MAK LABS — CTET 8 February 2026 Paper II (Social Studies) Question Paper with Answer Key

1.Students learn efficiently and in meaningful ways when:

(1) new concept is completely different from previously learned material.
(2) their responses and subjective experiences are attended and valued.
(3) content is presented to them in the form of incoherent pieces of information.
(4) focus is on avoiding failure instead of approaching mastery.

Why: Learning is meaningful when the teacher values students’ responses and their own experiences. Disconnected content and fear of failure work against learning.

2.In an inclusive classroom, adaptations should be made in:
(a) Learning goals
(b) Teaching-learning strategies
(c) Provisioning of support
(d) Assessment

(1) (b), (c), (d)
(2) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (d)
(4) (a), (c), (d)

Why: In an inclusive class, the goals, the teaching strategies, the support given and the assessment can all be adapted to meet children’s needs.

3.Assertion (A): Children in middle schools should be encouraged to write about their emotions on a daily/weekly basis and reflect upon them.
Reason (R): Understanding one’s emotions is a cognitive process that can lead to action.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Writing about emotions and reflecting on them helps children understand their feelings. Understanding emotions is a thinking process that can lead to right action. So (R) explains (A).

4.Assertion (A): Teachers should avoid collaborations, group work and interactions among students.
Reason (R): Learning is a passive process and occurs most effectively through memorization and imitation.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Collaboration and group work help learning, so (A) is false. Learning is an active process, not passive memorisation, so (R) is false too.

5.Assertion (A): Diversity and inclusion improve teaching and learning.
Reason (R): Engaging in conversations across differences hinders children’s ability to think critically and creatively.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Diversity and inclusion do improve teaching and learning, so (A) is true. Talking across differences helps critical and creative thinking, so (R) is false.

6.Assertion (A): Children who are struggling with dyslexia have trouble in phonological processing that makes it hard to decode words.
Reason (R): All children benefit from being encouraged in their areas of interest and ability.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Dyslexia does involve difficulty with phonological processing, and it is true that all children benefit from encouragement in their areas of strength. But (R) does not explain (A).

7.Which of the following statements about learning is not correct?

(1) Social interaction hinders learning.
(2) The most meaningful learning occurs within real-world tasks.
(3) Learners construct knowledge that makes sense to them.
(4) New learning depends on current understanding.

Why: Social interaction helps learning; it does not hinder it. So option 1 is the incorrect statement.

8.Two commonly used strategies for effective problem-solving are:

(1) Algorithms and response set
(2) Heuristics and response set
(3) Heuristics and algorithms
(4) Heuristics and functional fixedness

Why: Algorithms (step-by-step methods) and heuristics (rules of thumb) are the two common problem-solving strategies. Response set and functional fixedness are barriers.

9.According to constructivist theorists:

(1) Children learn best when information is presented to them in a final form.
(2) Children have a tendency to behave in unruly ways that needs to be corrected.
(3) Children have a natural tendency to ‘make sense’ of the world.
(4) Children learn only when extrinsically motivated.

Why: Constructivists hold that children actively try to make sense of the world and build their own knowledge.

10.Which of the following are effective teaching strategies to cater to diverse needs of learners in a classroom?
(a) Differentiated Instruction
(b) Standardized Curriculum
(c) Individualized Education Plans

(1) (a), (c)
(2) (a), (b), (c)
(3) (a), (b)
(4) (b), (c)

Why: Differentiated instruction and Individualised Education Plans meet the needs of different learners. A standardised curriculum treats everyone the same.

11.Which of the following is not an effective strategy in problem-solving?

(1) Overlooking relevant information
(2) Breaking down complex problems into simpler parts
(3) Recognizing patterns and relationships
(4) Using logical reasoning to solve problems

Why: Overlooking relevant information leads to wrong solutions. The other three are good problem-solving strategies.

12.A teacher is designing a lesson plan for a group of students with varying levels of understanding of a topic. According to Vygotsky’s theory, which of the following should the teacher consider when designing the lesson?

(1) The teacher should consider each student’s current level of understanding and provide appropriate support to help them to reach the next level.
(2) The teacher should only focus on the students who are already at an advanced level of understanding and provide them with more challenging work.
(3) The teacher should ask each student to work individually on the specified problem.
(4) The teacher should provide all students with the same level of challenge.

Why: Vygotsky’s zone of proximal development asks the teacher to start from each child’s present level and give suitable support (scaffolding) to reach the next level.

13.Characteristics such as ‘lacking reading fluency’, ‘reversion of words’, ‘tendency towards distraction’ are typical identifying characteristics of:

(1) Dementia
(2) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
(3) Dyslexia
(4) Autism Spectrum Disorder

Why: Poor reading fluency and reversing letters or words are typical signs of dyslexia.

14.Students feel more motivated to learn in an environment which ensures:
(a) Belongingness
(b) Fear
(c) Rejection
(d) Safety

(1) (b), (c)
(2) (b), (d)
(3) (a), (b)
(4) (a), (d)

Why: Children are more motivated when they feel they belong and feel safe. Fear and rejection reduce motivation.

15.When learning new information, which of the following is a helpful strategy for children to use to ensure they understand the content material?
(a) Rereading the information once
(b) Asking questions and seeking clarification
(c) Pretending to understand
(d) Making up their own meanings for unfamiliar terms

(1) (c), (d)
(2) (a), (b), (c)
(3) (a), (b)
(4) (a), (c)

Why: Rereading and asking questions to clear doubts help understanding. Pretending to understand and making up meanings do not.

16.Assertion (A): When talking about differences, expressions that put the person ahead of the difference should be used such as using ‘the student with disabilities’ rather than ‘the disabled student’.
Reason (R): The language we use when talking about learners with differing needs shapes the perspective and attitudes.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Person-first language such as ‘the student with disabilities’ is used because the words we use shape attitudes. So (R) explains (A).

17.According to Piaget when children reach the point of being able to generalize and engage in mental trial and error by thinking up hypothesis and testing them in their heads they are in:

(1) Concrete operational stage
(2) Formal operational stage
(3) Sensorimotor stage
(4) Pre-operational stage

Why: Forming hypotheses and testing them mentally is abstract, logical thinking. It belongs to Piaget’s formal operational stage.

18.National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 emphasizes on transforming assessment by:

(1) incorporating self-assessment and peer-assessment
(2) practicing unitary notion of intelligence
(3) devaluing socio-cultural context of students
(4) executing summative form of assessment

Why: NEP 2020 wants assessment to be holistic, including self-assessment and peer assessment.

19.According to Jean Piaget, cognitive development:

(1) is the process of acquiring the ability to use cultural tools.
(2) is the process of adaption to the environment by changing one’s schemas.
(3) is simple addition of new facts and ideas to the existing store of information.
(4) is dependent upon the development of language capabilities.

Why: For Piaget, cognitive development is adaptation to the environment. Children change their schemas through assimilation and accommodation.

20.Following Lev Vygotsky’s ideas, a teacher decided to give hints and cues to the students who were stuck on a given problem and let the students try to solve that problem again. By doing so, teacher is practicing the concept of __________.

(1) Functional Fixedness
(2) Scaffolding
(3) Assimilation
(4) Collective monologue

Why: Giving hints and cues so that a child can solve the problem is scaffolding.

21.As per constructivist approaches of learning, learning is facilitated when:

(1) Pedagogy is teacher-centric and culturally indifferent.
(2) Tasks are incoherent and disorderly.
(3) Activities are interactive and collaborative.
(4) Content is disconnected and eccentric.

Why: Constructivism says learning is helped by interactive and collaborative activities.

22.According to Lawrence Kohlberg around which ethics do very young children’s moral reasoning revolve?

(1) Ethics of perspectives of others
(2) Ethics of laws
(3) Ethics of egocentricism
(4) Ethics of care

Why: Kohlberg found that very young children reason from their own point of view, judging right and wrong by reward and punishment to themselves. This is egocentric reasoning.

23.Which of the following does not come under the category of sensory impairments?

(1) hard of hearing
(2) partial loss of vision
(3) colour blindness
(4) dysgraphia

Why: Dysgraphia is a learning disability affecting writing. It is not a sensory impairment like hearing loss, partial vision loss or colour blindness.

