MAK LABS — CTET 8 February 2026 Paper II (Social Studies) Question Paper with Answer Key

1.Students learn efficiently and in meaningful ways when:

(1) new concept is completely different from previously learned material.
(2) their responses and subjective experiences are attended and valued.
(3) content is presented to them in the form of incoherent pieces of information.
(4) focus is on avoiding failure instead of approaching mastery.

Why: Learning is meaningful when the teacher values students’ responses and their own experiences. Disconnected content and fear of failure work against learning.

2.In an inclusive classroom, adaptations should be made in:
(a) Learning goals
(b) Teaching-learning strategies
(c) Provisioning of support
(d) Assessment

(1) (b), (c), (d)
(2) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (d)
(4) (a), (c), (d)

Why: In an inclusive class, the goals, the teaching strategies, the support given and the assessment can all be adapted to meet children’s needs.

3.Assertion (A): Children in middle schools should be encouraged to write about their emotions on a daily/weekly basis and reflect upon them.
Reason (R): Understanding one’s emotions is a cognitive process that can lead to action.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Writing about emotions and reflecting on them helps children understand their feelings. Understanding emotions is a thinking process that can lead to right action. So (R) explains (A).

4.Assertion (A): Teachers should avoid collaborations, group work and interactions among students.
Reason (R): Learning is a passive process and occurs most effectively through memorization and imitation.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Collaboration and group work help learning, so (A) is false. Learning is an active process, not passive memorisation, so (R) is false too.

5.Assertion (A): Diversity and inclusion improve teaching and learning.
Reason (R): Engaging in conversations across differences hinders children’s ability to think critically and creatively.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Diversity and inclusion do improve teaching and learning, so (A) is true. Talking across differences helps critical and creative thinking, so (R) is false.

6.Assertion (A): Children who are struggling with dyslexia have trouble in phonological processing that makes it hard to decode words.
Reason (R): All children benefit from being encouraged in their areas of interest and ability.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Dyslexia does involve difficulty with phonological processing, and it is true that all children benefit from encouragement in their areas of strength. But (R) does not explain (A).

7.Which of the following statements about learning is not correct?

(1) Social interaction hinders learning.
(2) The most meaningful learning occurs within real-world tasks.
(3) Learners construct knowledge that makes sense to them.
(4) New learning depends on current understanding.

Why: Social interaction helps learning; it does not hinder it. So option 1 is the incorrect statement.

8.Two commonly used strategies for effective problem-solving are:

(1) Algorithms and response set
(2) Heuristics and response set
(3) Heuristics and algorithms
(4) Heuristics and functional fixedness

Why: Algorithms (step-by-step methods) and heuristics (rules of thumb) are the two common problem-solving strategies. Response set and functional fixedness are barriers.

9.According to constructivist theorists:

(1) Children learn best when information is presented to them in a final form.
(2) Children have a tendency to behave in unruly ways that needs to be corrected.
(3) Children have a natural tendency to ‘make sense’ of the world.
(4) Children learn only when extrinsically motivated.

Why: Constructivists hold that children actively try to make sense of the world and build their own knowledge.

10.Which of the following are effective teaching strategies to cater to diverse needs of learners in a classroom?
(a) Differentiated Instruction
(b) Standardized Curriculum
(c) Individualized Education Plans

(1) (a), (c)
(2) (a), (b), (c)
(3) (a), (b)
(4) (b), (c)

Why: Differentiated instruction and Individualised Education Plans meet the needs of different learners. A standardised curriculum treats everyone the same.

11.Which of the following is not an effective strategy in problem-solving?

(1) Overlooking relevant information
(2) Breaking down complex problems into simpler parts
(3) Recognizing patterns and relationships
(4) Using logical reasoning to solve problems

Why: Overlooking relevant information leads to wrong solutions. The other three are good problem-solving strategies.

12.A teacher is designing a lesson plan for a group of students with varying levels of understanding of a topic. According to Vygotsky’s theory, which of the following should the teacher consider when designing the lesson?

(1) The teacher should consider each student’s current level of understanding and provide appropriate support to help them to reach the next level.
(2) The teacher should only focus on the students who are already at an advanced level of understanding and provide them with more challenging work.
(3) The teacher should ask each student to work individually on the specified problem.
(4) The teacher should provide all students with the same level of challenge.

Why: Vygotsky’s zone of proximal development asks the teacher to start from each child’s present level and give suitable support (scaffolding) to reach the next level.

13.Characteristics such as ‘lacking reading fluency’, ‘reversion of words’, ‘tendency towards distraction’ are typical identifying characteristics of:

(1) Dementia
(2) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
(3) Dyslexia
(4) Autism Spectrum Disorder

Why: Poor reading fluency and reversing letters or words are typical signs of dyslexia.

14.Students feel more motivated to learn in an environment which ensures:
(a) Belongingness
(b) Fear
(c) Rejection
(d) Safety

(1) (b), (c)
(2) (b), (d)
(3) (a), (b)
(4) (a), (d)

Why: Children are more motivated when they feel they belong and feel safe. Fear and rejection reduce motivation.

15.When learning new information, which of the following is a helpful strategy for children to use to ensure they understand the content material?
(a) Rereading the information once
(b) Asking questions and seeking clarification
(c) Pretending to understand
(d) Making up their own meanings for unfamiliar terms

(1) (c), (d)
(2) (a), (b), (c)
(3) (a), (b)
(4) (a), (c)

Why: Rereading and asking questions to clear doubts help understanding. Pretending to understand and making up meanings do not.

16.Assertion (A): When talking about differences, expressions that put the person ahead of the difference should be used such as using ‘the student with disabilities’ rather than ‘the disabled student’.
Reason (R): The language we use when talking about learners with differing needs shapes the perspective and attitudes.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Person-first language such as ‘the student with disabilities’ is used because the words we use shape attitudes. So (R) explains (A).

17.According to Piaget when children reach the point of being able to generalize and engage in mental trial and error by thinking up hypothesis and testing them in their heads they are in:

(1) Concrete operational stage
(2) Formal operational stage
(3) Sensorimotor stage
(4) Pre-operational stage

Why: Forming hypotheses and testing them mentally is abstract, logical thinking. It belongs to Piaget’s formal operational stage.

18.National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 emphasizes on transforming assessment by:

(1) incorporating self-assessment and peer-assessment
(2) practicing unitary notion of intelligence
(3) devaluing socio-cultural context of students
(4) executing summative form of assessment

Why: NEP 2020 wants assessment to be holistic, including self-assessment and peer assessment.

19.According to Jean Piaget, cognitive development:

(1) is the process of acquiring the ability to use cultural tools.
(2) is the process of adaption to the environment by changing one’s schemas.
(3) is simple addition of new facts and ideas to the existing store of information.
(4) is dependent upon the development of language capabilities.

Why: For Piaget, cognitive development is adaptation to the environment. Children change their schemas through assimilation and accommodation.

20.Following Lev Vygotsky’s ideas, a teacher decided to give hints and cues to the students who were stuck on a given problem and let the students try to solve that problem again. By doing so, teacher is practicing the concept of __________.

(1) Functional Fixedness
(2) Scaffolding
(3) Assimilation
(4) Collective monologue

Why: Giving hints and cues so that a child can solve the problem is scaffolding.

21.As per constructivist approaches of learning, learning is facilitated when:

(1) Pedagogy is teacher-centric and culturally indifferent.
(2) Tasks are incoherent and disorderly.
(3) Activities are interactive and collaborative.
(4) Content is disconnected and eccentric.

Why: Constructivism says learning is helped by interactive and collaborative activities.

22.According to Lawrence Kohlberg around which ethics do very young children’s moral reasoning revolve?

(1) Ethics of perspectives of others
(2) Ethics of laws
(3) Ethics of egocentricism
(4) Ethics of care

Why: Kohlberg found that very young children reason from their own point of view, judging right and wrong by reward and punishment to themselves. This is egocentric reasoning.

23.Which of the following does not come under the category of sensory impairments?

(1) hard of hearing
(2) partial loss of vision
(3) colour blindness
(4) dysgraphia

Why: Dysgraphia is a learning disability affecting writing. It is not a sensory impairment like hearing loss, partial vision loss or colour blindness.

