) is false.

25.Students with mastery goal orientation set:

(1) high goals to impress others.
(2) low goals to avoid failure.
(3) moderate goals motivated by fear and shame.
(4) realistic learning goals.

Why: Learners with a mastery goal want to understand and improve. They set realistic learning goals, not goals to impress others or to avoid failure.

26.Which of the following is an example of a question that requires students to generate creative solutions?

(1) How do you identify the subject of a sentence?
(2) What are the various types of nouns?
(3) How would you rewrite the given text from the perspective of an object rather than a person?
(4) What is the definition of a noun?

Why: Rewriting a text from the point of view of an object needs imagination and fresh ideas. The other questions ask only for recall.

27.Misconceptions among students should be __________ and intuitive guesses should be __________ among students in primary grades.

(1) acknowledged; encouraged
(2) dismissed; discouraged
(3) acknowledged; discouraged
(4) ignored; encouraged

Why: Misconceptions should be accepted and then worked upon. Guesses based on intuition should be encouraged because they show the child’s thinking.

28.The ability of hand-eye coordination, balance and manual dexterity is affected in:

(1) Dyscalculia
(2) Dysphasia
(3) Dyspraxia
(4) Dyslexia

Why: Dyspraxia affects motor coordination: hand-eye coordination, balance and fine hand skills.

29.Critical thinking in students can be promoted by:

(1) Discouraging metacognition
(2) Discouraging collaborations
(3) Encouraging students to do rote rehearsal
(4) Encouraging questions such as what, why, how

Why: Questions like what, why and how make students think about reasons and evidence. This builds critical thinking.

30.Development of children:

(1) is a simple and unitary process.
(2) unfolds in a random manner which does not have any pattern.
(3) is multidimensional and multidirectional.
(4) is synonymous with growth.

Why: Development is multidimensional (physical, mental, social, emotional) and multidirectional (some abilities grow while others decline).

31.Ms. Rajlakshmi, a primary class mathematics teacher brings in a variety of concrete material in her classroom like bundles of match sticks, ice cream sticks, coloured buttons, base 10 blocks etc. to teach the concept of place value. Which of the following principles of theory of Zoltan P. Dienes is being used by her?

(1) Dynamic Principle
(2) Iconic Mode
(3) Perceptual Variability Principle
(4) Mathematical Variability Principle

Why: Dienes’ perceptual variability principle (multiple embodiment) says a concept should be shown through many different materials. Then the child can pick out the common idea, here place value.

32.Main objective of teaching Pictographs to students is:

(1) To utilize the free time of the students in the class
(2) To engage students in the class activities
(3) To represent data in an interesting way
(4) To develop drawing skills in students

Why: A pictograph shows data through pictures. Its main aim is to represent data in an interesting and easy way.

33.Which of the following is least appropriate in context of learning outcomes at foundational stage in mathematics?

(1) Designing activities connected to real-life situations to strengthen the learning outcomes.
(2) Children advance to the next level of learning outcomes only upon achieving certain level of proficiency at the current level.
(3) Primarily summative assessment is used to assess the skills or concepts developed at each level.
(4) Explicit and measurable learning outcomes are defined which are the pathways for competency acquisition.

Why: At the foundational stage, assessment should be ongoing and formative. Depending mainly on summative assessment is the least appropriate practice.

34.Which among the following is an example of a real life situation which represents ‘division as equal sharing’?

(1) There are 60 toffees in a packet and Samir would like to distribute it to his friends. How many toffees each friend will get?
(2) There are 30 students in a class. Teacher wants to form 5 groups of same size. How many students will be there in each group?
(3) Divide 50 into 10 equal groups.
(4) There are 10 biscuits in a packet. How many biscuits will be there in 5 such packets?

Why: In equal sharing, the number of groups is known and we find the size of each group. Here 30 students are shared into 5 equal groups. Option 1 does not say how many friends there are.

35.Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) One acute angle and one obtuse angle can be put together to make a straight angle.
(2) Reflex angle is greater than 180° but less than 360°.
(3) Two acute angles can be put together to make a reflex angle.
(4) Two acute angles can be put together to make an obtuse angle.

Why: Each acute angle is less than 90°, so two of them together are less than 180°. They can never make a reflex angle, which is more than 180°.

36.One of the most important purposes of assessment in mathematics at primary school level is to:

(1) find out important learning gaps and likewise make modifications in the pedagogy
(2) prepare learners for secondary and high school mathematics
(3) find out mathematicians of the future
(4) determine learner’s intelligence levels

Why: Assessment at the primary level helps the teacher find learning gaps and change teaching to fill them.

37.Which of the following is an example of a task based on creative thinking that can be given to students of grade 5?

(1) Find the area of a rectangle using formula
(2) Find the area of a rectangle whose length is half of its breadth
(3) Write multiplication table of 7
(4) Add 415 and 237 using column addition

Why: Finding the area when only a relation between length and breadth is given has no single fixed answer. The child must think and try many possibilities. The other tasks are routine.

38.Which of the following fractions are in descending order?

(1) ³⁄₇, ⁵⁄₉, ⁸⁄₁₁, ⁴⁄₅
(2) ⁸⁄₁₁, ⁵⁄₉, ⁴⁄₅, ³⁄₇
(3) ⁴⁄₅, ⁸⁄₁₁, ⁵⁄₉, ³⁄₇
(4) ³⁄₇, ⁴⁄₅, ⁵⁄₉, ⁸⁄₁₁

Why: As decimals: 4/5 = 0·8, 8/11 ≈ 0·73, 5/9 ≈ 0·56 and 3/7 ≈ 0·43. So the descending order is 4/5, 8/11, 5/9, 3/7.

39.The numerical values of perimeter and area of a square are equal. The length of the side of the square is:

(1) 2 units
(2) 4 units
(3) 8 units
(4) 1 unit

Why: Perimeter = 4a and area = a². If 4a = a², then a = 4 units.

40.Which of the following letters has one line of symmetry?

(1) O
(2) X
(3) S
(4) V

Why: The letter V has one line of symmetry (vertical). O and X have more than one, and S has none.

41.Computational skills in mathematics can be enhanced by:

(1) conducting hands-on-activities in class
(2) giving conceptual knowledge
(3) clarifying concepts and procedures followed by a lot of practice
(4) describing algorithms only

Why: Computation becomes quick and correct when concepts and steps are clear and are followed by enough practice.

42.A triangular pyramid has:

(1) 4 faces and 6 edges.
(2) 3 faces and 6 edges.
(3) 3 faces and 4 edges.
(4) 4 faces and 4 edges.

Why: A triangular pyramid (tetrahedron) has 4 triangular faces, 6 edges and 4 vertices.