24.Assertion (A): If physical development of children is delayed then their social and emotional development gets affected.
Reason (R): There is developmental continuity in the course of children’s development.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Development in one area affects other areas, and development is continuous. So a delay in physical growth can affect social and emotional development. (R) explains (A).

25.Moving from conservative education towards progressive education requires shift from __________.

(1) performance-oriented goals to mastery-oriented goals
(2) teacher-centered pedagogy to exam-centered pedagogy
(3) formative evaluation to diagnostic evaluation
(4) integrated curriculum to standardized curriculum

Why: Progressive education moves away from performance (marks and ranks) towards mastery (real understanding).

26.Rapid increase in height and weight during adolescence that usually precedes sexual maturity is referred to as:

(1) Menstruation
(2) Pubescence
(3) Growth spurt
(4) Developmental trend

Why: The rapid rise in height and weight in adolescence is called the growth spurt.

27.Assertion (A): Though height and body build are primarily inherited characteristics, good nutrition and exercise also make a difference.
Reason (R): Heredity and environment interact in their effects on development.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Heredity and environment work together. Height is inherited, but nutrition and exercise also affect it. So (R) explains (A).

28.Assertion (A): Male characters in stories and books are often presented as strong and adventurous while female characters are shown as warm and sensitive.
Reason (R): Schools and curriculum influence gender-role identity as they are powerful agents of secondary socialization.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Books and schools are agents of secondary socialisation, so the way they show male and female characters shapes gender roles. (R) explains (A).

29.A teacher should create a classroom culture where students’ motivation to learn is primarily focused to:

(1) understand and appreciate the process of learning.
(2) prove their worth to others.
(3) avoid shame of appearing ignorant.
(4) compete with each other.

Why: Motivation should come from understanding and enjoying learning itself, not from proving one’s worth or avoiding shame.

30.What is the role of peers in the socialization process?

(1) Peers are the primary agents of socialization for children.
(2) Peers have a greater influence on socialization during adolescence than during early childhood.
(3) Peers have no major influence on socialization.
(4) Peers have a minor influence on socialization compared to parents and other adults in all stages of development.

Why: Peers become more important in socialisation during adolescence than in early childhood, when family has the main influence.

31.Which one of the following is NOT a permanent wind? Choose the correct answer:

(1) Westerlies
(2) Easterlies
(3) Trade Winds
(4) Monsoons

Why: Westerlies, easterlies and trade winds blow all year round in the same direction, so they are permanent winds. Monsoons change direction with the season.

32.How much longitudinal extent does one Time Zone of Earth of one Hour each cover?

(1) 15°
(2) 60°
(3) 45°
(4) 30°

Why: The Earth turns 360° in 24 hours, that is 15° in one hour. So each one-hour time zone covers 15° of longitude.

33.Match the following pairs:

Crop	Climate
(a) Coffee	(i) high temperature, heavy rainfall
(b) Jute	(ii) cool climate
(c) Tea	(iii) moderate temperature and rainfall
(d) Wheat	(iv) warm and wet climate

Choices: (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Why: Coffee needs a warm and wet climate, jute needs high temperature and heavy rainfall, tea grows in a cool climate, and wheat needs moderate temperature and rainfall.

34.Water scarcity is caused by the following given factors:
(a) Water Harvesting
(b) Variation in Rainfall
(c) Contamination of water
(d) Over exploitation

(1) (a), (b), (c)
(2) (a), (c), (d)
(3) (b), (c), (d)
(4) (a), (b), (d)

Why: Variation in rainfall, pollution of water and over-use cause water scarcity. Water harvesting is a solution, not a cause.

35.In reference to Panchayati Raj, which of the following sequence is in correct hierarchical order?

(1) Gram Panchayat - Panchayat Samiti - Gram Sabha - Zila Parishad
(2) Gram Sabha - Gram Panchayat - Panchayat Samiti - Zila Parishad
(3) Panchayat Samiti - Gram Panchayat - Gram Sabha - Zila Parishad
(4) Gram Sabha - Panchayat Samiti - Gram Panchayat - Zila Parishad

Why: The Gram Sabha (all adult voters of the village) elects the Gram Panchayat. Above it come the Panchayat Samiti at block level and the Zila Parishad at district level.

36.Why is the globe considered as true model of the Earth? Choose the most appropriate statement:

(1) It is spherical in shape.
(2) It is ball like.
(3) It is fixed.
(4) Countries, continents and oceans are shown in correct size.

Why: A globe is a true model because it is round like the Earth and shows countries, continents and oceans in their correct size and shape. The CBSE key accepts both options 1 and 4.

37.In which year did James Mill publish his three volumes book titled “A History of British India”?

(1) 1817
(2) 1818
(3) 1815
(4) 1816

Why: James Mill published ‘A History of British India’ in three volumes in 1817.

38.Which means of communication has the most important role in making world a large global society?

(1) Satellite communication
(2) Postal services
(3) Mass Media
(4) Messages through Pigeons

Why: The CBSE key credits mass media. Newspapers, radio, television and the internet carry news and ideas across the world and bring people together into a global society.

39.“The progress of any nation is dependent upon the unity of different social and political groups. Political parties should be mindful of this unity during the competitive electoral politics.” Which of the following major development/s within the national movement attest the above mentioned assertion?
(a) During the Rowlatt Satyagraha, the participants tried to ensure that Hindus and Muslims were united in the fight against British rule.
(b) From the late 1930s, the League began viewing the Muslims as a separate “nation” from the Hindus.
(c) The Congress’s rejection of the League’s desire to form a joint Congress - League government in the United Provinces in 1937.

(1) (c) and (a)
(2) (c) only
(3) (a) and (b)
(4) (b) and (c)

Why: The CBSE key credits (a) and (b). The Rowlatt Satyagraha shows Hindus and Muslims united against British rule. The League’s later claim of a separate nation shows what happens when that unity is lost.

40.Celestial bodies in our solar system having their own heat and light are:

(1) Meteoroids
(2) Stars
(3) Planets
(4) Satellites

Why: Stars, like the Sun, have their own heat and light. Planets, satellites and meteoroids do not.

41.‘The farmer in USA works like a businessman’. Justify the statement. Choose the correct reasons:
(a) Use of Tractors, harvesters
(b) Farm size is small
(c) Automated Grain storage
(d) Use of chemical fertilizers

(1) (a), (b), (d)
(2) (a), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c)
(4) (b), (c), (d)

Why: Large farms in the USA use machines like tractors and harvesters, automatic grain storage and chemical fertilisers, and are run like a business. US farms are large, not small.

42.The Satnami movement in Central India was founded by:

(1) Ghasidas
(2) Jyotirao Phule
(3) Haridas Thakur
(4) Shri Narayan Guru

Why: The Satnami movement in central India was started by Ghasidas, who worked among leather workers to improve their social status.

43.Biotic and Abiotic conditions existing on the earth form : (Choose the appropriate category):

(1) Human Made Environment
(2) Human Environment
(3) Natural Environment
(4) Environment Management

Why: Living (biotic) and non-living (abiotic) things that exist on Earth naturally make up the natural environment.

44.Which of the following is not an example of discrimination?

(1) Stopping someone from living in certain nighbourhood
(2) Asking a boy not to cry as boys don’t cry
(3) Preventing a group of people from taking water from a common well
(4) Not allowing a group of people to drink tea in same cups as others

Why: Telling a boy not to cry is a gender stereotype. The other options deny people their rights or treat them unequally, which is discrimination.

45.Sufficient Rainfall on the earth surface is very important for following reasons:
(a) Survival of plants and animals.
(b) Brings fresh water to the Earth’s surface.
(c) It brings droughts.
(d) Most of the ground water comes from rainfall.
Choices:

(1) (b), (c), (d) are correct.
(2) (a), (c), (d) are correct.
(3) (a), (b), (d) are correct.
(4) (a), (b), (c) are correct.

Why: Rainfall keeps plants and animals alive, brings fresh water to the surface and refills ground water. It does not bring drought; lack of rain does.

46.What will be the time at 90° East when it is 12.00 noon at Greenwich Meridian?