24.Assertion (A): If physical development of children is delayed then their social and emotional development gets affected.
Reason (R): There is developmental continuity in the course of children’s development.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Development in one area affects other areas, and development is continuous. So a delay in physical growth can affect social and emotional development. (R) explains (A).

25.Moving from conservative education towards progressive education requires shift from __________.

(1) performance-oriented goals to mastery-oriented goals
(2) teacher-centered pedagogy to exam-centered pedagogy
(3) formative evaluation to diagnostic evaluation
(4) integrated curriculum to standardized curriculum

Why: Progressive education moves away from performance (marks and ranks) towards mastery (real understanding).

26.Rapid increase in height and weight during adolescence that usually precedes sexual maturity is referred to as:

(1) Menstruation
(2) Pubescence
(3) Growth spurt
(4) Developmental trend

Why: The rapid rise in height and weight in adolescence is called the growth spurt.

27.Assertion (A): Though height and body build are primarily inherited characteristics, good nutrition and exercise also make a difference.
Reason (R): Heredity and environment interact in their effects on development.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Heredity and environment work together. Height is inherited, but nutrition and exercise also affect it. So (R) explains (A).

28.Assertion (A): Male characters in stories and books are often presented as strong and adventurous while female characters are shown as warm and sensitive.
Reason (R): Schools and curriculum influence gender-role identity as they are powerful agents of secondary socialization.
Choose the correct option:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Books and schools are agents of secondary socialisation, so the way they show male and female characters shapes gender roles. (R) explains (A).

29.A teacher should create a classroom culture where students’ motivation to learn is primarily focused to:

(1) understand and appreciate the process of learning.
(2) prove their worth to others.
(3) avoid shame of appearing ignorant.
(4) compete with each other.

Why: Motivation should come from understanding and enjoying learning itself, not from proving one’s worth or avoiding shame.

30.What is the role of peers in the socialization process?

(1) Peers are the primary agents of socialization for children.
(2) Peers have a greater influence on socialization during adolescence than during early childhood.
(3) Peers have no major influence on socialization.
(4) Peers have a minor influence on socialization compared to parents and other adults in all stages of development.

Why: Peers become more important in socialisation during adolescence than in early childhood, when family has the main influence.

31.Which one of the following is NOT a permanent wind? Choose the correct answer:

(1) Westerlies
(2) Easterlies
(3) Trade Winds
(4) Monsoons

Why: Westerlies, easterlies and trade winds blow all year round in the same direction, so they are permanent winds. Monsoons change direction with the season.

32.How much longitudinal extent does one Time Zone of Earth of one Hour each cover?

(1) 15°
(2) 60°
(3) 45°
(4) 30°

Why: The Earth turns 360° in 24 hours, that is 15° in one hour. So each one-hour time zone covers 15° of longitude.

33.Match the following pairs:

Crop	Climate
(a) Coffee	(i) high temperature, heavy rainfall
(b) Jute	(ii) cool climate
(c) Tea	(iii) moderate temperature and rainfall
(d) Wheat	(iv) warm and wet climate

Choices: (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Why: Coffee needs a warm and wet climate, jute needs high temperature and heavy rainfall, tea grows in a cool climate, and wheat needs moderate temperature and rainfall.

34.Water scarcity is caused by the following given factors:
(a) Water Harvesting
(b) Variation in Rainfall
(c) Contamination of water
(d) Over exploitation

(1) (a), (b), (c)
(2) (a), (c), (d)
(3) (b), (c), (d)
(4) (a), (b), (d)

Why: Variation in rainfall, pollution of water and over-use cause water scarcity. Water harvesting is a solution, not a cause.

35.In reference to Panchayati Raj, which of the following sequence is in correct hierarchical order?

(1) Gram Panchayat - Panchayat Samiti - Gram Sabha - Zila Parishad
(2) Gram Sabha - Gram Panchayat - Panchayat Samiti - Zila Parishad
(3) Panchayat Samiti - Gram Panchayat - Gram Sabha - Zila Parishad
(4) Gram Sabha - Panchayat Samiti - Gram Panchayat - Zila Parishad

Why: The Gram Sabha (all adult voters of the village) elects the Gram Panchayat. Above it come the Panchayat Samiti at block level and the Zila Parishad at district level.

36.Why is the globe considered as true model of the Earth? Choose the most appropriate statement:

(1) It is spherical in shape.
(2) It is ball like.
(3) It is fixed.
(4) Countries, continents and oceans are shown in correct size.

Why: A globe is a true model because it is round like the Earth and shows countries, continents and oceans in their correct size and shape. The CBSE key accepts both options 1 and 4.

37.In which year did James Mill publish his three volumes book titled “A History of British India”?

(1) 1817
(2) 1818
(3) 1815
(4) 1816

Why: James Mill published ‘A History of British India’ in three volumes in 1817.

38.Which means of communication has the most important role in making world a large global society?

(1) Satellite communication
(2) Postal services
(3) Mass Media
(4) Messages through Pigeons

Why: The CBSE key credits mass media. Newspapers, radio, television and the internet carry news and ideas across the world and bring people together into a global society.

39.“The progress of any nation is dependent upon the unity of different social and political groups. Political parties should be mindful of this unity during the competitive electoral politics.” Which of the following major development/s within the national movement attest the above mentioned assertion?
(a) During the Rowlatt Satyagraha, the participants tried to ensure that Hindus and Muslims were united in the fight against British rule.
(b) From the late 1930s, the League began viewing the Muslims as a separate “nation” from the Hindus.
(c) The Congress’s rejection of the League’s desire to form a joint Congress - League government in the United Provinces in 1937.

(1) (c) and (a)
(2) (c) only
(3) (a) and (b)
(4) (b) and (c)

Why: The CBSE key credits (a) and (b). The Rowlatt Satyagraha shows Hindus and Muslims united against British rule. The League’s later claim of a separate nation shows what happens when that unity is lost.

40.Celestial bodies in our solar system having their own heat and light are:

(1) Meteoroids
(2) Stars
(3) Planets
(4) Satellites

Why: Stars, like the Sun, have their own heat and light. Planets, satellites and meteoroids do not.

41.‘The farmer in USA works like a businessman’. Justify the statement. Choose the correct reasons:
(a) Use of Tractors, harvesters
(b) Farm size is small
(c) Automated Grain storage
(d) Use of chemical fertilizers

(1) (a), (b), (d)
(2) (a), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c)
(4) (b), (c), (d)

Why: Large farms in the USA use machines like tractors and harvesters, automatic grain storage and chemical fertilisers, and are run like a business. US farms are large, not small.

42.The Satnami movement in Central India was founded by:

(1) Ghasidas
(2) Jyotirao Phule
(3) Haridas Thakur
(4) Shri Narayan Guru

Why: The Satnami movement in central India was started by Ghasidas, who worked among leather workers to improve their social status.

43.Biotic and Abiotic conditions existing on the earth form : (Choose the appropriate category):

(1) Human Made Environment
(2) Human Environment
(3) Natural Environment
(4) Environment Management

Why: Living (biotic) and non-living (abiotic) things that exist on Earth naturally make up the natural environment.

44.Which of the following is not an example of discrimination?

(1) Stopping someone from living in certain nighbourhood
(2) Asking a boy not to cry as boys don’t cry
(3) Preventing a group of people from taking water from a common well
(4) Not allowing a group of people to drink tea in same cups as others

Why: Telling a boy not to cry is a gender stereotype. The other options deny people their rights or treat them unequally, which is discrimination.

45.Sufficient Rainfall on the earth surface is very important for following reasons:
(a) Survival of plants and animals.
(b) Brings fresh water to the Earth’s surface.
(c) It brings droughts.
(d) Most of the ground water comes from rainfall.
Choices:

(1) (b), (c), (d) are correct.
(2) (a), (c), (d) are correct.
(3) (a), (b), (d) are correct.
(4) (a), (b), (c) are correct.

Why: Rainfall keeps plants and animals alive, brings fresh water to the surface and refills ground water. It does not bring drought; lack of rain does.

46.What will be the time at 90° East when it is 12.00 noon at Greenwich Meridian?