43.If a six digits number 72x292 is divisible by 36, then the value of (3x+2) is:

(1) 16
(2) 17
(3) 20
(4) 15

Why: A number divisible by 36 must be divisible by 4 and by 9. The last two digits 92 are divisible by 4. Digit sum = 22 + x must be a multiple of 9, so x = 5. Then 3x + 2 = 17.

44.The difference between the greatest and smallest five digit numbers that can be formed using the digits 8, 2, 7, 0 and 6 only once is:

(1) 65942
(2) 66942
(3) 67942
(4) 56942

Why: Greatest number = 87620. Smallest five-digit number (0 cannot come first) = 20678. Difference = 87620 − 20678 = 66942.

45.According to National Curriculum Framework 2005, mathematics curriculum must incorporate mathematical processes which are:

(1) Memorization and application of formulae and multiplication tables in problem solving
(2) Problem solving using estimation, approximations and spatial reasoning
(3) Doing quick mental calculations
(4) Teaching and learning of procedures of problem solving

Why: NCF 2005 wants mathematical processes such as estimation, approximation, spatial reasoning and problem solving. Memorising formulae and quick calculation are narrow aims.

46.In a class, teacher prepared following table showing colours of eyes of 40 students:

	Blue eye	Brown eye	Black eye
Boys	5	4	11
Girls	7	3	10

Teacher told four students to write one statement each about this table on black-board. They wrote:
(a) Number of boys and girls are equal.
(b) Mostly students have black eye.
(c) Total number of students having blue eyes is odd.
(d) Total number of students having brown eyes is odd.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (a), (b) are true but (c), (d) are false.
(2) (a), (b) and (d) are true but (c) is false.
(3) (b) and (c) are true but (a) and (d) are false.
(4) (a), (b), (c) are true but (d) is false .

Why: Boys = 5 + 4 + 11 = 20 and girls = 7 + 3 + 10 = 20, so (a) is true. Black eyes = 21 out of 40, so (b) is true. Blue eyes = 12, which is even, so (c) is false. Brown eyes = 7, which is odd, so (d) is true.

47.According to NIPUN Bharat Mission, the states will ensure to achieve foundational numeracy till grade III by the end of the year:

(1) 2027-28
(2) 2024-25
(3) 2029-30
(4) 2026-27

Why: Under the NIPUN Bharat Mission, every child should achieve foundational literacy and numeracy by the end of Grade 3, by the year 2026-27.

48.Amita starts from the place A and reaches place B in 4 hours 44 minutes. From there, she returns to the starting place A in 3 hours 24 minutes. If she reaches back at 2.30 pm, then her starting time from place A was:

(1) 6.00 am
(2) 6.22 am
(3) 6.24 am
(4) 6.44 am

Why: Total time = 4 h 44 min + 3 h 24 min = 8 h 08 min. Going back 8 h 08 min from 2:30 pm gives 6:22 am.

49.The missing number in the pattern 325, 259, 204, 160, 127, 105 __________ is:

(1) 96
(2) 98
(3) 94
(4) 90

Why: The differences are 66, 55, 44, 33, 22, so the next difference is 11. 105 − 11 = 94.

50.Which of the following activities, most appropriately, represents the four stages involved in handling data i.e., collecting, organising, representing and interpreting data?

(1) Asking the pupils to list their favourite food.
(2) Asking the pupils to mark their birth dates on a calendar.
(3) Asking the pupils to write the names of their favourite cartoons.
(4) Collecting data about how pupils travel to school and then comparing the different modes of transport used by the pupils.

Why: This activity covers all four stages: collecting data on travel, organising and showing it, and then comparing (interpreting) the modes of transport.

51.Radha bought 9 bags of rice each weighing 9 kg 995 g. Total weight of rice in the bags is:

(1) 89.595 kg
(2) 89.795 kg
(3) 89.955 kg
(4) 89.985 kg

Why: 9 × 9·995 kg = 89·955 kg.

52.While giving a rectangular page to Mohan, Mathematics teacher told him to make a square out of it. Mohan folded that paper from one side and made a square. At what level of Van Heile’s theory of geometrical understanding Mohan is?

(1) Level 2 (Relationship)
(2) Level 1 (Analysis)
(3) Level 0 (Visualisation)
(4) Level 3 (Deduction)

Why: The CBSE key credits Level 2. Mohan does more than see shapes: he uses the relation between the sides of a rectangle and a square to make the square.

53.Which of the following statements is least appropriate about mathematics curriculum for primary classes?

(1) It should help in making connections in mathematics.
(2) It should enhance relational understanding.
(3) It must be dynamic and coherent in nature.
(4) It should be joyful and rigid.

Why: A primary curriculum should be joyful but flexible. The word ‘rigid’ makes this statement the least appropriate.

54.Problem solving method of teaching mathematics involves which of the following steps?
(a) Posing mathematical problems and instructing steps of solutions.
(b) Design a task based upon the current understanding of the students.
(c) Posing everyday problems and help learners make sense of the mathematics involved.
(d) Allowing the learners to actively take part in the finding solutions of the problems and justify the solutions.
Choose the correct option:

(1) only (a)
(2) only (d)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)

Why: In the problem-solving method the teacher designs tasks from what students already know, poses everyday problems and lets learners find and justify solutions. Giving the steps of the solution is not problem solving.

55.Work of which Indian Mathematician can be associated with “Game Theory”?

(1) Mahavira
(2) Ramanujan
(3) Brahmgupta
(4) Aryabhatta

Why: The CBSE key links game theory with Ramanujan. The other mathematicians are known for arithmetic, algebra and astronomy.

56.The perimeter of a rectangle is 410 m and its length is 123 m. The breadth of the rectangle (in m) is:

(1) 82
(2) 86
(3) 88
(4) 92

Why: Perimeter = 2(l + b), so l + b = 205 m. Breadth = 205 − 123 = 82 m.

57.If HCF of two numbers is 18, then which of the following cannot be their LCM?

(1) 128
(2) 108
(3) 72
(4) 144

Why: The LCM of two numbers is always a multiple of their HCF. 108, 72 and 144 are multiples of 18, but 128 is not.

58.How many twin primes are there in the numbers from 1 to 50?

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 7

Why: Twin primes up to 50 are (3, 5), (5, 7), (11, 13), (17, 19), (29, 31) and (41, 43). That makes 6 pairs.

59.What is the difference of the place values of the two 8s in the number 2853847?

(1) 799200
(2) 792000
(3) 799920
(4) 7999200

Why: In 2853847, one 8 is in the lakhs place (800000) and the other is in the hundreds place (800). The difference is 799200.

60.Which of the following statement is least appropriate about the errors made by students in a mathematics classroom?

(1) They can be determined by a diagnostic test.
(2) They can be persistent if not identified.
(3) They can be described but cannot be analysed.
(4) They can be repeated.