(1) 6 PM
(2) 9 PM
(3) 7 PM
(4) 6 AM

Why: Each degree of longitude equals 4 minutes. 90° × 4 = 360 minutes = 6 hours. East of Greenwich is ahead, so the time is 12 noon + 6 hours = 6 PM.

47.‘Rampurva Bull’, a finely polished stone sculpture of Mauryan period has been found from:

(1) Bihar
(2) Jharkhand
(3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Uttar Pradesh

Why: The Rampurva bull capital, a polished Mauryan stone sculpture, was found at Rampurva in Bihar.

48.The first cotton mill in India was set up as a spinning mill in Bombay in the year:

(1) 1854
(2) 1855
(3) 1852
(4) 1853

Why: The first cotton mill in India was set up as a spinning mill in Bombay in 1854.

49.Consider the following Assertion and Reasons to choose the appropriate option:
Assertion: There was a huge demand for Indigo in the European Market in 17th and 18th Centuries.
Reason 1: By the 17th Century, European cloth producers persuaded their governments to relax the ban on indigo import.
Reason 2: By the end of the 17th Century Britain began to industrialise.

(1) Assertion and both the Reasons are correct.
(2) Assertion is wrong, Reasons on their own are right.
(3) Assertion and Reason 1 are correct.
(4) Assertion and Reason 2 are correct.

Why: Demand for indigo was high in Europe, and European cloth makers persuaded their governments to relax the ban on indigo imports. Britain began to industrialise only towards the end of the 18th century, not the 17th, so Reason 2 is wrong.

50.Dispel the misconceptions to arrive at appropriate conclusions with regard to changes in the colonial agrarian policies.
(a) As Diwan, the Company became the chief administrator of the territory under its control.
(b) After 1765 Company had to think of administering the land and organising its revenue resources.
(c) Before 1765, the Company purchased goods in India by importing huge quantities of grain from Britain.
(d) After 1765, the revenue collected in Bengal could finance the purchase of goods for export.

(1) (a), (d) only
(2) (b), (d) only
(3) (a), (b) only
(4) (b), (c) only

Why: [KEY] The CBSE final key credits (a) and (b): as Diwan the Company became the chief financial administrator, and after 1765 it had to organise land and revenue. Statement (c) is wrong, because before 1765 the Company bought goods by importing gold and silver from Britain, not grain. Statement (d) is also in the NCERT textbook (Bengal’s revenue could now finance exports), but the key does not include it. Candidates were marked on option 3.

51.(A): Lithosphere is the solid crust or the hard top layer of the earth.
(R): It is made up of rocks and minerals and covered by a thin layer of soil.
Choose the correct option of the following:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A).

Why: The lithosphere is the hard top layer of the Earth. It is made up of rocks and minerals with a thin layer of soil, which explains why it is solid and hard. So (R) explains (A).

52.Analyze the following historical claims with reference to the relation between Tribes, Nomads and settled communities. Choose the appropriate option.
(a) Varna based society did not interact with the tribal people at all. The rigidity was due to caste system.
(b) There were tribes that rejected both the caste system and orthodox Hinduism.
(c) Some tribes established extensive states with well organised systems of administration.
(d) Political power brought them in conflict with larger Kingdoms.

(1) (c), (d) and (a) are valid.
(2) (d), (a) and (b) are valid.
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are valid.
(4) (b), (c) and (d) are valid.

Why: Some tribes rejected caste and orthodox Hinduism, some set up large, well-run states, and their power brought them into conflict with bigger kingdoms. Statement (a) is wrong because varna-based society did interact with tribes.

53.A river makes waterfalls while flowing in the mountains. Select the two main reasons for the waterfalls:
(a) River moves in between trees.
(b) River flows over very hard rocks.
(c) River moves over soft rocks.
(d) River flows down a steep valley.
Choices:

(1) (a) and (d) are correct.
(2) (b) and (c) are correct.
(3) (a) and (c) are correct.
(4) (b) and (d) are correct.

Why: Waterfalls form where a river flows over very hard rock and drops down a steep valley or slope.

54.The cultural unity and diversity of the present time could be applied to which of the following historical facts related to Hampi?
(a) Hampi temples were the hub of cultural activities.
(b) Devadasis (temple dancers) performed before the deity, royalty, but NOT before the masses.
(c) The Mahanavami festival, known today as Navaratri in the south, was one of the most important festivals celebrated at Hampi.

(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (a) only
(3) (a) and (b)
(4) (b) and (c)

Why: Hampi’s temples were centres of culture, and the Mahanavami festival is still celebrated as Navaratri. Statement (b) is wrong because devadasis also performed before large crowds.

55.Assertion: ‘The process of India becoming a nation was a long drawn one. Emergence of political consciousness and the resulting political associations take time. India did not one day wake up to independence in 1947’. Choose the appropriate evidence as reason.
(a) The consciousness of British control over the resources of India began to be clearly stated by political association formed after 1850.
(b) The political associations worked with the idea that the people should be sovereign.
(c) Poona Sarvajanik Sabha, Madras Mahajan Sabha functioned in specific parts of the country and catered to the specific region, community and class.
(d) The Ilbert Bill controversy deepened the desire for an all India organisation of educated Indians.

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(2) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (b) only
(4) (c) and (d) only

Why: Political associations formed after 1850 spoke about British control over Indian resources, worked for the idea that the people are sovereign, and the Ilbert Bill controversy led to the demand for an all-India body. These show a slow growth of national consciousness. Statement (c) shows regional, not national, bodies.

56.Tamil Epic Manimekalai was composed by:

(1) Kalidas
(2) Madhavi
(3) Ilango
(4) Sattanar

Why: The Tamil epic Manimekalai was composed by Sattanar (Chithalai Chathanar). Ilango composed Silappadikaram.

57.Consider the following statements of Bengal temple - building and choose the appropriate option:
(a) Temples were built to demonstrate piety.
(b) Temples were built to demonstrate power.
(c) Temples began to copy the double-roofed structure of the thatched huts.
(d) Temples began to copy the four-roofed structure of the thatched huts.

(1) Only (c), (d) and (a) are appropriate.
(2) All (a), (b), (c) and (d) are appropriate.
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) are appropriate.
(4) Only (b), (c) and (d) are appropriate.

Why: Bengal temples were built to show both piety and power. Their design copied the double-roofed (dochala) and four-roofed (chauchala) thatched huts. All four statements are correct.

58.In the following, how many have been matched incorrectly?
(a) Kol rebellion – 1831-32
(b) Santhal revolt – 1855
(c) Bastar rebellion – 1920
(d) Warli revolt – 1939

(1) Only three of the above
(2) None of the above
(3) Only one of the above
(4) Only two of the above

Why: The Kol rebellion (1831-32) and Santhal revolt (1855) are correct. The Bastar rebellion was in 1910 and the Warli revolt in 1940, so two are matched incorrectly.

59.Which of the following places in India is known as ‘Little Tibet’?

(1) Arunachal Pradesh
(2) Dharmshala
(3) Bodhgaya
(4) Ladakh

Why: Ladakh is called ‘Little Tibet’ because its land, people and culture are close to Tibet.

60.In the context of Masulipatnam, which had contacts with distant lands for trade, choose the appropriate options:
(a) In the 17th Century, both the Dutch and English East India Companies attempted to control Masulipatnam as it became the most important port on the Andhra Coast.
(b) Dutch were people from distant lands of Denmark and Spain.
(c) The competition between trading groups such as the Golconda nobler, Persian merchants, Telugu Komati Chettis and European traders made the city prosperous.
(d) Mir Jumla, the Mughal governor began to play off the Dutch and the English against each other.

(1) (a), (b), (c) only
(2) (c), (d), (a) only
(3) (a), (b) only
(4) (c), (d) only

Why: Masulipatnam was the main port of the Andhra coast; competition among traders made it rich; and Mir Jumla played the Dutch and English against each other. Statement (b) is wrong because the Dutch came from Holland (the Netherlands).