(1) 6 PM
(2) 9 PM
(3) 7 PM
(4) 6 AM

Why: Each degree of longitude equals 4 minutes. 90° × 4 = 360 minutes = 6 hours. East of Greenwich is ahead, so the time is 12 noon + 6 hours = 6 PM.

47.‘Rampurva Bull’, a finely polished stone sculpture of Mauryan period has been found from:

(1) Bihar
(2) Jharkhand
(3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Uttar Pradesh

Why: The Rampurva bull capital, a polished Mauryan stone sculpture, was found at Rampurva in Bihar.

48.The first cotton mill in India was set up as a spinning mill in Bombay in the year:

(1) 1854
(2) 1855
(3) 1852
(4) 1853

Why: The first cotton mill in India was set up as a spinning mill in Bombay in 1854.

49.Consider the following Assertion and Reasons to choose the appropriate option:
Assertion: There was a huge demand for Indigo in the European Market in 17th and 18th Centuries.
Reason 1: By the 17th Century, European cloth producers persuaded their governments to relax the ban on indigo import.
Reason 2: By the end of the 17th Century Britain began to industrialise.

(1) Assertion and both the Reasons are correct.
(2) Assertion is wrong, Reasons on their own are right.
(3) Assertion and Reason 1 are correct.
(4) Assertion and Reason 2 are correct.

Why: Demand for indigo was high in Europe, and European cloth makers persuaded their governments to relax the ban on indigo imports. Britain began to industrialise only towards the end of the 18th century, not the 17th, so Reason 2 is wrong.

50.Dispel the misconceptions to arrive at appropriate conclusions with regard to changes in the colonial agrarian policies.
(a) As Diwan, the Company became the chief administrator of the territory under its control.
(b) After 1765 Company had to think of administering the land and organising its revenue resources.
(c) Before 1765, the Company purchased goods in India by importing huge quantities of grain from Britain.
(d) After 1765, the revenue collected in Bengal could finance the purchase of goods for export.

(1) (a), (d) only
(2) (b), (d) only
(3) (a), (b) only
(4) (b), (c) only

Why: [KEY] The CBSE final key credits (a) and (b): as Diwan the Company became the chief financial administrator, and after 1765 it had to organise land and revenue. Statement (c) is wrong, because before 1765 the Company bought goods by importing gold and silver from Britain, not grain. Statement (d) is also in the NCERT textbook (Bengal’s revenue could now finance exports), but the key does not include it. Candidates were marked on option 3.

51.(A): Lithosphere is the solid crust or the hard top layer of the earth.
(R): It is made up of rocks and minerals and covered by a thin layer of soil.
Choose the correct option of the following:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A).

Why: The lithosphere is the hard top layer of the Earth. It is made up of rocks and minerals with a thin layer of soil, which explains why it is solid and hard. So (R) explains (A).

52.Analyze the following historical claims with reference to the relation between Tribes, Nomads and settled communities. Choose the appropriate option.
(a) Varna based society did not interact with the tribal people at all. The rigidity was due to caste system.
(b) There were tribes that rejected both the caste system and orthodox Hinduism.
(c) Some tribes established extensive states with well organised systems of administration.
(d) Political power brought them in conflict with larger Kingdoms.

(1) (c), (d) and (a) are valid.
(2) (d), (a) and (b) are valid.
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are valid.
(4) (b), (c) and (d) are valid.

Why: Some tribes rejected caste and orthodox Hinduism, some set up large, well-run states, and their power brought them into conflict with bigger kingdoms. Statement (a) is wrong because varna-based society did interact with tribes.

53.A river makes waterfalls while flowing in the mountains. Select the two main reasons for the waterfalls:
(a) River moves in between trees.
(b) River flows over very hard rocks.
(c) River moves over soft rocks.
(d) River flows down a steep valley.
Choices:

(1) (a) and (d) are correct.
(2) (b) and (c) are correct.
(3) (a) and (c) are correct.
(4) (b) and (d) are correct.

Why: Waterfalls form where a river flows over very hard rock and drops down a steep valley or slope.

54.The cultural unity and diversity of the present time could be applied to which of the following historical facts related to Hampi?
(a) Hampi temples were the hub of cultural activities.
(b) Devadasis (temple dancers) performed before the deity, royalty, but NOT before the masses.
(c) The Mahanavami festival, known today as Navaratri in the south, was one of the most important festivals celebrated at Hampi.

(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (a) only
(3) (a) and (b)
(4) (b) and (c)

Why: Hampi’s temples were centres of culture, and the Mahanavami festival is still celebrated as Navaratri. Statement (b) is wrong because devadasis also performed before large crowds.

55.Assertion: ‘The process of India becoming a nation was a long drawn one. Emergence of political consciousness and the resulting political associations take time. India did not one day wake up to independence in 1947’. Choose the appropriate evidence as reason.
(a) The consciousness of British control over the resources of India began to be clearly stated by political association formed after 1850.
(b) The political associations worked with the idea that the people should be sovereign.
(c) Poona Sarvajanik Sabha, Madras Mahajan Sabha functioned in specific parts of the country and catered to the specific region, community and class.
(d) The Ilbert Bill controversy deepened the desire for an all India organisation of educated Indians.

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(2) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (b) only
(4) (c) and (d) only

Why: Political associations formed after 1850 spoke about British control over Indian resources, worked for the idea that the people are sovereign, and the Ilbert Bill controversy led to the demand for an all-India body. These show a slow growth of national consciousness. Statement (c) shows regional, not national, bodies.

56.Tamil Epic Manimekalai was composed by:

(1) Kalidas
(2) Madhavi
(3) Ilango
(4) Sattanar

Why: The Tamil epic Manimekalai was composed by Sattanar (Chithalai Chathanar). Ilango composed Silappadikaram.

57.Consider the following statements of Bengal temple - building and choose the appropriate option:
(a) Temples were built to demonstrate piety.
(b) Temples were built to demonstrate power.
(c) Temples began to copy the double-roofed structure of the thatched huts.
(d) Temples began to copy the four-roofed structure of the thatched huts.

(1) Only (c), (d) and (a) are appropriate.
(2) All (a), (b), (c) and (d) are appropriate.
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) are appropriate.
(4) Only (b), (c) and (d) are appropriate.

Why: Bengal temples were built to show both piety and power. Their design copied the double-roofed (dochala) and four-roofed (chauchala) thatched huts. All four statements are correct.

58.In the following, how many have been matched incorrectly?
(a) Kol rebellion – 1831-32
(b) Santhal revolt – 1855
(c) Bastar rebellion – 1920
(d) Warli revolt – 1939

(1) Only three of the above
(2) None of the above
(3) Only one of the above
(4) Only two of the above

Why: The Kol rebellion (1831-32) and Santhal revolt (1855) are correct. The Bastar rebellion was in 1910 and the Warli revolt in 1940, so two are matched incorrectly.

59.Which of the following places in India is known as ‘Little Tibet’?

(1) Arunachal Pradesh
(2) Dharmshala
(3) Bodhgaya
(4) Ladakh

Why: Ladakh is called ‘Little Tibet’ because its land, people and culture are close to Tibet.

60.In the context of Masulipatnam, which had contacts with distant lands for trade, choose the appropriate options:
(a) In the 17th Century, both the Dutch and English East India Companies attempted to control Masulipatnam as it became the most important port on the Andhra Coast.
(b) Dutch were people from distant lands of Denmark and Spain.
(c) The competition between trading groups such as the Golconda nobler, Persian merchants, Telugu Komati Chettis and European traders made the city prosperous.
(d) Mir Jumla, the Mughal governor began to play off the Dutch and the English against each other.

(1) (a), (b), (c) only
(2) (c), (d), (a) only
(3) (a), (b) only
(4) (c), (d) only

Why: Masulipatnam was the main port of the Andhra coast; competition among traders made it rich; and Mir Jumla played the Dutch and English against each other. Statement (b) is wrong because the Dutch came from Holland (the Netherlands).