Why: Errors can be described and also analysed. Error analysis is how a teacher finds the cause of a mistake. So option 3 is the least appropriate statement.

61.At the elementary level, which one of the following topics would be most suitable for discussion and experience sharing in the EVS class?

(1) Uses of water and concept of density.
(2) Uses of water and soluble substances.
(3) Dandi march and concept of evaporation.
(4) Everyone does not get the facility of water equally.

Why: Discussing why everyone does not get water equally connects to children’s own lives and to fairness. Density, solubility and evaporation are science concepts beyond the primary level.

62.A teacher of Environmental Studies should include the local context of the children in conducting his/her class activities. Which of the following should a teacher pay attention to in order to incorporate the local context?

(1) The selection of local context should be in line with the discipline of the school.
(2) The selection of the local context should be pedagogically imaginative and ethically correct.
(3) Selection of local context should be from the textbooks of Environmental Studies.
(4) Local context should be selected according to the convenience of a teacher.

Why: Local context should be chosen with imagination, so that it helps learning, and with care, so that it does not hurt any child. It should not be limited to the textbook or the teacher’s convenience.

63.An Environmental Studies teacher of class 4 made different groups of children in his class to do the task of making letter boxes on the theme Travel. During the work of making the model of the letter box, the teacher also assessed their work. Which of the following assessment tools would the teacher have used to assess children’s activity?

(1) Portfolio
(2) Check List and Achievement test
(3) Achievement test and Anecdotal records
(4) Worksheet

Why: A portfolio collects children’s work over time, including models like the letter box. It records both the process and the product of the activity.

64.Many lessons in the NCERT EVS textbook are based on real people and their real experiences. Why would the textbook development committee have included real people and their real experiences?
(A) Children easily relate to real people.
(B) During EVS, ideas can be discussed with the children by including their experiences.
(C) It helps in reinforcing the idea that environmental studies can be done only in classrooms and through textbooks.
(D) Real people and their experiences inspire children.

(1) (A), (B) and (D)
(2) (B), (C) and (D)
(3) (A), (C) and (D)
(4) (A), (B) and (C)

Why: Real people and their experiences help children relate to the lesson, share their own experiences and feel inspired. Statement (C) is wrong because EVS is not limited to the classroom and the textbook.

65.The territorial states of Karnataka are:

(1) Maharashtra, Tamilnadu, Gujarat
(2) Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Kerala
(3) Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Odisha
(4) Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana

Why: Karnataka shares borders with Goa, Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Only option 4 lists three of these states.

66.There are many poems related to the environment in the textbooks of Environmental Studies. The teacher should also ask the children to create poems. Which one of the following process skills is mainly developed by writing poems?

(1) Creative expression
(2) Motor skills
(3) Learning skills
(4) Convergent skill

Why: Writing poems lets children express their own ideas in a new way. This is creative expression.

67.Ajay is a teacher of Environmental Studies and he wants to conduct a role play activity in his class. Which of the following topics would be most appropriate for a role play for the children?

(1) Demonstration of solubility of various substances.
(2) Evaporation of water.
(3) Germination of seeds.
(4) A family that gets only two buckets of water from a water tanker everyday.

Why: Role play suits social situations that children can act out, such as a family managing with only two buckets of water. Solubility, evaporation and germination are better learnt through experiments.

68.On the map of a big city following scale is mentioned.
Scale: 1 cm = 845 m
If on this map the measured distance between two important locations of the city is 13.7 cm, the actual distance between the two locations is approximately:

(1) 12.90 km
(2) 11.57 km
(3) 11.02 km
(4) 12.50 km

Why: Actual distance = 13·7 × 845 m = 11576·5 m, which is about 11·57 km.

69.Which one of the following tools is used to cut the dried leaves from the top of the onions in Karnataka?

(1) Illige
(2) Kurige
(3) Knife
(4) Khunti

Why: The NCERT EVS textbook describes the illige, a sickle-like tool used in Karnataka to cut the dried leaves from the top of onions.

70.The locations of Punjab and Kerala respectively with respect to Bihar are:

(1) North-west; South-east
(2) North-east; South-west
(3) North-west; South-west
(4) Due North; South-east

Why: Punjab lies to the north-west of Bihar. Kerala lies to the south-west of Bihar.

71.Which of the following is correct in the context of Environmental Studies?
(A) The syllabus of Environmental Studies is title based in which the arrangement of titles is in a spiral and sequential manner.
(B) The curriculum of Environmental Studies is theme based in which the arrangement of theme and sub-theme is in a spiral and sequential manner.
(C) The curriculum of Environmental Studies is integrated.
(D) Each lesson of the syllabus does not start with the main concept but starts with the main questions.

(1) (A), (B) and (D)
(2) (B), (C) and (D)
(3) (A), (B) and (C)
(4) (A), (C) and (D)

Why: The EVS curriculum is theme-based and integrated. Themes are arranged in a spiral way, and lessons begin with key questions. It is not a title-based syllabus, so (A) is wrong.

72.Consider the following Statements (A) and (B).
Statement (A): Sloth spends almost 20 hours a day sleeping.
Statement (B): Sloth lives for about 20 years and in that time they move around only 5 trees.
Select the correct code from the following.

(1) (A) and (B) both are wrong
(2) (A) is correct but (B) is wrong
(3) (A) is wrong but (B) is correct
(4) (A) and (B) both are correct

Why: The NCERT textbook says the sloth sleeps about 17 hours a day. It lives about 40 years and moves through only about 8 trees. So both statements are wrong.

73.I am a tree of desert areas. I grow without much water. My wood is not affected by insects and bark is used for making medicine. Guess, who am I? Choose the correct answer from the following.

(1) Desert Oak
(2) Khejadi tree
(3) Date Palm
(4) Acacia

Why: The khejadi tree grows in deserts with very little water. Its wood is not attacked by insects and its bark is used in medicine.

74.I am an Indian bird who lay eggs in between the stones. My nest is made of soft twigs, roots, wools, hair and cotton wool. Who am I? Choose the correct answer from the following.

(1) Crow
(2) Woodpecker
(3) Indian Robin
(4) Indian Peafowl

Why: The Indian robin lays its eggs in holes or between stones. It lines its nest with soft roots, hair, wool and cotton.

75.As per the EVS curriculum, which one of the following topics related to “Family and Friends” should be most suitable for class 3 children?

(1) Family Tree
(2) Causes of the changing nature of the family
(3) Changes in the family
(4) Society as family

Why: Making a family tree is the right level for Class 3. Changes in the family and the reasons for them come in later classes.