61.An important element in the Social Science classroom is the acknowledgement of India’s diversity. Which of the following traits should you develop as a Social Science teacher and also consciously inculcate in students so that this diversity is truly appreciated?
(a) Reciting slogans about unity
(b) Being sensitive and respectful while talking about cultures which are different from one’s own
(c) Constantly reflecting on one’s prejudices which might arise from one’s social location in society
Choose the most appropriate option:

(1) Only (a) and (c)
(2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a)
(4) Only (a) and (b)

Why: Respecting other cultures and reflecting on one’s own prejudices help students truly value diversity. Reciting slogans does not.

62.Which of the following will help in developing better teaching learning environment in Social Science classrooms?
(a) Development of reference libraries.
(b) Creation of flexible school timings.
(c) Accessibility to disseminative technologies only.
(d) Development of study material in regional languages.

(1) (a), (c), (d)
(2) (a), (b), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c)
(4) (b), (c), (d)

Why: Reference libraries, flexible school timings and study material in regional languages improve the learning environment. Depending only on one-way technology does not.

63.Below are two statements, read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options:
Statement I: In school, summative assessment has more visibility.
Statement II: Summative assessment checks the learning outcomes at the end of a grade or unit or a term.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both the Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both the Statement I and Statement II are false.

Why: Summative assessment gets more attention in schools, and it checks learning at the end of a unit, term or grade. Both statements are true.

64.Below are two statements, read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options:
Statement I: Fieldwork, project work and group activities should form the basis of teaching- learning in Social Sciences.
Statement II: Projects having direct link with the local community may be encouraged to develop curiosity in Social Sciences teaching-learning.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both the Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both the Statement I and Statement II are false.

Why: Fieldwork, projects and group work should form the base of social science teaching, and community-linked projects build curiosity. Both statements are true.

65.Below are two statements, read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options:
Statement I: Assessment is made continuously in educational settings.
Statement II: Assessment is a process that involves doing a number of things at different times.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both the Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both the Statement I and Statement II are false.

Why: Assessment goes on all the time in schools, and it involves many activities done at different times. Both statements are true.

66.Democracy or equity should be taught:

(1) by covering these as knowledge areas but not by make these as part of classroom process.
(2) by covering these as knowledge areas as well as part of classroom process.
(3) only by covering these as knowledge areas.
(4) only by make these as part of classroom process.

Why: Democracy and equity should be taught as content and also practised in the way the classroom is run.

67.Which of the following actions would not be helpful in addressing the marginalisation of certain community?

(1) Mainstreamization
(2) Protecting cultural diversity
(3) Social movement
(4) Government policy

Why: Forcing a marginalised group into the ‘mainstream’ can erase its identity. Protecting culture, social movements and government policies help such groups.

68.If you want to introduce your students about the difference between the Buddha statues made in Mathura (Mathura style) and Takshashila (Gandhara style), the most appropriate method would be:

(1) Showing a PowerPoint Presentation based on above mentioned styles
(2) Interview with an Architect
(3) Discussion based on the picture given in the textbook
(4) Taking a trip to the National Museum

Why: The CBSE key credits discussion on the textbook pictures. It is easily available to every class and lets students compare the two styles side by side.

69.Below are two statements. Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options:
Statement I: Political Science suggests dynamism that engages with processes that produces structures of domination and their contestations by social forces.
Statement II: Political Science imagines civil society as the sphere where more informed, receptive and responsible citizens could be produced.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Why: Political science studies how structures of power are formed and challenged, and it sees civil society as the place where informed, responsible citizens grow. Both statements are true.

70.Below are two statements, one of them is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options.
Assertion (A): Like other subjects, in Social Science also learners need to be actively engaged in order to construct their own knowledge.
Reason (R): Active engagement refers to engagement of body and mind.

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: In social science too, learners build knowledge through active engagement, which means using both body and mind. So (R) explains (A).

71.Consider the following in-text question “Fill in the blank” given in the chapter on urban administration : In a Municipal Corporation, the elected members are called __________. Which of the following abilities/skills is being tested here?

(1) Explanation
(2) Remembering
(3) Summarizing
(4) Classification

Why: Filling in a single term from the chapter tests recall, that is remembering.

72.Which of the following provisions does not promote social justice?

(1) Equal pay for equal work
(2) Prohibition on human trafficking
(3) Special schemes for girls in government schools
(4) Special police stations

Why: Equal pay, a ban on trafficking and special schemes for girls promote social justice. The CBSE key treats special police stations as a provision that does not.

73.Below are two statements, one of them is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options.
Assertion (A): In India, studying Social Science is associated more with girls than boys.
Reason (R): This type of approach to Social Sciences is indicative of a ‘patriarchal and gender biased’ society.

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: The CBSE key treats both statements as true, with (R) as the explanation. Linking social science with girls reflects a gender-biased view of subjects.

74.Below are two statements, one of them is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options.
Assertion (A): A test is a form of assessment.
Reason (R): It answers the question, either in comparison with others or in comparison with a domain of performance task.

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: A test is a tool of assessment, and it answers questions about a learner either by comparing with others or with a set level of performance. So (R) explains (A).

75.Which of the following methods may be used for improving the national standards of Social Science education to meet the challenges of global competition?
(a) Identifying learning outcomes.
(b) Developing innovative and improved evaluation tools.
(c) Designing centralized, standardized and singular courses.
(d) Developing audio-visual and multimedia based interactive study material.

(1) (a), (c), (d)
(2) (a), (b), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c)
(4) (b), (c), (d)

Why: Clear learning outcomes, better evaluation tools and multimedia material raise standards. Centralised, uniform courses do not.

76.As a teacher of Social Science, which of the following will you be careful about while discussing issues like gender discrimination and caste discrimination?
(a) Encouraging speaking up in the class.
(b) Making students learn to listen to the others.
(c) Non-acceptance of conflicts in the classroom.
(d) Developing an atmosphere of trust in the classroom.

(1) (a), (c), (d)
(2) (a), (b), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c)
(4) (b), (c), (d)

Why: Encouraging students to speak, teaching them to listen and building trust help such discussions. Refusing to accept any conflict in class shuts down honest discussion.

77.‘Boys are into sports whereas girls are into arts and crafts’. What does this statement reflect?

(1) Stereotypes
(2) Difference
(3) Tradition
(4) Prejudices

Why: Saying boys like sports and girls like crafts is a fixed idea about a group. This is a stereotype.

78.It is important to share examples of ‘plurality of people’ in a community in the Social Science textbooks because:

(1) it facilitates in judging the community.
(2) it facilitates in generating portrayals of local community.
(3) it ensures oversimplification of community.
(4) it ensures labelling of community.

Why: Showing many kinds of people in a community helps build true pictures of local communities and avoids labels and over-simplification.

79.Which of the following are examples of intervention in religion by state as laid out in the Indian Constitution?
(a) Abolition of untouchability
(b) Prohibition of child labour
(c) Ban on child marriage
(d) Laying out Vishakha guidelines
Options:

(1) Only (a) and (c)
(2) Only (b) and (d)
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(4) Only (b) and (c)

Why: Abolishing untouchability and banning child marriage are cases where the state steps into religious practices for equality. Child labour and the Vishakha guidelines are not about religion.

80.Which of the following feature of the Indian Constitution does not allow the legislature and the executive to interfere in the work of the judiciary?

(1) Federalism
(2) Separation of powers
(3) Right to freedom
(4) Right against exploitation

Why: Separation of powers keeps the legislature and executive from interfering in the work of the judiciary, so courts stay independent.

81.Below are two statements, one of them is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options.
Assertion (A): Conventional Social Science teaching emphasizes learning about societies and times without reference to the child’s actual lived experiences.
Reason (R): Converting sets of ‘Social Science facts’ into processes of social inquiry has been a major strength of the texts (based on NCF - 2005).

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Old-style social science taught about societies without linking them to children’s lives. NCF 2005 textbooks turned facts into social inquiry to correct this. The CBSE key treats (R) as the explanation of (A).

82.Which of the following purpose Indian Constitution does not serve to?

(1) Coordination among different communities to live together
(2) Give rights to the citizens against individuals and communities
(3) Delineate the ideals a country should uphold
(4) Keep itself static so that the structures in the society remain unchanged

Why: The Constitution is meant to change with society through amendments. Keeping itself static so that society never changes is not one of its purposes.