61.An important element in the Social Science classroom is the acknowledgement of India’s diversity. Which of the following traits should you develop as a Social Science teacher and also consciously inculcate in students so that this diversity is truly appreciated?
(a) Reciting slogans about unity
(b) Being sensitive and respectful while talking about cultures which are different from one’s own
(c) Constantly reflecting on one’s prejudices which might arise from one’s social location in society
Choose the most appropriate option:

(1) Only (a) and (c)
(2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a)
(4) Only (a) and (b)

Why: Respecting other cultures and reflecting on one’s own prejudices help students truly value diversity. Reciting slogans does not.

62.Which of the following will help in developing better teaching learning environment in Social Science classrooms?
(a) Development of reference libraries.
(b) Creation of flexible school timings.
(c) Accessibility to disseminative technologies only.
(d) Development of study material in regional languages.

(1) (a), (c), (d)
(2) (a), (b), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c)
(4) (b), (c), (d)

Why: Reference libraries, flexible school timings and study material in regional languages improve the learning environment. Depending only on one-way technology does not.

63.Below are two statements, read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options:
Statement I: In school, summative assessment has more visibility.
Statement II: Summative assessment checks the learning outcomes at the end of a grade or unit or a term.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both the Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both the Statement I and Statement II are false.

Why: Summative assessment gets more attention in schools, and it checks learning at the end of a unit, term or grade. Both statements are true.

64.Below are two statements, read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options:
Statement I: Fieldwork, project work and group activities should form the basis of teaching- learning in Social Sciences.
Statement II: Projects having direct link with the local community may be encouraged to develop curiosity in Social Sciences teaching-learning.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both the Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both the Statement I and Statement II are false.

Why: Fieldwork, projects and group work should form the base of social science teaching, and community-linked projects build curiosity. Both statements are true.

65.Below are two statements, read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options:
Statement I: Assessment is made continuously in educational settings.
Statement II: Assessment is a process that involves doing a number of things at different times.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both the Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both the Statement I and Statement II are false.

Why: Assessment goes on all the time in schools, and it involves many activities done at different times. Both statements are true.

66.Democracy or equity should be taught:

(1) by covering these as knowledge areas but not by make these as part of classroom process.
(2) by covering these as knowledge areas as well as part of classroom process.
(3) only by covering these as knowledge areas.
(4) only by make these as part of classroom process.

Why: Democracy and equity should be taught as content and also practised in the way the classroom is run.

67.Which of the following actions would not be helpful in addressing the marginalisation of certain community?

(1) Mainstreamization
(2) Protecting cultural diversity
(3) Social movement
(4) Government policy

Why: Forcing a marginalised group into the ‘mainstream’ can erase its identity. Protecting culture, social movements and government policies help such groups.

68.If you want to introduce your students about the difference between the Buddha statues made in Mathura (Mathura style) and Takshashila (Gandhara style), the most appropriate method would be:

(1) Showing a PowerPoint Presentation based on above mentioned styles
(2) Interview with an Architect
(3) Discussion based on the picture given in the textbook
(4) Taking a trip to the National Museum

Why: The CBSE key credits discussion on the textbook pictures. It is easily available to every class and lets students compare the two styles side by side.

69.Below are two statements. Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options:
Statement I: Political Science suggests dynamism that engages with processes that produces structures of domination and their contestations by social forces.
Statement II: Political Science imagines civil society as the sphere where more informed, receptive and responsible citizens could be produced.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Why: Political science studies how structures of power are formed and challenged, and it sees civil society as the place where informed, responsible citizens grow. Both statements are true.

70.Below are two statements, one of them is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options.
Assertion (A): Like other subjects, in Social Science also learners need to be actively engaged in order to construct their own knowledge.
Reason (R): Active engagement refers to engagement of body and mind.

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: In social science too, learners build knowledge through active engagement, which means using both body and mind. So (R) explains (A).

71.Consider the following in-text question “Fill in the blank” given in the chapter on urban administration : In a Municipal Corporation, the elected members are called __________. Which of the following abilities/skills is being tested here?

(1) Explanation
(2) Remembering
(3) Summarizing
(4) Classification

Why: Filling in a single term from the chapter tests recall, that is remembering.

72.Which of the following provisions does not promote social justice?

(1) Equal pay for equal work
(2) Prohibition on human trafficking
(3) Special schemes for girls in government schools
(4) Special police stations

Why: Equal pay, a ban on trafficking and special schemes for girls promote social justice. The CBSE key treats special police stations as a provision that does not.

73.Below are two statements, one of them is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options.
Assertion (A): In India, studying Social Science is associated more with girls than boys.
Reason (R): This type of approach to Social Sciences is indicative of a ‘patriarchal and gender biased’ society.

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: The CBSE key treats both statements as true, with (R) as the explanation. Linking social science with girls reflects a gender-biased view of subjects.

74.Below are two statements, one of them is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options.
Assertion (A): A test is a form of assessment.
Reason (R): It answers the question, either in comparison with others or in comparison with a domain of performance task.

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: A test is a tool of assessment, and it answers questions about a learner either by comparing with others or with a set level of performance. So (R) explains (A).

75.Which of the following methods may be used for improving the national standards of Social Science education to meet the challenges of global competition?
(a) Identifying learning outcomes.
(b) Developing innovative and improved evaluation tools.
(c) Designing centralized, standardized and singular courses.
(d) Developing audio-visual and multimedia based interactive study material.

(1) (a), (c), (d)
(2) (a), (b), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c)
(4) (b), (c), (d)

Why: Clear learning outcomes, better evaluation tools and multimedia material raise standards. Centralised, uniform courses do not.

76.As a teacher of Social Science, which of the following will you be careful about while discussing issues like gender discrimination and caste discrimination?
(a) Encouraging speaking up in the class.
(b) Making students learn to listen to the others.
(c) Non-acceptance of conflicts in the classroom.
(d) Developing an atmosphere of trust in the classroom.

(1) (a), (c), (d)
(2) (a), (b), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c)
(4) (b), (c), (d)

Why: Encouraging students to speak, teaching them to listen and building trust help such discussions. Refusing to accept any conflict in class shuts down honest discussion.

77.‘Boys are into sports whereas girls are into arts and crafts’. What does this statement reflect?

(1) Stereotypes
(2) Difference
(3) Tradition
(4) Prejudices

Why: Saying boys like sports and girls like crafts is a fixed idea about a group. This is a stereotype.

78.It is important to share examples of ‘plurality of people’ in a community in the Social Science textbooks because:

(1) it facilitates in judging the community.
(2) it facilitates in generating portrayals of local community.
(3) it ensures oversimplification of community.
(4) it ensures labelling of community.

Why: Showing many kinds of people in a community helps build true pictures of local communities and avoids labels and over-simplification.

79.Which of the following are examples of intervention in religion by state as laid out in the Indian Constitution?
(a) Abolition of untouchability
(b) Prohibition of child labour
(c) Ban on child marriage
(d) Laying out Vishakha guidelines
Options:

(1) Only (a) and (c)
(2) Only (b) and (d)
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(4) Only (b) and (c)

Why: Abolishing untouchability and banning child marriage are cases where the state steps into religious practices for equality. Child labour and the Vishakha guidelines are not about religion.

80.Which of the following feature of the Indian Constitution does not allow the legislature and the executive to interfere in the work of the judiciary?

(1) Federalism
(2) Separation of powers
(3) Right to freedom
(4) Right against exploitation

Why: Separation of powers keeps the legislature and executive from interfering in the work of the judiciary, so courts stay independent.

81.Below are two statements, one of them is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options.
Assertion (A): Conventional Social Science teaching emphasizes learning about societies and times without reference to the child’s actual lived experiences.
Reason (R): Converting sets of ‘Social Science facts’ into processes of social inquiry has been a major strength of the texts (based on NCF - 2005).

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Why: Old-style social science taught about societies without linking them to children’s lives. NCF 2005 textbooks turned facts into social inquiry to correct this. The CBSE key treats (R) as the explanation of (A).

82.Which of the following purpose Indian Constitution does not serve to?

(1) Coordination among different communities to live together
(2) Give rights to the citizens against individuals and communities
(3) Delineate the ideals a country should uphold
(4) Keep itself static so that the structures in the society remain unchanged

Why: The Constitution is meant to change with society through amendments. Keeping itself static so that society never changes is not one of its purposes.