76.The distance between the capital of India (New Delhi) and the capital of Bihar (Patna) is 792 km. If an express bus covers this distance in 11 hours, the average speed of the bus in metre per second is:

(1) 20 m/s
(2) 36 m/s
(3) 72 m/s
(4) 15 m/s

Why: Speed = 792 km ÷ 11 h = 72 km/h. To change to m/s, multiply by 5/18: 72 × 5/18 = 20 m/s.

77.Which of the following should not be the appropriate pedagogy to learn theme “food” of EVS?

(1) The teacher should try to make the children express their own views.
(2) Stimulate children’s imagination to give them opportunities to construct knowledge.
(3) Motivating the children to draw a labelled diagram of the digestive system.
(4) Ask the children to draw their own picture and draw in their mind where the food goes from their mouth in the picture.

Why: Drawing a labelled diagram of the digestive system is too technical for primary EVS. The theme ‘food’ should start from children’s own ideas and imagination.

78.Choose the correctly matched pair(s).

Language	Where it is spoken (State)
(a) Malayalam	(i) Goa
(b) Konkani	(ii) Kerala
(c) Marathi	(iii) Jharkhand
(d) Gujarati	(iv) Karnataka
(e) Kannada	(v) Maharashtra
(f) Kuduk	(vi) Gujarat

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(v), (d)-(vi), (e)-(iv), (f)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv), (e)-(vi), (f)-(v)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(v), (d)-(iv), (e)-(vi), (f)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv), (e)-(v), (f)-(vi)

Why: Malayalam is spoken in Kerala, Konkani in Goa, Marathi in Maharashtra, Gujarati in Gujarat, Kannada in Karnataka and Kuduk in Jharkhand.

79.Consider the following Statements (A) and (B).
Statement (A): Animals whose ears you can see have hair on their body. These animals give birth to young ones.
Statement (B): Animals, whose ears you cannot see and they donot have hair on their body, lay eggs.
Select the correct code from the following.

(1) (A) and (B) both are wrong
(2) (A) is correct but (B) is wrong
(3) (A) is wrong but (B) is correct
(4) (A) and (B) both are correct

Why: NCERT notes that animals with visible ears have hair on their bodies and give birth to young ones. Animals without visible ears and without hair lay eggs. Both statements are correct.

80.What is the significance of Environmental Studies at the primary level? Choose the most appropriate option from the following.
(A) It is child focused.
(B) Its focus is to teach the environment to children.
(C) Environmental Studies makes children experience their environment.
(D) Its objective is to develop positive attitude, problem solving skills and values.

(1) (B), (C) and (D)
(2) (A) and (D)
(3) (A), (C) and (D)
(4) (A), (B) and (C)

Why: EVS at the primary level is child-centred, lets children experience their surroundings and builds attitudes, problem-solving skills and values. Its aim is not to ‘teach the environment’ as content.

81.Fill in the blank:
(i) Urea : Inorganic fertilizer : : Cow dung : _________
(ii) Gum : Natural adhesive : : __________ : Artificial adhesive.
Choose the correct option.

(1) (i) Fertilizer (ii) Fevicol
(2) (i) Manure (ii) Fevicol
(3) (i) Organic fertilizer (ii) Rubber
(4) (i) Manure (ii) Rubber

Why: Cow dung is a natural manure, while urea is a chemical (inorganic) fertiliser. Gum is a natural adhesive, while Fevicol is an artificial one.

82.It is said that children learn a lot from their surroundings quite easily. Their experiences should be brought into the classroom, their questions answered and their curiosities satisfied. By doing so, the curriculum of EVS can be made more enriching and creative. In the context of the above, the curriculum of Environmental Studies is indicating which of the following principles?

(1) Unknown to Known
(2) Global to Local
(3) Information to Understanding
(4) Local to Global

Why: Starting from children’s own surroundings and experiences and moving to wider areas is the principle of local to global.

83.A teacher demonstrates an experiment to his class how a mirror becomes hazy when we exhale air on it. Which general objective of teaching EVS is being achieved through this experiment?

(1) Explain the concept of cold or hot air to children.
(2) Explain the concept of inhalation and exhalation.
(3) Demonstrating experiment to the children.
(4) To engage children in exploratory and hands-on activities to acquire basic cognitive and motor skills through processes of observation, classification and inference.

Why: The activity lets children observe, compare and infer through hands-on work. This is the general aim of EVS teaching.

84.Which of the following assessment criteria, at the district/state/national level, informs various stakeholders about a child’s learning and also ensures quality of education?

(1) Learning Objectives
(2) Learning Outcomes
(3) Learning Outcomes and Competencies
(4) Specific Learning Objectives

Why: Learning outcomes along with competencies are used at district, state and national level to report on children’s learning and to ensure quality.

85.In the following question, Assertion and Reason are followed. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct option from the following.
Assertion: The cultural resources of the communities are also very important for the learning of the child. Folk tales, folk songs, jokes, art etc. enrich the language and knowledge of the child.
Reason: The local environment of the child is not only physical or natural, but his socio- cultural environment is also local.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Why: A child’s environment is social and cultural as well as natural. That is why folk tales, songs and art of the community also enrich learning. So the Reason explains the Assertion.

86.Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): A distinct centrally located spherical structure in a cell is called Nucleus.
Reason (R): Nucleus is surrounded by a jelly like structure called cytoplasm.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Both statements are true. But the cytoplasm around the nucleus does not explain why the nucleus is called a nucleus, so (R) is not the correct explanation.

87.Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully.
(A): The history of many places show us how many different cultural influences have helped to shape life and culture there.
(R): Thus regions became very diverse because of their unique history for example Laddakh and Kerala.
Choose the correct option from the following.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A).
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).

Why: Ladakh and Kerala show how many cultural influences shaped each region. Their unique histories made them diverse. So (R) explains (A).

88.Read the following Assertion and its Reason and choose the correct answer.
Assertion (A): Without worker-bee, there would be neither beehieve nor any nectar collection.
Reason (R): The male bees have very special role as workers.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Worker bees build the hive and collect nectar, so (A) is true. Worker bees are females, not males, so (R) is false.

89.A person boarded Rajdhani train from New Delhi on 30 April 2022 and reached Bhubaneshwar on 01 May 2022. The train departed from New Delhi at 17:00 hours and reached Bhubaneshwar at 20:00 hrs on 01 May 2022. If the distance between New Delhi and Bhubaneshwar by train route is nearly 1701 km. The average speed of the train during this journey was:

(1) 62.7 km/h
(2) 63 km/h
(3) 63.3 km/h
(4) 60 km/h

Why: The train ran from 17:00 on 30 April to 20:00 on 1 May, which is 27 hours. Average speed = 1701 ÷ 27 = 63 km/h.