83.Below are two statements, read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options:
Statement I: It would be easy to promote equity and democracy through a classroom where teachers do not allow children to ask question.
Statement II: It would be difficult to promote equity and democracy through a classroom where varying opinions are encouraged to be voiced and debated.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Why: Stopping children from asking questions makes equity and democracy harder, not easier, so I is false. Encouraging varied opinions makes them easier, not harder, so II is false.

84.Which of the following are institutional sources of debts in rural India?
(a) Moneylenders
(b) Cooperatives
(c) Government Banks
(d) Landlords
Options:

(1) Only (a) and (d)
(2) Only (a), (b) and (d)
(3) Only (a) and (c)
(4) Only (b) and (c)

Why: Cooperatives and government banks are formal (institutional) sources of credit. Moneylenders and landlords are informal sources.

85.While teaching your class about the government’s responsibility of providing healthcare, you decide to conduct a debate between two groups of students on whether the healthcare system in the country is functioning properly or not. Which of the following is not a desirable goal of organizing a classroom debate?

(1) Improving students’ abilities to see an issue from different perspectives.
(2) Teaching students to become competitive and win at any cost.
(3) Enhancing student involvement and participation in class.
(4) Training students to make use of supporting evidence for their claims.

Why: A debate should help students see many sides, take part actively and use evidence. Teaching them to win at any cost is not a desirable goal.

86.Read the following statements and choose the correct option:
Statement (A): The work done by the public works department of the government do not need the approval of the members of the legislative assembly.
Statement (B): People elect the members of the legislative assembly as their representatives.
Options:

(1) Both (A) and (B) are true and (B) is the reason for (A).
(2) Both (A) and (B) are true, but (B) is not the reason for (A).
(3) (A) is true, (B) is false.
(4) (A) is false, (B) is true.

Why: Work done by the public works department does come up in the legislative assembly, where elected members (MLAs) question and approve it. So (A) is false. People do elect MLAs, so (B) is true.

87.Which of the following is true in context of representative democracy in India?

(1) Indirect participation of the representatives
(2) Dual citizenship
(3) People exercising franchise
(4) Direct participation of people

Why: In a representative democracy people use their right to vote to elect representatives. India has single citizenship and indirect participation of the people.

88.Below are two statements, read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options:
Statement I: Social (Studies) Science became part of the official curriculum in modern India only with the Basic Education programme of Gandhiji.
Statement II: The Secondary Education Commission provided the official recognition to the subject Social (Studies) Science at an all India level.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Why: Social studies entered the official curriculum with Gandhiji’s Basic Education programme, and the Secondary Education Commission gave it all-India recognition. Both are true.

89.Which of the following is/are correct in the context of testing?
(a) It is carried out on skills related to a particular subject.
(b) It is usually done by posing a set of questions in a uniform manner.
(c) It is an unsystematic procedure for measuring the students’ understanding of a particular content or subject.

(1) Only (a) and (b)
(2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a)
(4) Only (c)

Why: A test measures subject-related skills and asks the same questions in the same way to everyone. It is a systematic procedure, so (c) is wrong.

90.Which of the following statements on markets are true?
(a) In weekly markets, things are available in cheaper rates because the shop owners purchase directly from the producers.
(b) Phone and internet shopping have caused losses to the neighbourhood shops.
(c) The goods sold in permanent shops are often costly because the shop owners have to bear the expenditure of rent, electricity, government fees etc.
Options:

(1) Only (a) and (c)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(4) Only (b) and (c)

Why: Weekly markets are cheap because sellers buy directly and have no rent to pay, permanent shops are costlier because of rent and bills, and online shopping hurts neighbourhood shops. All three statements are true.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

91.Which one of the following words is most opposite in meaning to the word, ‘retrieve’?

(1) remedy
(2) abandon
(3) recover
(4) rectify

Why: To retrieve means to get something back. Its opposite is to abandon, that is, to give up or leave behind.

92.Pelicans beat their wings over water also to __________.

(1) help their short legs
(2) swallow the fish
(3) dive on the fish
(4) push the fish towards the shallow water

Why: Pelicans form a line or a U and beat their wings on the water to drive the fish into shallow water, where they scoop them up.

93.Pelicans usually live __________.

(1) water bodies
(2) in colonies
(3) near cities
(4) in North America

Why: The passage says pelicans are found on coastlines and along lakes and rivers, that is, near water bodies.

94.Pelicans webbed feet make them __________.

(1) powerful swimmers.
(2) look large with short legs.
(3) have their toes tied.
(4) look awkward on land.

Why: Thanks to their webbed feet, pelicans are strong swimmers once they are in water.

95.Which one of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word, ‘splendid’?

(1) magnificent
(2) ordinary
(3) huge
(4) high

Why: Splendid means very fine or grand. Magnificent is the closest in meaning.

96.Identify the clause in the underlined part of the sentence.
When the fish collect in the shallows, the pelicans simply scoop them up.

(1) Adverb clause of place
(2) Adverb clause of time
(3) Adverb clause of manner
(4) Adverb clause of purpose

Why: The clause begins with ‘when’ and tells us when the pelicans scoop up the fish. It is an adverb clause of time.

97.Study the following statements:
(A) The baby pelicans pick their food from their parents’ pouches.
(B) The fish are kept in the pouches and eaten when the pelican feel hungry.

(1) Both (A) and (B) are right.
(2) Both (A) and (B) are wrong.
(3) (A) is right and (B) is wrong.
(4) (B) is right and (A) is wrong.

Why: Young pelicans take food from their parents’ throats, not pouches, so (A) is wrong. Pelicans do not store fish in the pouch; they swallow them at once, so (B) is wrong.

98.Identify the clause of the underlined part of the sentence.
Chemical pesticides, which damage the eggs of pelicans, devastate the sea birds.

(1) Noun clause
(2) Principal clause
(3) Adverb clause
(4) Adjective clause

Why: The clause begins with ‘which’ and describes the noun ‘pesticides’. It is an adjective (relative) clause.

99.How does the brown pelican catch the fish?

(1) By beating their wings.
(2) By cornering the fish into low waters.
(3) By diving on the fish from above.
(4) By storing the fish in their pouch.

Why: The passage says the brown pelican dives on the fish from above and traps them in its bill.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

100.According to the poem, which of the following kind of house is NOT found in the meadows?

(1) nest
(2) stable
(3) burrows
(4) ant’s mound

Why: The poem mentions burrows, nests and the ant’s mound. A stable is not mentioned.

101.Study the following statements:
(A) The rabbit is hiding in a burrow.
(B) The buttercup is tempting a butterfly.

(1) Both (A) and (B) are right.
(2) Both (A) and (B) are wrong.
(3) (A) is right and (B) is wrong.
(4) (B) is right and (A) is wrong.

Why: The rabbit is sitting very still in the grass, not hiding in a burrow, so (A) is wrong. The CBSE key accepts (B): the butterfly rests on the buttercup to sip its nectar.

102.‘A butterfly unfolding its drinking straws’. Which figure of speech is used in the above line?

(1) metaphor
(2) imagery
(3) alliteration
(4) simile

Why: The butterfly’s feeding tube is called its ‘drinking straws’ without using ‘like’ or ‘as’. This direct comparison is a metaphor.

103.Which surprises do the meadows not hold for us?

(1) hopping of a frog out of the brook
(2) a butterfly feeding on nectar
(3) softness of the grass
(4) soft murmur of the stream

Why: The poem talks of the butterfly, the soft grass and listening by the brook. A frog hopping out of the brook is not mentioned.

104.How will you find a rabbit?

(1) When he hops
(2) When he is sleeping
(3) When he is in his burrow
(4) When he is sitting still

Why: ‘Though at first you may not see him, when he hops you will.’ You find the rabbit when it hops.

105.What does the poet mean by velvet grass?

(1) grass as soft as velvet
(2) grass made of velvet thread
(3) the carpet of velvet
(4) grass shining like velvet

Why: ‘Velvet grass’ describes grass that is as soft as velvet.

106.Which of the following is NOT the aim of multilingualism in school education?

(1) Learning of mother tongue, Hindi and English under three language formula.
(2) All children begin their schooling with their mother tongue and move on to add many (at least two more) languages.
(3) Making use of the languages of learners for teaching-learning in school.
(4) Learning of the mother tongue as a language and as medium of learning, as far as possible.