83.Below are two statements, read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options:
Statement I: It would be easy to promote equity and democracy through a classroom where teachers do not allow children to ask question.
Statement II: It would be difficult to promote equity and democracy through a classroom where varying opinions are encouraged to be voiced and debated.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Why: Stopping children from asking questions makes equity and democracy harder, not easier, so I is false. Encouraging varied opinions makes them easier, not harder, so II is false.

84.Which of the following are institutional sources of debts in rural India?
(a) Moneylenders
(b) Cooperatives
(c) Government Banks
(d) Landlords
Options:

(1) Only (a) and (d)
(2) Only (a), (b) and (d)
(3) Only (a) and (c)
(4) Only (b) and (c)

Why: Cooperatives and government banks are formal (institutional) sources of credit. Moneylenders and landlords are informal sources.

85.While teaching your class about the government’s responsibility of providing healthcare, you decide to conduct a debate between two groups of students on whether the healthcare system in the country is functioning properly or not. Which of the following is not a desirable goal of organizing a classroom debate?

(1) Improving students’ abilities to see an issue from different perspectives.
(2) Teaching students to become competitive and win at any cost.
(3) Enhancing student involvement and participation in class.
(4) Training students to make use of supporting evidence for their claims.

Why: A debate should help students see many sides, take part actively and use evidence. Teaching them to win at any cost is not a desirable goal.

86.Read the following statements and choose the correct option:
Statement (A): The work done by the public works department of the government do not need the approval of the members of the legislative assembly.
Statement (B): People elect the members of the legislative assembly as their representatives.
Options:

(1) Both (A) and (B) are true and (B) is the reason for (A).
(2) Both (A) and (B) are true, but (B) is not the reason for (A).
(3) (A) is true, (B) is false.
(4) (A) is false, (B) is true.

Why: Work done by the public works department does come up in the legislative assembly, where elected members (MLAs) question and approve it. So (A) is false. People do elect MLAs, so (B) is true.

87.Which of the following is true in context of representative democracy in India?

(1) Indirect participation of the representatives
(2) Dual citizenship
(3) People exercising franchise
(4) Direct participation of people

Why: In a representative democracy people use their right to vote to elect representatives. India has single citizenship and indirect participation of the people.

88.Below are two statements, read them carefully and choose the correct answer with the help of given options:
Statement I: Social (Studies) Science became part of the official curriculum in modern India only with the Basic Education programme of Gandhiji.
Statement II: The Secondary Education Commission provided the official recognition to the subject Social (Studies) Science at an all India level.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Why: Social studies entered the official curriculum with Gandhiji’s Basic Education programme, and the Secondary Education Commission gave it all-India recognition. Both are true.

89.Which of the following is/are correct in the context of testing?
(a) It is carried out on skills related to a particular subject.
(b) It is usually done by posing a set of questions in a uniform manner.
(c) It is an unsystematic procedure for measuring the students’ understanding of a particular content or subject.

(1) Only (a) and (b)
(2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a)
(4) Only (c)

Why: A test measures subject-related skills and asks the same questions in the same way to everyone. It is a systematic procedure, so (c) is wrong.

90.Which of the following statements on markets are true?
(a) In weekly markets, things are available in cheaper rates because the shop owners purchase directly from the producers.
(b) Phone and internet shopping have caused losses to the neighbourhood shops.
(c) The goods sold in permanent shops are often costly because the shop owners have to bear the expenditure of rent, electricity, government fees etc.
Options:

(1) Only (a) and (c)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(4) Only (b) and (c)

Why: Weekly markets are cheap because sellers buy directly and have no rent to pay, permanent shops are costlier because of rent and bills, and online shopping hurts neighbourhood shops. All three statements are true.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

91.कौन-सा शब्द समूह से भिन्न है?

(1) ऊँचे - ऊँचे
(2) ऊँचे - नीचे
(3) पतले - पतले
(4) धीरे - धीरे

Why: ऊँचे-ऊँचे, पतले-पतले और धीरे-धीरे में एक ही शब्द दोहराया गया है (पुनरुक्त शब्द)। ‘ऊँचे-नीचे’ में दो विपरीत अर्थ वाले शब्द हैं, इसलिए यह भिन्न है।

92.किन लोगों को ताल पत्तों पर चित्रकारी करने का काम दिया जाता था?

(1) जिनकी चित्रकारी बहुत सुंदर थी।
(2) जिनकी लिखावट बहुत सुंदर थी।
(3) जिन्हें छपाई का काम आता था।
(4) जिन्हें ताल पत्तों की पहचान थी।

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार जो लोग सुंदर चित्रकारी कर सकते थे, वे ताल पत्तों पर चित्र बनाते थे।

93.पपाइरस नाम का पौधा किस काम आता था?

(1) स्याही बनाने के लिए।
(2) वस्त्र बनाने के लिए।
(3) छपाई की मशीन बनाने के लिए।
(4) पतला कागज बनाने के लिए।

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार मिस्र में पपाइरस नाम के पौधे से बहुत पतला कागज बनाया जाता था।

94.सामान्यत: मनुष्य का किताब से परिचय किस अवस्था में होने लगता है?

(1) किशोरावस्था तक आते-आते।
(2) लगभग तीन वर्ष की अवस्था में।
(3) विद्यालयी शिक्षा प्रारंभ होने पर।
(4) जीवन के शुरुआती एक-दो वर्ष के बाद।

Why: गद्यांश की पहली पंक्ति के अनुसार जीवन के शुरुआती एक-दो वर्ष तक किताब की कोई कल्पना नहीं होती, उसके बाद धीरे-धीरे किताबें जीवन में आती हैं।

95.पतले कागजों पर किस लिपि में लिखा जाता था?

(1) रोमन
(2) ब्राह्मी
(3) हाइरोग्लाइफ
(4) देवनागरी

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार पपाइरस के कागजों पर हाइरोग्लाइफ लिपि में हाथ से लिखा जाता था।

96.भिन्न वाक्य की पहचान करें।

(1) समस्त संसार किताबें पढ़ता है।
(2) किताबें मशीन से छपने लगीं।
(3) किताब की कोई कल्पना नहीं होती।
(4) किताब की शुरुआत हुई ताल के पत्तों पर लिखकर उन्हें बाँधने से।

Why: ‘समस्त संसार किताबें पढ़ता है’ वर्तमान काल का वाक्य है। बाकी तीनों वाक्य भूतकाल की बात बताते हैं, इसलिए पहला वाक्य भिन्न है।

97.ताल पत्तों को किताब का स्वरूप देने के लिए कौन-से लोग लिख सकते थे?

(1) जिनकी चित्रकारी बहुत सुंदर थी।
(2) जिनके पास सुंदर ताल पत्र थे।
(3) जिनका हस्तलेखन बहुत सुंदर था।
(4) जिनके विचार बहुत सुंदर थे।

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार ताल पत्तों पर केवल वे ही लोग लिखते थे जिनकी लिखाई (हस्तलेखन) सुंदर होती थी।

98.‘लिख’ में कौन-सा प्रत्यय लगाकर सार्थक शब्द बनाया जा सकता है?

(1) आनी
(2) आहट
(3) आवट
(4) आरी

Why: लिख + आवट = लिखावट। यह सार्थक शब्द है।

99.गद्यांश के अनुसार किताब का सबसे पहला स्वरूप कौन-सा है?

(1) पपाइरस पर मशीन से छपी किताब।
(2) पपाइरस पर हाथ से लिखी किताब।
(3) मशीन से छपी किताब।
(4) ताल के पत्तों पर लिखी किताब।

Why: ताल पत्तों का वर्णन करने के बाद गद्यांश कहता है ‘इससे भी पहले की बात है’ — मिस्र में पपाइरस के कागज पर हाथ से लिखकर किताब बनाई जाती थी। इसलिए सबसे पहला रूप पपाइरस पर हाथ से लिखी किताब है।

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

100.रचनाकार ने बचपन में कौन-सी फसल बोई थी?

(1) धन की
(2) मानवता की
(3) ममता की
(4) समानता की

Why: कवि बताता है कि बचपन में उसने स्वार्थ और लोभवश पैसे बोए थे, यानी धन की फसल।

101.रचनाकार ने धरती माता की संतान किसे कहा है?