90.In the following question, Assertion and Reason are followed. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct option from the following.
Assertion: The child’s local objects are a natural source of learning which should be given primacy in the classroom.
Reason: When the living world in and around the school is available for contemplation, children will be aware of environmental issues and will be able to nurture their interest in them.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Why: When children can observe the living world in and around the school, they become aware of environmental issues. That is why their local objects should be given first place in class. So the Reason explains the Assertion.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

91.Why did Tarawati’s husband ‘berate’ her?

(1) For not treating their daughter well
(2) For constantly quarrelling with him
(3) For picking up fights with neighbours
(4) For not doing the household work properly

Why: Tarawati’s husband scolded her for not treating Roopa well. He wanted daughters to get the same love and care as sons.

92.Tarawati’s emotional state towards her daughter could be described as __________.

(1) loving
(2) indifferent
(3) ambivalent
(4) hostile

Why: Tarawati has mixed feelings. She had not wanted Roopa to study, yet she collects things for Roopa’s practical exam and weeps when she remembers her husband’s words. Such mixed feelings are called ambivalent.

93.What social issue is highlighted in the passage?

(1) caste
(2) gender
(3) communalism
(4) poverty

Why: The passage is about the unequal treatment of daughters and their right to education. This is a gender issue.

94.Choose the word nearest in meaning to ‘holler’.

(1) shout
(2) request
(3) talk
(4) quarrel

Why: To holler means to shout or call out loudly, as Tarawati does from the window.

95.‘Things were lying at sixes and sevens ...’ means .....

(1) in proper order
(2) in a disorderly state
(3) being old and worn-out
(4) being dirty and unwashed

Why: ‘At sixes and sevens’ is an idiom for a state of confusion and disorder.

96.Which of the following is opposite in meaning to ‘admonition’?

(1) flattery
(2) praise
(3) shriek
(4) rebuke

Why: An admonition is a warning or a scolding. Its opposite is praise.

97.The next day, Roopa had to appear in her examination in __________.

(1) Home Science
(2) Chemistry
(3) Biology
(4) English

Why: The passage says Roopa had to sit for her home science examination the next day.

98.Why was Tarawati not keen to get Roopa educated?

(1) Because she did not know the value of good education
(2) Because she did not want to spend money on Roopa’s education
(3) Because she did not want Roopa to go out
(4) Because she did not love her

Why: Her husband says she is not educated herself, and that is probably why she does not want Roopa to be educated. She did not know the value of education.

99.‘. . . to broker peace between them.’
Identify the Part of Speech of the underlined expression.

(1) Adjective
(2) Preposition
(3) Verb
(4) Noun

Why: Here ‘broker’ is used after ‘to’ and means to arrange or bring about peace. It is an action, so it is a verb.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

100.‘The god of rain/turned away his face’. Which figure of speech is used here?

(1) alliteration
(2) personification
(3) oxymoron
(4) transferred epithet

Why: The rain god is given a human action, turning away his face. Giving human qualities to non-human things is personification.

101.What does ‘the poverty line/receded further’ signify?

(1) That poverty is of no consequence in the present-day world
(2) That poverty is increasing
(3) That poverty is a thing of the past
(4) That poverty is going down

Why: The poverty line ‘receded further’ means it moved further out of reach. Poverty is increasing.

102.The village becoming a graveyard is a metaphor that:

(1) people are migrating to other cities.
(2) more graveyards are being planned.
(3) people are living in graveyards.
(4) people are dying in large numbers.

Why: Calling the whole village a graveyard means people are dying there in large numbers because of hunger.

103.Kalahandi as described in the poem stands for:

(1) prosperity
(2) hunger
(3) natural disasters
(4) development

Why: The poem says “wherever there is hunger, there Kalahandi is”. Kalahandi stands for hunger.

104.What natural calamity is the poet talking about?

(1) drought
(2) earthquake
(3) landslide
(4) floods

Why: No rain, no green leaf, cracked ground and dry river sand all point to drought.

105.What is the dominant ‘mood’ of the poem?

(1) sorrow
(2) surprise
(3) anger
(4) relief

Why: The poem speaks of hunger, death and failed plans. Its main mood is sorrow.

106.Assertion (A): Learning experiences in the classroom are deeply connected to children’s lives and their contexts.
Reason (R): Learning experiences are designed to build on children’s previous understanding.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Children learn best when classroom learning is linked with their lives. That is why learning experiences build on what children already know. So (R) explains (A).

107.Which of the following is NOT true of learning a language?

(1) Language learning takes time.
(2) Language learning is meaning making.
(3) Grammar learning is essential for learning a language.
(4) All learners can learn a language easily if sufficient engagement with language is given.

Why: A language is learnt through meaningful use, not by first learning grammar. So ‘grammar learning is essential’ is not true.

108.To assess whether students can use functional exponents for buying something in a shop, it would be appropriate for students to ;

(1) Write about their food preferences.
(2) Read a short story between shopkeeper and customers.
(3) Draw the scene between shopkeeper and customers.
(4) Write short dialogue between shopkeeper and customers.

Why: Writing a short dialogue between a shopkeeper and a customer shows whether students can use the language of buying and selling.

109.A teacher found some of the aspects of language learning e.g. reading with understanding a text on scientific concepts. She decided to pick students who find it difficult on the particular aspects. She took separate session for them to support them read and understand such text. What is this practice known as?

(1) Higher Order Skills.
(2) Thinking Skills.
(3) Feedback Teaching.
(4) Remedial Teaching.

Why: Giving extra, separate help to students who find a particular area difficult is remedial teaching.

110.Which one of the following is NOT a sub skill of reading?

(1) Deducing the meaning and use of unfamiliar lexical items.
(2) Scanning to locate specifically required information.
(3) Knowing the spelling of each word.
(4) Recognizing vocabulary, picking out key words.

Why: Deducing meanings, scanning and spotting key words are reading sub-skills. Knowing the spelling of every word is a writing skill, not a reading sub-skill.

111.Assertion (A): A student portfolio is a purposeful collection of pieces of student work.
Reason (R): The Portfolio can encourage students to evaluate their own strengths and weaknesses.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: A portfolio is a planned collection of a student’s work. Because the work is collected over time, students can look at it and judge their own strengths and weaknesses. The CBSE key treats (R) as the explanation of (A).

112.To help students to develop their vocabulary, a teacher is using the material that contains language that has been made easier for students and is based on authentic material. This material is:

(1) Role-cards.
(2) Bilingual dictionaries.
(3) Graded readers.
(4) Newspaper.

Why: Graded readers are texts simplified to suit learners’ levels, often based on authentic material. They help build vocabulary.

113.A language teacher gives students a questionnaire in order to find out more about their learning styles and preferences. Here the teacher is in the role of a:

(1) Planner.
(2) Provider of expert information.
(3) Diagnostician.
(4) Manager.