Why: The three-language formula is a policy arrangement. The aims of multilingualism are to begin in the mother tongue, add more languages, and use learners’ languages in teaching.

107.Which of the following is true in terms of the objectives of Learning Outcomes?
(a) promote competency-based learning rather than content focused learning.
(b) enable learners to master the language skills necessary to become creative users of language.
(c) master the content and be able to apply it later.
(d) enable learners to learn to use language for specific purposes.

(1) (d) and (c) are true
(2) (a) and (d) are true
(3) (c) alone is true
(4) (b) and (c) are true

Why: Learning outcomes promote competency-based learning rather than content learning, and help learners use language for specific purposes.

108.Mrs. Usha Rani, a teacher of English at the Government High School, supports her learners to speak the English language by making them use the language for day-to-day purposes and by teaching them formulaic usages. What does she attempt to develop in her learner?

(1) Cognitive Academic Language Proficiency
(2) Basic Interpersonal Communication Skills
(3) Communication Skills
(4) Interpersonal Skills

Why: Using language for day-to-day talk and set phrases builds Basic Interpersonal Communication Skills (BICS), as described by Jim Cummins.

109.Rahul, a learner of class VI while learning the new grammatical form is able to connect what he has already learned. Which of the following strategies comes from this?

(1) Metacognitive strategies
(2) Both cognitive and metacognitive strategies
(3) Heuristic strategies
(4) Cognitive strategies

Why: Linking new learning with what one already knows is a cognitive strategy. Metacognitive strategies are about planning and checking one’s own learning.

110.A teacher collects a particular pattern of errors of learners of class VII and discusses them once a month to make her learners aware of their errors. She does not reveal who committed those errors. She also asks her learners to reflect on their errors. What is this practice known as?

(1) Providing feedback
(2) Error analysis
(3) Study and engagement with grammar
(4) Teaching grammar

Why: Collecting common errors, discussing them without naming anyone and asking learners to reflect is a form of feedback based on error analysis. The CBSE key accepts both options 1 and 2.

111.Select two appropriate readings to promote school-based assessment.
(a) It helps in the promotion of autonomy among both learners and teachers.
(b) It gives scope for the school to plan on their own.
(c) It takes away the examination board’s power.
(d) It does not involve learner as an active participant in the processes of planning the assessment.

(1) (c) and (d)
(2) (d) and (a)
(3) (a) and (b)
(4) (b) and (c)

Why: School-based assessment gives autonomy to learners and teachers and lets schools plan on their own.

112.Which approach to language teaching advocates words and word chunks as the foundation for language learning?

(1) Lexical approach
(2) Grammar translation method
(3) Task based language learning
(4) Communicative approach

Why: The lexical approach treats words and word chunks (lexis) as the base of language learning.

113.A teacher of class VII reads out the short text of seven sentences. Then she asks her learners to listen to it carefully and recreate the text nearer to it, not exactly the same text. What is this strategy known as?

(1) Bottom-up strategy
(2) Paragraph dictation
(3) Schema creation
(4) Top-down strategy

Why: Listening to a short text and then rebuilding it in one’s own words is a form of paragraph dictation (dictogloss).

114.Which of the following statements best describes ‘procedural knowledge’ in the context of learning grammar?

(1) learning the rules of grammar and reproduce it later.
(2) Understanding how a grammatical form works from a grammar book.
(3) knowing about the form.
(4) knowing what a grammatical form is and using it.

Why: Procedural knowledge is knowing how to use a form, not just knowing about it. It means knowing what a grammatical form is and using it.

115.Words that we recognise when we hear or see them are known as:

(1) Receptive vocabulary
(2) Engaging vocabulary
(3) Lexis
(4) Productive vocabulary

Why: Words we understand when we hear or read them form our receptive vocabulary. Words we use in speaking and writing form our productive vocabulary.

116.What is the innateness hypothesis in language acquisition and language learning?

(1) It believes that all human beings possess language knowledge at birth.
(2) It believes that language is learned as a result of habit formation.
(3) It rejects the idea that all languages have grammars and all children learn them in their own way.
(4) It believes that all human beings can learn languages through physical drilling and conditioning.

Why: The innateness hypothesis (Chomsky) says humans are born with a capacity for language.

117.What does ‘content-oriented language inputs’ refer to?

(1) language inputs that focus on information
(2) vocabulary, pronunciation, grammar, etc.
(3) language input, which focuses on how language is used
(4) presentation of the inputs and its processes

Why: Content-oriented input focuses on information, that is, on the message. Form-oriented input focuses on vocabulary, pronunciation and grammar.

118.Which educational philosophy advocates the following?
Learning environment such as real-world settings or case-based learning are used instead of predetermined sequences of instruction.

(1) Audiolingualism
(2) Cognitivism
(3) Nativism
(4) Constructivism

Why: Using real-world settings and cases instead of fixed sequences of instruction is a constructivist approach.

119.Which one of the following does not come under institutional writing?

(1) Curriculum Vitae
(2) Reviews
(3) Notes of Condolence
(4) Business letter

Why: CVs, reviews and business letters are institutional (formal) writing. A note of condolence is personal writing.

120.Vani is reading an article in order to get a general overview of the text. What is her reading known as?

(1) Skimming
(2) Critical reading
(3) Drawing Inference
(4) Scanning

Why: Reading quickly to get a general overview is skimming. Scanning is looking for specific information.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

121.‘जागृति’ का विलोम है -

(1) सृष्टि
(2) सुषुप्ति
(3) सचेत
(4) सीमित

Why: जागृति का अर्थ है जागना। इसका विलोम सुषुप्ति (सोई हुई अवस्था) है।

122.‘अध्ययन से विकास, उन्नति और प्रगति के रास्ते खुलते हैं।’ यह भाव गद्यांश की किस पंक्ति में व्यक्त किया गया है?

(1) ‘अध्ययन’ का सामान्य अर्थ है पढ़ना।
(2) अध्ययन प्रत्येक क्षेत्र की मूल समृद्धि का आधार है।
(3) अध्ययन के लिए असीमित विषय क्षेत्र हैं।
(4) आत्मिक शान्ति का लाभ पाया जा सकता है।

Why: गद्यांश की अंतिम पंक्ति — अध्ययन-मनन प्रत्येक क्षेत्र की मूल समृद्धि का आधार है — यही भाव व्यक्त करती है।

123.गद्यांश में अध्ययन के किस विषय का उल्लेख नहीं हुआ है?

(1) दर्शन
(2) विज्ञान
(3) इतिहास
(4) साहित्य

Why: गद्यांश में साहित्य, संगीत, विज्ञान, धर्म, दर्शन और मनोरंजन का उल्लेख है। इतिहास का उल्लेख नहीं है।

124.‘अध्ययन ने नए क्षितिज का उद्घाटन किया है।’ वाक्य से आशय है:

(1) अध्ययन से विकास का नया क्षेत्र सामने आया है।
(2) अध्ययन कल्पनाशीलता को पुष्ट करता है।
(3) नई-नई पुस्तकों का विमोचन होना ज़रूरी है।
(4) अध्ययन से अपार संभावनाओं के द्वार खुलते हैं।

Why: ‘नए क्षितिज का उद्घाटन’ का आशय है कि अध्ययन से नई और अपार संभावनाओं के द्वार खुलते हैं।

125.‘समृद्धि’ का अर्थ है -

(1) संपन्नता
(2) समिधा
(3) सम्राज्ञी
(4) सम्यक्

Why: समृद्धि का अर्थ है संपन्नता।

126.अध्ययन के द्वारा क्या प्राप्त किया जा सकता है?

(1) रुचियों का विस्तारण।
(2) कार्यों का निरीक्षण।
(3) सूचनाओं का संग्रहण।
(4) अंधविश्वासों का अधिग्रहण।

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार अध्ययन से अपनी रुचियों को विस्तृत, जागृत और परिष्कृत किया जा सकता है।

127.उपसर्ग की दृष्टि से ‘समालोचना’ का विग्रह है -

(1) सम + आलोचना
(2) समा + लोचना
(3) सम् + आलोचना
(4) स + म + आलोचना

Why: समालोचना = सम् + आलोचना। इसमें ‘सम्’ उपसर्ग है।

128.‘पढ़ने के साथ गुनना’ का क्या तात्पर्य है?