(1) समग्र जल राशि को।
(2) समग्र रत्न राशि को।
(3) समस्त मानव जाति को।
(4) समस्त वनस्पति को।

Why: ‘धरती माता कितना देती है अपनी संतान को’ — धरती की संतान समस्त मानव जाति है।

102.‘वसुधा’ का समानार्थी है:

(1) सरिता
(2) धरा
(3) अंबा
(4) समीर

Why: वसुधा का अर्थ है पृथ्वी। इसका समानार्थी शब्द ‘धरा’ है।

103.‘रत्न प्रसविनी’ का क्या अर्थ है?

(1) रत्नों का संरक्षण करना।
(2) रत्नों को जन्म देना।
(3) रत्नों को धारण करना।
(4) रत्नों का क्रय-विक्रय करना।

Why: प्रसविनी का अर्थ है जन्म देने वाली। ‘रत्न प्रसविनी’ यानी रत्नों को जन्म देने वाली।

104.‘हम जैसा बोएँगे वैसा ही पाएँगें’ कविता की इस पंक्ति के भाव वाले मुहावरे का चयन करें:

(1) खून पसीना एक करना।
(2) छाती पर मूँग दलना।
(3) जैसी करनी वैसी भरनी।
(4) गेहूँ के साथ घुन पिसना।

Why: ‘हम जैसा बोएँगे वैसा ही पाएँगे’ का भाव मुहावरे ‘जैसी करनी वैसी भरनी’ में है।

105.रचनाकार स्वयं को किस बात के लिए धिक्कार रहा है?

(1) मानवीय गुणों का आचरण न कर पाने के लिए।
(2) किसी भी तरह की फसल न बो पाने के लिए।
(3) श्रम के महत्व की समझ न बन पाने के लिए।
(4) धरती माँ के महत्व को न समझ पाने के लिए।

Why: ‘नहीं समझ पाया था मैं उसके महत्त्व को’ — कवि धरती माँ के महत्त्व को न समझ पाने के लिए स्वयं को धिक्कारता है।

106.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा विद्यालयी शिक्षा में बहुभाषावाद का उद्देश्य नहीं है?

(1) त्रिभाषा सूत्र के अन्तर्गत मातृभाषा, हिन्दी और अंग्रेजी का अधिगम।
(2) सभी बच्चे अपनी विद्यालयी शिक्षा अपनी मातृभाषा में आरंभ करते हैं और आगे जाकर बहुत सी भाषाएँ (कम से कम दो या अधिक) जोड़ते जाते हैं।
(3) विद्यालय में शिक्षण अधिगम के लिए शिक्षार्थियों की भाषा का प्रयोग करना।
(4) जहाँ तक संभव हो सके भाषा तथा अधिगम के माध्यम के रूप में मातृभाषा का अधिगम।

Why: त्रिभाषा सूत्र एक नीतिगत व्यवस्था है। बहुभाषावाद के उद्देश्य हैं — मातृभाषा से शुरुआत, आगे और भाषाएँ जोड़ना और शिक्षार्थियों की भाषा का शिक्षण में प्रयोग।

107.अधिगम प्रतिफलों के उद्देश्य के संबंध में कौन-सा कथन सही है?
(a) विषयवस्तु केन्द्रित अधिगम की तुलना में दक्षता आधारित अधिगम को समुन्नत करना।
(b) भाषा के रचनात्मक प्रयोगकर्ता होने के लिए आवश्यक भाषा कौशलों में निपुणता प्राप्त करने लिए शिक्षार्थियों को सक्षम बनाना।
(c) विषयवस्तु में निपुणता और बाद में उसे प्रयोग में लाने की योग्यता।
(d) विशिष्ट उद्देश्यों के लिए भाषा का प्रयोग सीखने हेतु शिक्षार्थियों को सक्षम बनाना।

(1) (d) और (c) सही हैं।
(2) (a) और (d) सही हैं।
(3) केवल (c) सही है।
(4) (b) और (c) सही हैं।

Why: अधिगम प्रतिफल विषयवस्तु के बजाय दक्षता आधारित अधिगम को बढ़ाते हैं और विशिष्ट उद्देश्यों के लिए भाषा के प्रयोग में सक्षम बनाते हैं।

108.राजकीय हाईस्कूल की अंग्रेजी भाषा की अध्यापिका श्रीमती उषारानी अपने शिक्षार्थियों को दिन-प्रतिदिन के उद्देश्यों के लिए भाषा प्रयोग और सूत्रों के प्रयोगों के शिक्षण के माध्यम से अंग्रेजी भाषा बोलना सीखने में मदद करती हैं। वह अपने शिक्षार्थियों में किसके विकास की कोशिश कर रही हैं?

(1) संज्ञानात्मक अकादमिक भाषायी निपुणता
(2) बुनियादी अन्त: वैयक्तिक सम्प्रेषण कौशल
(3) सम्प्रेषण कौशल
(4) अन्त: वैयक्तिक कौशल

Why: दिन-प्रतिदिन की बातचीत और प्रचलित वाक्यांशों का प्रयोग बुनियादी अन्त: वैयक्तिक सम्प्रेषण कौशल (BICS) विकसित करता है।

109.कक्षा छह का शिक्षार्थी राहुल व्याकरण के नए नियम सीखते समय अपने पहले से सीखे गए से जुड़ाव बना पाता है। कौन-सी युक्ति इसके अन्तर्गत आएगी?

(1) अधिसंज्ञानात्मक युक्तियाँ
(2) संज्ञानात्मक और अधिसंज्ञानात्मक दोनों प्रकार की युक्तियाँ
(3) खोजबीन संबंधी युक्तियाँ
(4) संज्ञानात्मक युक्तियाँ

Why: नई सीख को पहले से सीखी बातों से जोड़ना संज्ञानात्मक युक्ति है। अधिसंज्ञानात्मक युक्तियाँ अपनी सीख की योजना बनाने और जाँचने से जुड़ी हैं।

110.एक अध्यापक कक्षा सात के शिक्षार्थियों द्वारा की गई गलतियों के विशिष्ट प्रतिमान (पैटर्न) की पहचान करती है और अपने शिक्षार्थियों को इन गलतियों के प्रति जागरूक करने के लिए माह में एक बार इन पर चर्चा करती है। अध्यापिका यह बिलकुल भी ज़ाहिर नहीं करती है कि गलतियाँ किसके द्वारा की गई हैं। वह शिक्षार्थियों को इन गलतियों पर विमर्श करने के लिए भी कहती है। इस प्रकार के अभ्यास को क्या कहेंगे?

(1) पृष्ठपोषण देना (फीडबैक)
(2) त्रुटि विश्लेषण
(3) व्याकरण का अध्ययन और संलग्नता
(4) व्याकरण शिक्षण

Why: सामान्य गलतियाँ इकट्ठा करना, किसी का नाम लिए बिना उन पर चर्चा करना और विमर्श करवाना त्रुटि विश्लेषण पर आधारित पृष्ठपोषण है। CBSE कुंजी विकल्प 1 और 2 दोनों को सही मानती है।

111.विद्यालय आधारित आकलन को समुन्नत करने के लिए दो उपयुक्त कथनों का चयन करें।
(a) यह शिक्षार्थी और अध्यापक दोनों में ही स्वायत्ता को समुन्नत करने में मदद करता है।
(b) यह विद्यालय को अपनी ओर से योजना बनाने के लिए संभावनाएँ जुटाता है।
(c) यह परीक्षा बोर्ड की सत्ता का हनन करता है।
(d) यह आकलन की योजना बनाने की प्रक्रिया में शिक्षार्थी को एक सक्रिय प्रतिभागी के रूप में शामिल नहीं करता है।

(1) (c) और (d)
(2) (d) और (a)
(3) (a) और (b)
(4) (b) और (c)

Why: विद्यालय आधारित आकलन शिक्षार्थी और अध्यापक दोनों को स्वायत्तता देता है और विद्यालय को अपनी योजना बनाने का अवसर देता है।

112.भाषा शिक्षण का कौन-सा उपागम भाषा अधिगम के लिए एक आधार (नींव) के रूप में शब्दों और शब्द समूहों की अनुशंसा करता है?

(1) कोश विषयक उपागम
(2) व्याकरण अनुवाद विधि
(3) कार्य आधारित भाषा अधिगम
(4) सम्प्रेषणात्मक उपागम

Why: कोश विषयक (लेक्सिकल) उपागम शब्दों और शब्द समूहों को भाषा अधिगम का आधार मानता है।

113.कक्षा सात की अध्यापक सात वाक्यों वाली एक संक्षिप्त पाठ्य सामग्री पढ़ती है। तत्पश्चात् वह अपने शिक्षार्थियों को सावधानी पूर्वक सुनने और इसके जैसी अर्थ देने वाली मगर बिलकुल ऐसी नहीं पाठ्य सामग्री पुन: सृजित करने के लिए कहती है। इस युक्ति को क्या कहा जाएगा?

(1) बॉटम अप युक्ति
(2) अनुच्छेद श्रुतलेख
(3) स्कीमा सृजन
(4) शीर्ष अधोगामी (टॉप डाउन)

Why: छोटी पाठ्य सामग्री सुनकर उसे अपने शब्दों में दोबारा रचना अनुच्छेद श्रुतलेख (डिक्टोग्लॉस) का रूप है।

114.व्याकरण अधिगम के संदर्भ में कौन-सा कथन सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त तरीके से ‘प्रक्रियात्मक ज्ञान’ का वर्णन करता है?

(1) व्याकरण के नियमों को जानना और बाद में उनका प्रयोग करना।
(2) यह समझ बनाना कि व्याकरण के नियम व्याकरण की पुस्तक में कैसे कार्य करते हैं।
(3) नियमों को जानना।
(4) व्याकरण नियम क्या है और कैसे प्रयोग करना है, यह जानना।

Why: प्रक्रियात्मक ज्ञान का अर्थ है किसी व्याकरणिक रूप को जानना और उसका प्रयोग कर पाना।

115.वे शब्द जिन्हें हम सुनने और देखने पर पहचानते हैं, किस रूप में जाने जाते हैं?

(1) ग्राह्यशील शब्दावली
(2) शब्द संपदा से संलग्नता (प्रयोग)
(3) कोश विषयक
(4) उत्पादक शब्दावली

Why: सुनने या पढ़ने पर जिन शब्दों को हम पहचान लेते हैं, वे ग्राह्यशील शब्दावली कहलाते हैं।

116.भाषा अर्जन और भाषा अधिगम में सहजात परिकल्पना से क्या तात्पर्य है?

(1) यह इस तथ्य में विश्वास रखती है कि सभी मनुष्य जन्म से ही भाषा ज्ञान रखते हैं।
(2) यह इस तथ्य में विश्वास रखती है कि भाषा आदत निर्माण के रूप में सीखी जाती है।
(3) यह इस विचार बिन्दु को निरस्त करती है कि सभी भाषाओं में व्याकरण है और सभी बच्चे भाषा अपने तरीकों से सीखते हैं।
(4) यह इस तथ्य में विश्वास रखती है कि सभी मनुष्य भाषा शारीरिक ड्रिल और अनुकूलन के माध्यम से सीख सकते हैं।

Why: सहजात परिकल्पना (चॉम्स्की) के अनुसार मनुष्य जन्म से ही भाषा की क्षमता लेकर आता है।

117.‘विषय अभिमुखी भाषा निवेश’ किससे संबंधित है?

(1) वह भाषा निवेश जो सूचनाओं पर बल देता है।
(2) शब्दावली, उच्चारण, व्याकरण आदि।
(3) वह भाषा निवेश जो इस बात पर बल देता है कि भाषा का प्रयोग कैसे किया जाता है।
(4) निवेश और इसकी प्रक्रियाओं की प्रस्तुति।

Why: विषय अभिमुखी भाषा निवेश सूचना यानी संदेश पर बल देता है। रूप अभिमुखी निवेश शब्दावली, उच्चारण और व्याकरण पर बल देता है।

118.कौन-सा शैक्षिक दर्शन निम्नलिखित की अनुशंसा करता है? निर्देश के पूर्व निर्धारित क्रमों के स्थान पर वास्तविक जीवन परिवेश या केस आधारित अधिगम का प्रयोग अधिगम परिवेश के रूप में।

(1) श्रृव्य भाषावाद
(2) संज्ञानवाद
(3) प्राकृतवाद (नेटीविज़म)
(4) रचनावाद

Why: पूर्व निर्धारित क्रम के बजाय वास्तविक परिवेश और केस आधारित अधिगम रचनावाद की विशेषता है।

119.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा संस्थागत लेखन के अन्तर्गत नहीं आएगा?

(1) जीवन वृत्त परिचय (सी.वी.)
(2) समीक्षाएँ
(3) संवेदना (शोक संबंधी) टिप्पणी
(4) व्यापारिक पत्र

Why: जीवन वृत्त, समीक्षाएँ और व्यापारिक पत्र संस्थागत लेखन हैं। शोक संवेदना की टिप्पणी व्यक्तिगत लेखन है।

120.वाणी नामक विद्यार्थी किसी एक पाठ्य सामग्री का सामान्य सा परिचय (ओवर व्यू) जानने के लिए एक आलेख पढ़ती है। उसके इस पठन को किस रूप में जाना जाएगा?

(1) सरसरी तौर पर पठन (स्किमिंग)
(2) समालोचनात्मक पठन
(3) निष्कर्ष निकालना (इंफ्रेन्शियल)
(4) बारीकी से पठन (स्कैनिंग)

Why: किसी पाठ का सामान्य परिचय पाने के लिए जल्दी-जल्दी पढ़ना सरसरी तौर पर पठन (स्किमिंग) है।

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

121.Which one of the following words is opposite in meaning to the word, ‘tasteless’ as used in the passage?

(1) taste
(2) palatable
(3) infinite
(4) seasoned

Why: The passage says non-vegetarian food has to be seasoned to make it palatable (tasty). Palatable is the opposite of tasteless.

122.Read the following statements and state which of the options given below is correct.
(A) Vegetarianism promotes longer and healthier lives and helps to preserve earth’s natural resources.
(B) Vegetarianism has not become very popular because it does not help in prevention or treatment of heart diseases.

(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
(2) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect.
(3) Only (A) is correct.
(4) Only (B) is correct.

Why: The passage says people turn vegetarian to live longer, healthier lives and to save natural resources. It says nothing about heart disease, so only (A) is correct.

123.Vegetarianism is not as popular as it should be because __________.

(1) it is an inward looking habit and is best cultivated in the mind
(2) we want to preserve earth’s natural resources
(3) it promotes natural way of life
(4) it helps the animal kingdom co-exist with man

Why: The passage says vegetarianism has not spread because it is an inward-looking habit best cultivated in the mind.

124.Which one of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word ‘cultivated’?

(1) developed
(2) liked
(3) loved
(4) attracted

Why: A habit ‘cultivated in the mind’ is one that is developed there.

125.Identify the part of speech of the underlined word in the following expression.
This has been central to the Indian Culture.

(1) Pronoun
(2) Conjunction
(3) Adverb
(4) Preposition

Why: ‘This’ stands for the idea in the previous sentence and works as the subject. It is a pronoun.

126.Which of the following is NOT a motive for people to draw to vegetarianism?

(1) They oppose eating animals because of their love for them.
(2) They find vegetarian food cheaper than non-vegetarian food.
(3) They want to live longer, healthier lives.
(4) They want to preserve earth’s natural resources.

Why: The passage names health, less pollution, saving resources and love for animals as motives. Cheapness is not mentioned.

127.Identify the clause of the underlined part of the following sentence.
“A low-fat vegetarian diet is the single most effective way in which we can stop the progression of coronary artery disease.”

(1) Adverb clause
(2) Principal clause
(3) Adjective clause
(4) Noun clause

Why: The clause ‘in which we can stop…’ describes the noun ‘way’. It is an adjective clause.

128.The implicit message that vegetarianism spreads is __________.

(1) natural way of life
(2) universal love and non-violence
(3) healthier lifestyle
(4) reduction in pollution

Why: [KEY] The CBSE final key credits option 1. The passage, however, says “Vegetarianism promotes a natural way of life. But despite its implicit message of universal love and non-violence…”, so the text itself names the implicit message as universal love and non-violence (option 2). Candidates were marked on option 1.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

129.Which one of the following words is most similar in meaning to the phrase ‘liquid getting thick’ as used in the passage?

(1) savage
(2) contained
(3) coagulate
(4) triggered

Why: To coagulate is for a liquid such as blood to become thick. The passage says the blood coagulates when a person is very angry.

130.Harmonious negotiation is needed for __________.

(1) negative emotions
(2) protection of young human race
(3) success in life
(4) self-control

Why: The passage says success in life is largely a matter of harmonious negotiation with other people.

131.Study the following statements:
(A) Lack of self-control makes people grief stricken.
(B) Harmonious negotiation with other people is required for self-control.

(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
(2) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect.
(3) Only (A) is correct.
(4) Only (B) is correct.

Why: Lack of self-control has brought grief to many people, so (A) is correct. The passage says negotiation needs self-control, not the other way round, so (B) is incorrect.

132.Identify the part of speech of the underlined word in the following sentence.
‘.......... and if this kept up for some time,..........’

(1) Conjunction
(2) Adverb
(3) Pronoun
(4) Preposition

Why: ‘For’ links the noun phrase ‘some time’ to the verb ‘kept up’ and shows duration. It is a preposition.

133.What did the young woman who was hearing the complaints do?

(1) She became sad.
(2) She became impatient.
(3) She became very angry.
(4) She kept her cool.

Why: The young woman at the complaint desk kept cool and smiled all the time, even when some women were abusive.

134.Which one of the following words is opposite in meaning to the word ‘pleasure’?

(1) grief
(2) damage
(3) loss
(4) anger

Why: Grief means deep sorrow. It is the opposite of pleasure.

135.What every successful person must have?

(1) Self-control
(2) Good environment
(3) Money
(4) Prestige

Why: The passage says every successful person must have a balance wheel for his or her emotions, that is, self-control.

136.‘All learners in school begin their education in the mother tongue and move on to add many more languages as they move forward in school.’ What is this known as in language-in-education policy?

(1) Mother as base for language education
(2) Mother tongue-based multilingualism
(3) Culture specific language-in-education policy
(4) Three language formula for school education

Why: Beginning in the mother tongue and adding more languages step by step is mother tongue-based multilingualism.

137.What is productive vocabulary?

(1) Words that we fail to recognize.
(2) Words that we may recall sometimes while listening.
(3) Words that we use in writing and speaking.
(4) Words that we recognize as we hear.

Why: Productive vocabulary is the words we can actively use in speaking and writing.

138.The language used in the classroom in the various content areas as the teacher presents and interact with students. What is this language skill known as?

(1) Language register
(2) Cognitive Academic Language Proficiency
(3) Basic Interpersonal Communication Skills
(4) Language for real-life purposes

Why: The academic language of subjects used in class is Cognitive Academic Language Proficiency (CALP).

139.What do ‘form oriented language inputs’ refer to?

(1) Inputs which focus on information
(2) The potential of the input for learning to write
(3) Meaning of the inputs for learning the language
(4) Use of vocabulary, pronunciation and grammar

Why: Form-oriented input deals with the forms of language: vocabulary, pronunciation and grammar.

140.Which type of grammatical knowledge does the following statement mean? Knowledge about the form, describing it and applying it in limited practice.

(1) Procedural knowledge
(2) Declarative knowledge
(3) Competence
(4) Metacognitive knowledge

Why: Knowing about a form and being able to describe it, with only limited practice, is declarative knowledge.

141.What is the following task known as?
A piece of small text is made into two different chunks or every alternate sentence is given to a pair and each learner dictates to the other and the other writes. This process is reversed to make the other person listen and write and they can later work together to finalise the whole text.

(1) Mutual dictation
(2) Grammar dictation
(3) Transcreation
(4) Paragraph dictation

Why: Partners take turns dictating halves of a text to each other and then put it together. This is mutual dictation.

142.What does ‘Pedagogical realization of materials’ mean in language teaching?

(1) Enabling the teacher to understand the pedagogy in her classroom.
(2) To lists the various pedagogical strategies for classroom use.
(3) Embedding activities and tasks to promote language pedagogy.
(4) Embedding the pedagogy into the materials to enable the teacher to adopt the pedagogy.

Why: Pedagogical realisation means building the teaching method into the materials so that the teacher can follow it.

143.Which of the following is ‘assessment for learning’?

(1) Assessment by the state to diagnose the achievement of learners at a particular stage.
(2) Assessment designed to monitor students’ progress at the end of each term.
(3) Assessments designed to monitor and improve students’ progress during the teaching-learning process.
(4) Assessments designed to know students’ progress at the end of the year and for consideration to promote them.

Why: Assessment for learning happens during teaching to monitor and improve students’ progress.

144.Which one of the following statements would you NOT endorse for the teaching-learning of poetry?

(1) Poetry is for pleasure.
(2) Poetry is for teaching grammar.
(3) Poetry is for exercising the imagination of learners.
(4) Poetry is for working with language.

Why: Poetry is for enjoyment, imagination and working with language. Using it mainly to teach grammar is not endorsed.

145.What does the following task involve?
Learners are given a hotel menu and they have to order food for four people for an amount of Rs. 1800/-. One is a vegetarian, and other one is allergic to mushrooms. They have to keep Rs. 70 for auto rickshaw to go back hostel. Learners are speaking about what they will order, their preferences, and keeping the money to get back to the hostel.

(1) Cognitive strategies
(2) Present-Practice-Produce (language)
(3) Higher order thinking skills
(4) Study-Engage-Reflect-Use (language)

Why: Learners study a real menu, engage with the task, reflect on choices and use the language to decide. The CBSE key calls this Study-Engage-Reflect-Use.

146.Which of the following is true of the innateness hypothesis of language acquisition and language learning?

(1) Language faculty present in children makes them conceive language through intense practice and drilling.
(2) Language faculty present in children is responsible for the production and acquisition of language in children.
(3) Efforts of the parents, peers and those near to the child as well as the environment are responsible for language acquisition.
(4) Language is unique only to humans and only human who can speak a language.

Why: The innateness hypothesis says a language faculty present in children is responsible for acquiring and producing language.

147.Which one of the following are bottom-up listening activities?

(1) Rearranging the jumbled words into sentences as one listens.
(2) Recitation of poetry, extempore speech, debate and discussions.
(3) Dictation, cloze listening, use of multiple-choice questions, identifying positive and negative statements.
(4) Summarising, listening to the whole message and applying the background knowledge.

Why: Bottom-up listening builds meaning from sounds, words and sentences. Dictation, cloze listening and multiple-choice tasks are bottom-up activities.

148.‘Learning is a search for meaning. Therefore, learning must start with the issues around which learners are actively trying to make meaning.’ Which educational philosophy advocates the above idea?

(1) Multiple Intelligence
(2) Structuralism
(3) Behaviourism
(4) Constructivism

Why: Learning as a search for meaning that starts from learners’ own questions is the constructivist view.

149.A teacher gives the following assignment to her students of class VIII. What type of writing would this be described as? In pairs, brainstorm, jot down ideas and develop them into a good write-up giving two arguments in favour and two against the topic, Students do not need to have printed books any more.

(1) Discursive writing
(2) Descriptive writing
(3) Personal writing
(4) Expository writing

Why: Discussing arguments for and against a topic is discursive writing.

150.Sandhya reads an article on machine learning to find some information. What is her reading known as?

(1) Skimming
(2) Scanning
(3) Glancing
(4) Reviewing

Why: Reading to find specific information is scanning.

CTET February 2026 — Paper II (Social Studies)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper II (Social Studies)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part III — Social Studies / Social Science

Part IV — Language I — Hindi

Part V — Language II — English

Answer Key

CTET February 2026 — Paper II (Social Studies)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026Paper II (Social Studies)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part III — Social Studies / Social Science

Part IV — Language I — Hindi

Part V — Language II — English

Answer Key

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — February 2026
Paper II (Social Studies)