Why: Finding out students’ learning styles and preferences through a questionnaire is the work of a diagnostician.

114.A teacher of class I asks her learners to scribble, draw and write whatever children want, on the walls. What does she encourage here?

(1) joy and humour.
(2) writing skill development.
(3) initiation to writing the letters of alphabets.
(4) emergent literacy development.

Why: Scribbling, drawing and free writing are the first steps towards reading and writing. This is emergent literacy.

115.Which one of the following is incorrect about the pictures? Pictures and illustration in books:

(1) retain the interest of children.
(2) to give them opportunity to draw such pictures.
(3) help to present language in unfamiliar and memorable contexts.
(4) support content.

Why: Pictures keep children interested, support the content and present language in memorable contexts. Their purpose is not to give children a chance to copy them.

116.Which of the following statement related to the young learners is true?

(1) young learners find it hard to understand abstract concepts.
(2) young learners partially understand the abstract concepts.
(3) young learners get motivated by abstract concepts.
(4) young learners understand the abstract concepts.

Why: Young learners think in concrete terms. They find abstract concepts hard to understand.

117.What steps would you take as a teacher to facilitate students’ interaction in your class?
(a) Encourage the students to ask more questions.
(b) Conduct pair and group work and invite opinion from the students.
(c) Make them read the text loudly and respond individually so that individual learning takes place.
(d) Read the dialogues to each other to interact and ask questions to each other.

(1) (b), (c), (d) are correct
(2) (a), (b), (d) are correct
(3) (a), (c), (d) are correct
(4) (a), (b), (c) are correct

Why: Questions, pair and group work, and reading dialogues to each other all create interaction. Reading aloud alone and answering individually does not.

118.Cognitive theory of language development, supports that language is:

(1) learnt through reward and punishment.
(2) learnt through interaction with in the society.
(3) dependent on child’s understanding of the concept before verbalizing it.
(4) innate capacity of an individual.

Why: The cognitive view (Piaget) says children first understand a concept and then put it into words. Language depends on thought.

119.Assertion (A): Language forms a critical aspect of cultural awareness and expression, which is considered among the major competencies to develop in children.
Reason (R): The competencies of cultural awareness and expression provide children with a sense of identity, belongingness, as well as an appreciation of other cultures and identities.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Language is a key part of cultural awareness and expression. These competencies give children a sense of identity and respect for other cultures, which is why they matter. So (R) explains (A).

120.Textbooks contain stories, poems, plays and other forms of writing by writers. We need to select such materials because they are __________.

(1) written with the purpose to be used in textbooks
(2) written by well known writers
(3) they are in simple language
(4) authentic and are in natural language

Why: Texts by writers use real, natural language. Such authentic material is the best input for learning a language.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

121.गद्यांश के अनुसार __________ और __________ जीवन का सत्य हैं।

(1) संघर्ष, मुख्यमंत्री होना
(2) मुख्यमंत्री होना, सीमाएँ
(3) सीमाएँ, परिवार
(4) संघर्ष, नेतृत्व करना

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार हर व्यक्ति का जीवन सत्ता पाने का सतत संघर्ष है, और हर व्यक्ति किसी न किसी इकाई का राजा (नेतृत्व करने वाला) बनना चाहता है।

122.गद्यांश के अनुसार __________ अपने शरीर का राजा बनना चाहता है।

(1) लीडर
(2) व्यक्ति
(3) सांसद
(4) मुखिया

Why: गद्यांश में लिखा है कि जो इन चक्करों में नहीं है, वह अकेला व्यक्ति भी अपने शरीर का राजा बनना चाहता है।

123.गद्यांश के अनुसार मनुष्य -

(1) पूरे विश्व पर आधिपत्य चाहता है।
(2) अपनी भूमिका का विस्तार चाहता है।
(3) अपने विचारों पर अधिकार चाहता है।
(4) सतत संघर्षरत रहना चाहता है।

Why: गद्यांश में मुखिया, लीडर, विधायक आदि के उदाहरण देकर बताया गया है कि हर व्यक्ति अपनी भूमिका और सीमाओं का विस्तार करना चाहता है।

124.समूह से भिन्न शब्द है -

(1) मुख्यमंत्री
(2) सांसद
(3) संघर्ष
(4) राजा

Why: मुख्यमंत्री, सांसद और राजा पद या व्यक्ति के लिए आए शब्द हैं। ‘संघर्ष’ एक भाववाचक संज्ञा है, इसलिए भिन्न है।

125.‘इक’ प्रत्यय का प्रयोग __________ शब्द में नहीं हो सकता?

(1) व्यवहार
(2) प्रकृति
(3) जीवन
(4) परिवार

Why: व्यवहार + इक = व्यावहारिक, प्रकृति + इक = प्राकृतिक, परिवार + इक = पारिवारिक। CBSE कुंजी के अनुसार ‘जीवन’ के साथ ‘इक’ प्रत्यय नहीं लगता।

126.गद्यांश के अनुसार एक व्यक्ति का जन्म __________ बनने के लिए हुआ है।

(1) राजा
(2) मुखिया
(3) लीडर
(4) परिवार

Why: गद्यांश की पहली पंक्ति है — प्रत्येक व्यक्ति का जन्म राजा बनने के लिए हुआ है।

127.गद्यांश के अनुसार व्यक्ति __________ के लिए संघर्ष करता है।

(1) सत्ता की सीमाएँ निर्धारित करने
(2) बड़े साम्राज्य का राजा बनने
(3) सत्ता प्राप्त करने
(4) सत्ता को बढ़ाने

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार हर व्यक्ति के पूरे जीवन का सतत संघर्ष एक सत्ता को पाना है।

128.‘लीडर’ शब्द है -

(1) आगत
(2) तत्सम
(3) तद्भव
(4) देशज

Why: ‘लीडर’ अंग्रेज़ी भाषा से आया शब्द है। दूसरी भाषाओं से आए शब्द आगत (विदेशी) शब्द कहलाते हैं।

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

129.‘जैसी हमारी माता, वैसे ही सबकी माता।’ वाक्य किस संदर्भ में कहा गया है?