(1) पढ़े गए पर वक्तव्य तैयार करना।
(2) पढ़कर पुनर्लेखन करना।
(3) पढ़कर याद कर लेना।
(4) पढ़े गए पर चिंतन मनन करना।

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार ‘गुनना’ का अर्थ है — जो पढ़ा है उस पर गहराई से चिंतन-मनन करना।

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

129.‘प्राचीन’ का विलोम है:

(1) अधीन
(2) भविष्य
(3) परंपरागत
(4) नवीन

Why: प्राचीन का अर्थ है पुराना। इसका विलोम नवीन है।

130.गद्यांश के अनुसार कौन-सा वाक्य सही है?

(1) विज्ञापन की आवश्यकता घटती जा रही है।
(2) सांस्कृतिक आयोजन विज्ञापन की दुनिया से अछूते हैं।
(3) विज्ञापन एक आधुनिक कला है।
(4) यह कला भी है और एक व्यवसाय भी है।

Why: गद्यांश में लिखा है कि विज्ञापन कला के साथ-साथ एक व्यवसाय भी बन गया है।

131.प्राचीन काल में विज्ञापन का क्या स्वरूप था?

(1) पत्र-पत्रिकाओं में विज्ञापन छपवाना।
(2) मुनादी द्वारा विज्ञापन करवाना।
(3) टी.वी. द्वारा विज्ञापन प्रसारित करवाना।
(4) रेडियो द्वारा विज्ञापन प्रसारित करवाना।

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार प्राचीन काल में ढिंढोरा पीटना और मुनादी करना विज्ञापन के रूप थे।

132.‘विज्ञापन के क्षेत्र में क्रान्ति आई।’ वाक्य से आशय है -

(1) विज्ञापन का विषय-क्षेत्र घट रहा है।
(2) विज्ञापन की सार्थकता बढ़ गयी है।
(3) विज्ञापन के क्षेत्र में अभूतपूर्व परिवर्तन हुआ है।
(4) विज्ञापन से लोगों को जानकारी नहीं पहुँच रही है।

Why: क्रान्ति का अर्थ है बड़ा और अचानक परिवर्तन। अर्थात् विज्ञापन के क्षेत्र में अभूतपूर्व परिवर्तन हुआ।

133.विज्ञापन का सामान्य अर्थ क्या है?

(1) केवल सामान्य लोगों को जानकारी देना।
(2) सभी लोगों को भ्रमित करना।
(3) लोगों तक सूचनाएँ पहुँचाना।
(4) केवल विशिष्ट लोगों को संदेश देना।

Why: गद्यांश की पहली पंक्ति के अनुसार विज्ञापन का सामान्य अर्थ नई सूचना को जन-जन तक पहुँचाना है।

134.प्रत्यय की दृष्टि से कौन-सा शब्द भिन्न है?

(1) ललित
(2) शोधित
(3) उत्पादित
(4) निर्मित

Why: शोधित, उत्पादित और निर्मित में ‘इत’ प्रत्यय लगा है। ‘ललित’ मूल शब्द है, इसमें यह प्रत्यय नहीं है, इसलिए यह भिन्न है।

135.गद्यांश में विज्ञापन के किस स्वरूप का उल्लेख नहीं हुआ है?

(1) भित्ति लेखन
(2) रेडियो
(3) पत्र-पत्रिका
(4) टी.वी.

Why: गद्यांश में रेडियो, पत्र-पत्रिका और टी.वी. का उल्लेख है। भित्ति लेखन का उल्लेख नहीं है।

136.सभी शिक्षार्थी विद्यालय में अपनी शिक्षा मातृभाषा में सीखते हैं और जैसे-जैसे वे अगली कक्षाओं में जाते हैं, बहुत सी भाषाएँ सीखते चलते हैं। ‘शिक्षा में भाषा’ नीति के अनुसार इसे क्या कहेंगे?

(1) भाषा शिक्षा की नींव के रूप में मातृभाषा
(2) मातृभाषा आधारित बहुभाषावाद
(3) संस्कृति आधारित शिक्षा में भाषा नीति
(4) विद्यालयी शिक्षा के लिए त्रिभाषा सूत्र

Why: मातृभाषा से शिक्षा शुरू करके आगे कई भाषाएँ जोड़ते जाना मातृभाषा आधारित बहुभाषावाद है।

137.उत्पादक शब्द संपदा क्या है?

(1) वे शब्द जिन्हें हम पहचान नहीं पाते हैं।
(2) वे शब्द जिनका हम सुनने के दौरान कभी-कभी प्रत्यास्मरण करते हैं।
(3) वे शब्द जिनका प्रयोग हम लेखन और बोलने में करते हैं।
(4) वे शब्द जिन्हें हम सुनने पर पहचान पाते हैं।

Why: उत्पादक शब्दावली वे शब्द हैं जिनका प्रयोग हम लिखने और बोलने में करते हैं।

138.वह भाषा जो कक्षा में विविध प्रकार के विषय क्षेत्रों में प्रयुक्त की जाती है, अध्यापक उसे विद्यार्थियों को प्रस्तुत करते हैं और उसमें अन्त:क्रिया करते हैं। इस भाषा कौशल को क्या कहेंगे?

(1) भाषा प्रयुक्ति
(2) संज्ञानात्मक अकादमिक भाषायी निपुणता
(3) बुनियादी अन्त:वैयक्तिक संप्रेषण कौशल
(4) जीवन के वास्तविक उद्देश्यों के लिए भाषा

Why: विषयों की पढ़ाई में कक्षा में प्रयुक्त शैक्षिक भाषा संज्ञानात्मक अकादमिक भाषायी निपुणता (CALP) कहलाती है।

139.नियम उन्मुखी भाषा निवेश से क्या तात्पर्य है?

(1) वे निवेश जो सूचनाओं पर बल देते हैं।
(2) लिखना सीखने के लिए निवेश की संभाव्यता।
(3) भाषा सीखने के लिए निवेश का अर्थ
(4) शब्द संपदा, उच्चारण और व्याकरण का प्रयोग

Why: रूप अभिमुखी भाषा निवेश भाषा के रूपों — शब्दावली, उच्चारण और व्याकरण — से संबंधित है।

140.निम्नलिखित कथन में निहित व्याकरणिक ज्ञान के प्रकार से क्या तात्पर्य है? ‘नियमों के बारे में ज्ञान, उनका वर्णन करना और सीमित अभ्यास में उनका प्रयोग करना।’

(1) प्रक्रियात्मक ज्ञान
(2) घोषणात्मक ज्ञान
(3) दक्षता
(4) अधिसंज्ञानात्मक ज्ञान

Why: किसी रूप के बारे में जानना, उसका वर्णन करना और सीमित अभ्यास में लगाना घोषणात्मक (डिक्लेरेटिव) ज्ञान है।

141.निम्नलिखित कार्य को क्या कहा जाएगा? एक संक्षिप्त पाठ्यवस्तु के छोटे 2 खंड या प्रत्येक एक पंक्ति छोड़कर दूसरी पंक्ति शिक्षार्थियों को दो-दो के जोड़ों में दी जाती है। प्रत्येक शिक्षार्थी ने इसे अपने साथी को पढ़कर सुनाना है (डिक्टेट) और दूसरे ने लिखना है। फिर इस प्रक्रिया का विपरीतकरण होता है, दूसरा व्यक्ति सुनता है और पहला लिखता है और बाद में पाठ्य सामग्री को अन्तिम स्वरूप देने के लिए दोनों साथ मिलकर कार्य करते हैं।

(1) पारस्परिक श्रुतलेख
(2) व्याकरण श्रुतलेख
(3) प्रतिलेखन (ट्रांसक्रियेशन)
(4) अनुच्छेद श्रुतलेख

Why: जोड़ीदार बारी-बारी से एक-दूसरे को पाठ का हिस्सा बोलकर लिखवाते हैं और फिर पूरा पाठ बनाते हैं। यह पारस्परिक (म्यूचुअल) श्रुतलेख है।

142.भाषा शिक्षण में ‘सामग्री को शिक्षणशास्त्रीय रूप से अनुभव कर पाने’ से क्या तात्पर्य है?

(1) अध्यापक को अपनी कक्षा के लिए शिक्षणशास्त्र समझने के समर्थ बनाना।
(2) कक्षा में प्रयोग के लिए विभिन्न प्रकार की शिक्षणशास्त्रीय युक्तियों की सूची बनाना।
(3) भाषा शिक्षणशास्त्र को समुन्नत करने के लिए गतिविधियों और कार्यों को शामिल करना।
(4) अध्यापक को शिक्षणशास्त्र स्वीकार करने के समर्थ बनाने हेतु सामग्री को शिक्षणशास्त्र में शामिल करना।

Why: सामग्री का शिक्षणशास्त्रीय अनुभूतिकरण यानी शिक्षण विधि को सामग्री में ही शामिल करना, ताकि अध्यापक उसे अपना सके।

143.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा अधिगम के लिए आकलन है?

(1) एक अवस्था विशेष में शिक्षार्थियों की उपलब्धि को निदानात्मक रूप से राज्य के द्वारा किया जाने वाला आकलन।
(2) प्रत्येक टर्म के अन्त में विद्यार्थियों की प्रगति का पर्यवेक्षण करने के लिए अभिकल्पित आकलन।
(3) वह आकलन जिसकी अभिकल्पना शिक्षण अधिगम प्रक्रिया के दौरान विद्यार्थियों की प्रगति का पर्यवेक्षण करने और उनमें सुधार लाने के लिए की जाती है।
(4) वह आकलन जिसकी अभिकल्पना वर्ष के अन्त में विद्यार्थियों की प्रगति जानने और उन्हें अगली कक्षा में भेजने के लिए

Why: अधिगम के लिए आकलन शिक्षण के दौरान विद्यार्थियों की प्रगति पर नज़र रखने और उसे सुधारने के लिए होता है।

144.आप निम्नलिखित में से किस कथन की काव्य शिक्षण अधिगम के लिए अनुशंसा नहीं करेेंगे?

(1) काव्य आनन्द के लिए है।
(2) काव्य व्याकरण शिक्षण के लिए है।
(3) काव्य शिक्षार्थियों की कल्पनाशीलता का अभ्यास करने के लिए है।
(4) काव्य भाषा के साथ कार्य करने के लिए है।

Why: कविता आनंद, कल्पना और भाषा के साथ काम करने के लिए है। उसे मुख्यतः व्याकरण पढ़ाने का साधन बनाना उचित नहीं।

145.निम्नलिखित कार्य में क्या शामिल है? शिक्षार्थियों को एक होटल की भोजन तालिका (मैन्यु कार्ड) दिया जाता है। उन्हें ` 1800 की राशि के अन्तर्गत चार लोगों के लिए भोजन के लिए कहना है। एक शाकाहारी है, दूसरे को मशरूम से एलर्जी है। उन्होंने इसमें से ` 70 वापसी यात्रा के लिए भी रखने है। शिक्षार्थी भोजन संबंधी अपनी प्राथमिकताएँ और वापसी यात्रा हेतु रखी जाने वाली राशि के बारे में बात कर रहे हैं।

(1) संज्ञानात्मक युक्तियाँ
(2) प्रस्तुति - अभ्यास - उत्पाद (भाषा)
(3) उच्च स्तरीय चिंतन कौशल
(4) अध्ययन संलग्नता - विमर्श - प्रयोग (भाषा)

Why: शिक्षार्थी मेन्यू का अध्ययन करते हैं, कार्य में लगते हैं, विकल्पों पर विचार करते हैं और भाषा का प्रयोग करके निर्णय लेते हैं। CBSE कुंजी इसे अध्ययन-संलग्नता-विमर्श-प्रयोग (SERU) मानती है।

146.भाषा अर्जन और भाषा अधिगम की सहजात परिकल्पना के बारे में कौन सा सही है?

(1) भाषा संकाय गंभीर अभ्यास और ड्रिल के माध्यम से बच्चों को भाषा उत्पन्न करने का गुण प्रदान करती है।
(2) भाषा को उत्पन्न करने और भाषा अर्जन हेतु भाषा संकाय बच्चों की स्थायी निधि है (उन्हें सम्पन्न बनाती है)।
(3) यह अभिभावकों, सहपाठियों और बच्चों के नज़दीक रहने वालों के प्रयास हैं और साथ-साथ भाषा अर्जन के लिए उत्तरदायी परिवेश है।
(4) भाषा केवल मनुष्य की अनूठी विशेषता है और केवल मनुष्य ही भाषा बोल सकते हैं।

Why: सहजात परिकल्पना के अनुसार बच्चों में मौजूद भाषा क्षमता ही भाषा के अर्जन और उत्पादन के लिए उत्तरदायी है।

147.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी गतिविधि बॉटम-अप श्रवण गतिविधि है?

(1) किसी के द्वारा सुनते समय गड्मड् (जम्बल्ड) शब्दों को वाक्यों में पुन:व्यवस्थित करना।
(2) कविता गाना, तुरन्ता (एक्सटम्पोर) व्याख्यान, वादविवाद और चर्चाएँ।
(3) श्रुतलेख, क्लोज श्रवण, बहुवैकल्पिक प्रश्नों का प्रयोग, सकारात्मक और नकारात्मक कथनों की पहचान करना।
(4) सारांशीकरण, समग्रसंदेश का श्रवण और पृष्ठभूमि संबंधी ज्ञान का प्रयोग करना।

Why: बॉटम-अप श्रवण ध्वनि, शब्द और वाक्य से अर्थ बनाता है। श्रुतलेख, क्लोज़ श्रवण और बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न ऐसी गतिविधियाँ हैं।

148.अधिगम अर्थ की खोज है। इसलिए अधिगम उन मुद्दों से आरम्भ होना चाहिए जिनमें शिक्षार्थी सक्रिय रूप से अर्थ खोजने की कोशिश कर रहे हैं। इस विचार की अनुशंसा कौन-सा शैक्षिक दर्शन करता है?

(1) बहुविध बुद्धि
(2) संरचनावाद
(3) व्यवहारवाद
(4) रचनावाद

Why: अधिगम को अर्थ की खोज मानना और शिक्षार्थियों के अपने प्रश्नों से शुरू करना रचनावाद का विचार है।

149.एक अध्यापक कक्षा 8 के शिक्षार्थियों को निम्नलिखित प्रदत्त कार्य देता है। इस प्रकार के लेखन को क्या कहा जाएगा? अपने सहपाठी (जोड़ीदार) के साथ मानस मंथन करो, विचार बिन्दु नोट करो और एक ऐसा लेखा तैयार करो जिसमें इस विषय पर पक्ष और विपक्ष के लिए दो-दो तर्क हों। टॉपिक - “विद्यार्थियों को मुद्रित पाठ्य पुस्तकें देने की आवश्यकता नहीं है।”

(1) विमर्शात्मक लेखन
(2) वर्णनात्मक लेखन
(3) निज लेखन
(4) व्याख्यात्मक लेखन

Why: किसी विषय के पक्ष और विपक्ष में तर्क देकर लिखना विमर्शात्मक (डिस्कर्सिव) लेखन है।

150.संध्या मशीन के बारे में जानकारी प्राप्त करने के लिए एक आलेख पढ़ती है। उसके इस पठन को क्या कहेंगे?

(1) सरसरी तौर पर पठन (स्किमिंग)
(2) बारीकी से पठन (स्केनिंग)
(3) सरसरी दृष्टि
(4) समीक्षा करना

Why: किसी विशेष जानकारी को ढूँढने के लिए पढ़ना बारीकी से पठन (स्कैनिंग) है।

CTET February 2026 — Paper II (Social Studies)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper II (Social Studies)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part III — Social Studies / Social Science

Part IV — Language I — English

Part V — Language II — Hindi

Answer Key

CTET February 2026 — Paper II (Social Studies)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026Paper II (Social Studies)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part III — Social Studies / Social Science

Part IV — Language I — English

Part V — Language II — Hindi

Answer Key

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper II (Social Studies)