(1) भाषा के संदर्भ में
(2) माता के संदर्भ में
(3) राष्ट्र के संदर्भ में
(4) राजनीति के संदर्भ में

Why: यह वाक्य भाषाओं के प्रसंग में आया है — जैसे हिंदी हमारी मातृभाषा है, वैसे ही कन्नड़, तमिल आदि भी किसी न किसी की मातृभाषा हैं।

130.‘हिंदी राजभाषा है, उसका सम्मान सर्वोपरि है।’ से आशय है:

(1) राजकीय कामकाज की भाषा होने के कारण हिंदी का सम्मान सबसे ऊपर है
(2) राज्य विशेष की भाषा होने के कारण हिंदी का सम्मान सबसे ऊपर है
(3) भारत की राष्ट्रभाषा होने के कारण हिंदी का सम्मान सबसे ऊपर है
(4) राजाओं की भाषा होने के कारण हिंदी का सम्मान सबसे ऊपर है

Why: राजभाषा का अर्थ है सरकारी कामकाज की भाषा। इसी कारण हिंदी का सम्मान सबसे ऊपर बताया गया है।

131.‘अनेकता में एकता हमारी सभ्यता है।’ वाक्य से आशय है:

(1) विविधता ही किसी राष्ट्र की पहचान होती है
(2) विविधता से ही समरसता आती है
(3) विविधता होते हुए भी हम सब एक हैं
(4) विविधता में एकता पुरानी बात हो गई है

Why: ‘अनेकता में एकता’ का अर्थ है — भाषा, संस्कृति आदि में विविधता होते हुए भी हम सब एक हैं।

132.‘स्थानीय’ में प्रत्यय है -

(1) नीय
(2) ईय
(3) इय
(4) य

Why: स्थान + ईय = स्थानीय। इसमें ‘ईय’ प्रत्यय है।

133.गद्यांश के अनुसार किस बात का शोर हो रहा है?

(1) हिंदी बनाम क्षेत्रीय भाषाएँ
(2) हिंदी बनाम आधुनिक भाषाएँ
(3) हिंदी बनाम बोलियाँ
(4) हिंदी बनाम तमिल

Why: गद्यांश की पहली पंक्ति के अनुसार इन दिनों हिंदी बनाम स्थानीय (क्षेत्रीय) भाषाओं को लेकर शोर मचा है।

134.गद्यांश में निम्न में से किस भाषा का ज़िक्र नहीं है?

(1) पंजाबी
(2) कन्नड़
(3) तमिल
(4) मैथिली

Why: गद्यांश में पंजाबी, कन्नड़, तमिल, मलयालम और तेलुगु का ज़िक्र है। मैथिली का ज़िक्र नहीं है।

135.‘अनेकता’ शब्द है -

(1) विशेषण
(2) क्रिया
(3) प्रविशेषण
(4) संज्ञा

Why: ‘अनेकता’ अनेक होने का भाव बताता है। यह भाववाचक संज्ञा है।

136.एक अध्यापिका को एक वीडियो मिला। उसने महसूस किया कि यह वीडियो एक टॉपिक विशेष के लिए उपयुक्त है। अध्यापिका ने इस वीडियो को आधार बनाकर दो-दो के जोड़ों में कार्य करवाने की योजना बनाई। जोड़ों में कार्य करवाने की इस गतिविधि का उद्देश्य विद्यार्थियों को क्या करने के लिए प्रोत्साहित करना है?

(1) साथ-साथ तेज गति से कार्य करने के लिए।
(2) अध्यापिका के बिना स्वतंत्र होकर कार्य करने के लिए।
(3) भाषा जागरूकता विकसित करने के लिए।
(4) अपने कार्य का स्वयं आकलन करने के लिए।

Why: CBSE कुंजी विकल्प 2 को सही मानती है। वीडियो पर आधारित जोड़ी-कार्य में विद्यार्थी एक-दूसरे के साथ काम करते हैं और अध्यापक पर कम निर्भर रहते हैं।

137.भाषा अधिगम के लिए लघु कथाओं और वृत्तान्तों का संग्रह पूरक पठन सामग्री के रूप में निर्धारित किया जाता है। पूरक पठन सामग्री का मुख्य उद्देश्य क्या है?

(1) गहन पठन (इन्टैंसिव पठन) को समुन्नत करना।
(2) नैतिक मूल्य अधिगम को समुन्नत करना।
(3) विस्तृत (एक्सटैंसिव) पठन को समुन्नत करना।
(4) बहुभाषावाद को समुन्नत करना।

Why: पूरक पठन सामग्री आनंद और सामान्य समझ के लिए अधिक मात्रा में पढ़ने हेतु होती है। यह विस्तृत पठन है।

138.अभिकथन (A): उपचारात्मक शिक्षण, शिक्षण-अधिगम प्रक्रिया का महत्वपूर्ण भाग है।
कारण (R): उपचारात्मक शिक्षण का तात्पर्य है पुन: शिक्षण करना। यह आवश्यक नहीं कि यह शिक्षण इस दृष्टि से किया जाए कि पिछले शिक्षण द्वारा सही तरीके से नहीं सीखा गया है।
नीचे दिए गए विकल्पों में से सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त विकल्प का चयन करें:

(1) (A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं लेकिन (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है।
(2) (A) सही है लेकिन (R) गलत है।
(3) (A) गलत है, लेकिन (R) सही है।
(4) (A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं और (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या है।

Why: उपचारात्मक शिक्षण अधिगम प्रक्रिया का भाग है, क्योंकि यह ठीक से न सीखी गई बातों को दोबारा, प्रायः नए ढंग से पढ़ाता है। अतः (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या है।

139.पढ़ी गई कहानी को विद्यार्थी द्वारा अपने शब्दों में पुन: बताने के माध्यम से किसका आकलन किया जा सकता है?

(1) प्रवाह
(2) बोधगम्यता
(3) स्मृति
(4) सटीकता

Why: कहानी को अपने शब्दों में सुनाने से पता चलता है कि बच्चे ने उसे समझा है या नहीं। यह बोधगम्यता का आकलन है।

140.भाषा शिक्षण के बारे में कौन-सी पूर्वधारणा गलत है?

(1) अधिगम में शिक्षार्थी की प्रथम भाषा की मुख्य भूमिका होती है।
(2) भाषा शिक्षण का मुख्य केन्द्र बिन्दु सम्प्रेषणात्मक गतिविधियों पर होना चाहिए।
(3) भाषा शिक्षण में बोलने की अपेक्षा लिखने को अधिक महत्व देना चाहिए।
(4) शिक्षार्थी जीवन की वास्तविक स्थितियों में प्रयोग करने की कोशिश द्वारा भाषा अर्जित करते हैं।

Why: भाषा में बोलना लिखने से पहले आता है। बोलने की अपेक्षा लिखने को अधिक महत्व देना गलत धारणा है।

141.भाषा अध्यापक का मुख्य उत्तरदायित्व कौन-सा है?

(1) शिक्षण के लिए विषयवस्तु का चयन करना।
(2) विभिन्न कक्षाओं में शिक्षार्थियों का समूहीकरण।
(3) शिक्षार्थियों को निर्देश देना।
(4) शिक्षार्थियों की सम्प्रेषणात्मक आवश्यकताओं की पहचान करना।

Why: भाषा अध्यापक को सबसे पहले शिक्षार्थियों की सम्प्रेषण संबंधी आवश्यकताएँ पहचाननी चाहिए। शिक्षण उन्हीं के अनुसार होता है।

142.बुनियादी चरण में बच्चे किसमें अधिक सुविधा महसूस करते हैं और बेहतर रूप से सीखते हैं?

(1) कार्यालयी भाषा में
(2) अपने घर की भाषा में
(3) अंग्रेजी माध्यम में
(4) निर्देश के माध्यम में

Why: बुनियादी चरण में बच्चे अपनी घर की भाषा (मातृभाषा) में सबसे अच्छा सीखते हैं।

143.बच्चों को कहानी सुनाने के संदर्भ में कौन-सा कथन गलत है?

(1) कहानियाँ बच्चों को वाक्य संरचना सीखने में मदद करती हैं।
(2) कहानियाँ बच्चों में समस्या समाधान कौशलों का विकास करती हैं।
(3) कहानियाँ बच्चों को जीवन में अनुसरण करने वाले नैतिक मूल्यों को सीखने में मदद करती हैं।
(4) कहानियाँ बच्चों को नवीन शब्द सीखने और अपनी शब्द संपदा का विस्तार करने में मदद करती है।

Why: कहानियाँ वाक्य संरचना, नए शब्द और समस्या समाधान सिखाती हैं। उनका उद्देश्य नैतिक मूल्य थोपना नहीं है, इसलिए विकल्प 3 गलत कथन है।

144.भाषा की गतिविधि करवाते समय एक अध्यापक विद्यार्थियों का मिश्रित योग्यता वाला समूह बनाता है। इस प्रकार के मिश्रित योग्यता वाले समूह की रचना करने से __________

(1) प्रभुत्व दिखाने वाले विद्यार्थियों को मुक्त रूप से अभिव्यक्त करने के अवसर मिलेंगे।
(2) विद्यार्थियों को एक-दूसरे की मदद करने के लिए प्रोत्साहित किया जा सकता है।
(3) अध्यापक के कार्य-भार को कम किया जा सकता है क्योंकि अध्यापक सभी पर ध्यान नहीं दे सकता।
(4) कमजोर विद्यार्थियों की पहचान की जा सकती है।

Why: मिश्रित योग्यता वाले समूह में विद्यार्थी एक-दूसरे की मदद करते हैं और एक-दूसरे से सीखते हैं।

145.बच्चों को निम्नलिखित में से किसके अधिक से अधिक अवसर मिलने चाहिए?

(1) प्रारंभिक आयु से ही दो लिखित भाषाओं के।
(2) प्रारंभिक आयु से ही बहुविध मौखिक भाषाओं के।
(3) प्रारंभिक आयु से ही बहुविध लिखित भाषाओं के।
(4) प्रारंभिक आयु से ही दो मौखिक भाषाओं के।

Why: आरंभिक वर्षों में बच्चे सुनकर और बोलकर कई भाषाएँ आसानी से सीख लेते हैं। उन्हें कई मौखिक भाषाओं का अनुभव देना चाहिए।

146.अभिकथन (A): उद्गामी साक्षरता में चित्रकारी लेखन की शुरूआत के रूप में देखी जाती है।
कारण (R): चित्र एक प्रकार के संकेत हैं और इनमें अर्थ निहित होते हैं।
नीचे दिए गए विकल्पों में से सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त विकल्प का चयन करें:

(1) (A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं लेकिन (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है।
(2) (A) सही है लेकिन (R) गलत है।
(3) (A) गलत है, लेकिन (R) सही है।
(4) (A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं और (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या है।

Why: चित्र प्रतीक हैं और उनका अर्थ होता है, जैसे लिखे शब्दों का। इसीलिए चित्र बनाना लेखन की शुरुआत माना जाता है। अतः (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या है।

147.छोटे-छोटे जोड़ों (मिनिमल पेयर) में ड्रिल करवाना किसमें सुधार लाने की प्रभावशाली युक्ति है?

(1) शब्दसंपदा
(2) उच्चारण
(3) बोध के साथ पठन
(4) व्याकरण

Why: मिनिमल पेयर ऐसे शब्द-जोड़े हैं जिनमें केवल एक ध्वनि का अंतर होता है। इनके अभ्यास से उच्चारण सुधरता है।

148.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा भाषा अर्जन के व्यवहारवादी सिद्धान्त से संबंधित नहीं है?

(1) खाली बर्तन
(2) प्रयास एवं त्रुटि (ट्रायल एंड एरर)
(3) सामाजिक अन्त:क्रियाएँ
(4) संक्रियात्मक अनुकूलन

Why: व्यवहारवाद बच्चे को खाली पात्र मानता है जो प्रयास-त्रुटि और क्रियाप्रसूत अनुकूलन से सीखता है। सामाजिक अन्त:क्रिया वायगोत्सकी का विचार है।

149.कक्षा पाँच की अध्यापिका ने अपने विद्यार्थियों को एक कहानी लिखने का कार्य दिया। जिस समय विद्यार्थी कहानी लिख रहे थे, उस समय अध्यापिका कक्षा में निरीक्षण कर रही थी और जो विद्यार्थी गलत करता या नए शब्दों के बारे में पूछता, उनकी मदद भी कर रही थी। यहाँ अध्यापिका की भूमिका क्या है?

(1) योजना निर्माणक
(2) संसाधक
(3) निदानशास्त्री
(4) प्रबंधक

Why: लिखते समय कक्षा में घूमकर गलतियों और नए शब्दों में मदद करना सुगमकर्ता (फैसिलिटेटर) की भूमिका है।

150.अभिकथन (A): पठन किसी शब्द को सही तरह से उच्चारित करने से कहीं बहुत अधिक है।
कारण (R): पठन डिकोड करना है।
नीचे दिए गए विकल्पों में से सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त विकल्प का चयन करें:

(1) (A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं, लेकिन (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं हैं।
(2) (A) सही है, लेकिन (R) गलत है।
(3) (A) गलत है, लेकिन (R) सही है।
(4) (A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं, और (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या है।

Why: पढ़ना केवल शब्दों का सही उच्चारण नहीं है, इसलिए (A) सही है। CBSE कुंजी के अनुसार (R) भी सही है, पर वह (A) की व्याख्या नहीं करता।

CTET February 2026 — Paper I

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper I

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part II — Mathematics

Part III — Environmental Studies

Part IV — Language I — English

Part V — Language II — Hindi

Answer Key

CTET February 2026 — Paper I

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026Paper I

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part II — Mathematics

Part III — Environmental Studies

Part IV — Language I — English

Part V — Language II — Hindi

Answer Key

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper I