MAK LABS — CTET 14 December 2024 Paper II (Social Studies) Question Paper with Answer Key

1.Which of these statements would advocates of progressive education agree with?

(1) Children are a distinct life-stage that hold importance because of ‘what they would become as adults’ rather than ‘what they are as children’.
(2) Children are naturally ‘good’ and society corrupts them.
(3) Children are naturally ‘uncivilized’ and socialization is necessary to make them moral human beings.
(4) Children are born in a social, cultural, economic context and this background influences their development.

Why: Progressive educators like Dewey see the child as shaped by his social, cultural and economic setting. Education must start from that context.

2.Changes in emotion, self-perception and interpersonal relationships with families, peers and friends are studied under __________ domain of development.

(1) Psycho-social
(2) Physical
(3) Cognitive
(4) Linguistic

Why: Emotions, self-concept and relationships with others belong to the psycho-social (socio-emotional) domain.

3.The behaviours, interests, attitudes, skills and personality traits that a culture considers appropriate for specific gender are referred to as __________ and are __________.

(1) Gender identity; genetically determined
(2) Gender roles; culturally defined
(3) Gender roles; genetically determined
(4) Gender identity; culturally defined

Why: Behaviour that a culture expects from males or females is called gender roles. These are defined by culture, not by genes.

4.Assertion (A): In an inclusive classroom, all curriculum adaptations should be directed to lower the educational standards for ‘Special children’.
Reason (R): ‘Special children’ do not have any potential for learning in mainstream classroom.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Why: Adaptations give access to learning; they do not lower standards. Every child can learn in a regular class. So both statements are false.

5.As per Jean Piaget’s theory of Cognitive Development:

(1) Previous knowledge doesn’t play any role in the process of learning.
(2) Biological factors such as maturation don’t play any role in cognitive development.
(3) Learning experiences depend on children’s current level of cognitive functioning.
(4) Memorization should be prioritized over learning through experience.

Why: For Piaget, what a child can learn depends on his present stage of thinking. Prior knowledge and maturation both matter.

6.Lev Vygotsky views cognitive development as:

(1) effective adoption to the environment process
(2) a collaborative process
(3) an individual activity
(4) a unified process

Why: Vygotsky saw learning as social. Children develop through interaction with adults and peers.

7.While proposing the relationship between language and thinking process, Lev Vygotsky conceptualized language as a/an:

(1) Independent domain which is not related to cognition.
(2) cultural tool which facilitates cognition in multiple ways.
(3) form of egocentric speech used to only fulfill basic needs.
(4) hinderance to the development of cognitive abilities.

Why: For Vygotsky, language is the most important cultural tool. It shapes and supports thinking.

8.Which of the following is an example of a performance goal orientation?

(1) A student studies hard to further her own growth.
(2) A student studies hard to achieve a deep understanding of a topic.
(3) A student studies hard to get a good grade and be better than others.
(4) A student studies hard to learn as much as possible from the teacher.

Why: A performance goal is about showing ability and doing better than others. The other options are mastery (learning) goals.

9.Following Lev Vygotsky’s ideas, a teacher should:

(1) practice reciprocal teaching with her students.
(2) discourage the use of cultural tools by students.
(3) disseminate the knowledge to be memorized by the students.
(4) encourage students to compete with each other.

Why: Reciprocal teaching is based on dialogue and scaffolding. Teacher and students take turns to lead.

10.Which of the following are effective strategies to teach new concepts?
(i) Presenting examples
(ii) Presenting non-examples
(iii) Promoting thinking about relationships amongst concepts.
(iv) Giving a definition and encouraging students to rote memorize it.

(1) (iii), (iv), (i)
(2) (i), (ii)
(3) (i), (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii)

Why: Examples, non-examples and links between concepts build understanding. Rote learning of a definition does not.

11.In which of the following method teacher and student interchange their roles?

(1) Reciprocal teaching
(2) Conditioned learning
(3) Receptive learning
(4) Expository teaching

Why: In reciprocal teaching, students take turns to act as the teacher and lead the discussion.

12.Fiza analyzes that she has more problems in learning topic X than in learning topic Z because she is interested in topic Z and is paying focused attention to it. Which of the following construct describes Fiza’s abilities to analyze her thinking?

(1) Cognitive conflict
(2) Metacognition
(3) Memory
(4) Cognition

Why: Fiza is thinking about her own learning. Thinking about one’s own thinking is metacognition.

13.Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligence proposes that:

(1) Intelligence can successfully predict academic success.
(2) Intelligences change over time.
(3) Intelligence is primarily inherited.
(4) Intelligence can be measured accurately and predicated precisely.

Why: Gardner held that intelligences are not fixed. They can grow with experience and practice.

14.While there exists a possibility of intra-group individual differences, yet most students with Autism:

(1) perform superior skills of imaginative play.
(2) acquire advanced socio-emotional reciprocity.
(3) demonstrate advanced communication skills.
(4) express strict adherence to routine or steps.

Why: Children with autism usually like fixed routines and repeated patterns. They find social communication difficult.

15.Assertion (A): Creating an environment of fear and stress keeps students ‘on their’ toes and facilitates meaningful learning.
Reason (R): Learning is governed only by extrinsic factors.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Why: Fear and stress block learning, so (A) is false. Learning also depends on internal factors like interest, so (R) is false.

16.An example of ‘class inclusion’:
Assertion (A): Lokesh has trouble with classifying one concept (Delhi) as a subset of another (India).
Reason (R): Understanding how emotions affect memory and learning can lead to self-regulated learning.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Why: Difficulty in placing Delhi inside India shows trouble with class inclusion. (R) is also true but talks about emotions, so it does not explain (A).

17.Which of the following statement aptly describes the purpose of a diagnostic assessment?

(1) To identify the areas where students may need additional support or instruction.
(2) To give students the opportunity to critically assess the work of their peers.
(3) To identify the attitude patterns of students and design a career guidance programme as per their needs.
(4) To provide feedback to the teacher about their teaching methods.

Why: Diagnostic assessment finds the specific areas where a learner is weak, so that help can be given.

18.Ten year old Kakuli is struggling with a difficult math problem. What can her teacher do to enhance her problem-solving skills?

(1) Give severe punishment so that it is not repeated in future
(2) Give her the solution to the problem
(3) Tell her to skip the problem and move on to the next one
(4) Encourage her to keep trying and offer scaffolding when needed

Why: Encouragement with timely support (scaffolding) helps the child solve the problem herself.

19.Jean Piaget perceives __________ to be __________. Lev-Vygotsky believes __________ to be __________.

(1) Private speech, effective in self-regulation; egocentric speech, a sign of cognitive immaturity
(2) Egocentric speech, a sign of cognitive immaturity; private speech, effective in self-regulation
(3) Egocentric speech, effective in self-regulation; private speech, a sign of cognitive immaturity
(4) Private speech, a sign of cognitive immaturity; egocentric speech, effective in self-regulation

Why: Piaget saw egocentric speech as a sign of immature thinking. Vygotsky saw private speech as a tool for self-regulation.

20.Universal design for learning does NOT involve:

(1) Practicing forms of labelling and categorization of learners.
(2) Giving all learners various ways of acquiring information and knowledge.
(3) Providing all learners alternatives for demonstrating what the learners know.
(4) Tapping into all learners’ interests and offering challenges accordingly.

Why: Universal design offers many ways to learn and show learning for all. It does not label or sort learners.

21.Which of the following statements about Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory is correct?

(1) It takes into account effects of culture and gender on moral reasoning.
(2) It does not specify exact stages for progression of moral development in children.
(3) It is based on the study done through experimental methods.
(4) It presents conflicting situations to children.

Why: Kohlberg gave children moral dilemmas (like the Heinz story) with conflicting choices and studied their reasoning.

22.Assertion (A): Each child finds opportunities to play, experiment and discover their world.
Reason (R): Childhood is a universal construct.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Why: Many children do not get chances to play and explore because of poverty or work. Childhood also differs across cultures, so it is not universal. Both are false.

23.Which of the following is an example of a question that promotes analytical thinking?

(1) Who was the leader of Germany during World War II?
(2) In which year did World War II end?
(3) Which countries were directly involved in the World War II?
(4) Which factors contributed to the outbreak of World War II?

Why: Finding the causes of an event needs analysis. The other questions only test recall of facts.

24.While engaging students who are visually challenged, teachers should use __________ which __________.

(1) Frequency modulated transmission devices; are an auditory system.
(2) Braille, is a tactile system.
(3) Braille, is an auditory system.
(4) Frequency modulated transmission devices; are a tactile system.

Why: Braille is read by touch, so it is a tactile system. FM devices help children with hearing loss.

25.You are a teacher who wants to encourage your students to think critically and creatively. Which of the following strategies is most likely to foster this type of thinking?

(1) Lecturing on the topic and providing students with detailed notes.
(2) Assigning a project in which students must memorize and present information on a topic.
(3) Providing students with open-ended questions to come up with their own solutions.
(4) Giving students multiple-choice tests to assess their knowledge.

Why: Open-ended questions have no single answer. Students must think and create their own solutions.

26.Which of the following is an example of assessment for student’s learning?

(1) A rubric given to students at the beginning of a project, outlining what they need to do to achieve a certain grade.
(2) A final exam that covers all the material learned throughout the term.
(3) A quiz and brainstorming at the beginning of class to check for prior knowledge.
(4) A standardized test used to compare students across the country.

Why: Sharing the rubric in advance tells students the criteria and guides their work. This supports learning, so it is assessment for learning.

27.Assertion (A): As compared to boys, girls have an innate tendency to be affected more by social and cultural factors.
Reason (R): Girls are genetically more sensitive and emotionally weaker than boys, making it more likely for them to conform to societal expectations.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Why: Both statements are gender stereotypes. There is no inborn or genetic weakness in girls. So both are false.

28.Assertion (A): 12-year Amana gets scared every time the teacher asks her to answer or solve the maths problem on the blackboard because she fears that the teacher will scold her and she would be embarrassed.
Reason (R): When students feel unsafe and anxious their learning is adversely affected.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Why: Amana feels unsafe and afraid in class. Fear and anxiety harm learning. So (R) explains (A).

29.A teacher wants to enable meaningful and analytical learning in her class by providing opportunities for students to connect their prior knowledge to new concepts. Which of the following teaching strategies would be most effective?

(1) Providing students with a step-by-step guide on how to complete a task related to the new material.
(2) Lecturing on new material and providing students with a list of key terms to memorize.
(3) Assign students to read the textbook chapter and answer questions at the end.
(4) Ask students to share their own experiences related to the new material and then connect them to the topic.

Why: Sharing experiences brings out prior knowledge. Linking it to the new topic makes learning meaningful.

30.In an inclusive classroom the teacher:

(1) Tries to encourage children to do better by promoting competitive spirit.
(2) Identifies ‘deficits’ in children and correctly labels them.
(3) Segregates children based on differing academic capabilities.
(4) Modifies the curriculum and pedagogical strategies to suit varied needs of children.

Why: An inclusive teacher changes the curriculum and methods to suit every child. Labelling and separating children go against inclusion.

31.Which of the following Kingdoms was established by Kadamba Mayurasharman?

(1) Madhya Pradesh
(2) Karnataka
(3) Rajasthan
(4) Gujarat

Why: Mayurasharman founded the Kadamba kingdom in present-day Karnataka.

32.Which of the following statements is/are correct about planets?
(A) They are lit by the light of the stars.
(B) They are made up of only rocks.
(C) All planets have their moons.
Options:

(1) All (A), (B) and (C)
(2) Only (A)
(3) Only (A) and (B)
(4) Only (B) and (C)

Why: Planets shine by reflected light of the Sun (a star). Some are gas giants, and Mercury and Venus have no moons.

33.The most important factor that influences the distribution of temperature on earth is:

(1) Crowded high rise buildings
(2) Insolation or Incoming Solar Radiation
(3) Seasons
(4) Asphalt of roads

Why: The amount of sunlight received (insolation) is the main factor deciding temperature.

34.Consider the following statements on non-Brahman movement and choose the valid option:
(a) The movement came from non-Brahman castes that had acquired access to education.
(b) The movement argued that the Aryans were the indigenous people.
(c) The movement came from non-Brahman castes with wealth and influence.
Options:

(1) Only (b) is valid.
(2) Only (a) and (c) are valid.
(3) Only (b) and (c) are valid.
(4) Only (c) is valid.

Why: The movement was led by non-Brahman castes who had education, wealth and influence. They said Brahmans were Aryan outsiders, so (b) is wrong.

35.Who among the following worked with leather workers in Central India and also started Satnami Movement?

(1) U.B. Phadke
(2) Jyotirao Phule
(3) Ghasidas
(4) Haridas Thakur

Why: Ghasidas worked among leather workers in Central India and started the Satnami movement.

36.What type of winds are Land and Sea breeze?

(1) Permanent winds
(2) Cyclone
(3) Local winds
(4) Seasonal winds

Why: Land and sea breezes blow only in a small area for a short time. They are local winds.

37.While teaching in a Social Science class, a student asks you - ‘how can we measure the distance between longitudes on Equator?’ What answer will be correct for such calculation?

(1) Dividing the double length of Equator with 90.
(2) Dividing the total length of Equator with 180.
(3) Dividing the total length of Equator with 360.
(4) Dividing the half length of Equator with 360.

Why: There are 360 degrees of longitude around the Equator. So the gap between two is the Equator’s length divided by 360 (about 111 km).

38.Which of the following is the correct sequence of rock cycle?

(1) Igneous Rock, Magma, Metamorphic Rock
(2) Sedimentary Rock, Metamorphic Rock, Magma
(3) Igneous Rock, Metamorphic Rock, Sedimentary Rock
(4) Magma, Metamorphic Rock, Sedimentary Rock

Why: Under heat and pressure, sedimentary rock turns metamorphic. When it melts, it becomes magma again.

39.Match the following and choose the appropriate option.

A	B
(a) Punch marked coins	(i) Stamped glazed pottery
(b) Northern Black polished ware	(ii) Tall double handled jars
(c) Amphorae	(iii) Extremely fine pottery
(d) Arretine ware	(iv) Stamped with symbols using dyes

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

Why: NBP ware is extremely fine pottery, amphorae are tall double-handled jars and Arretine ware is stamped glazed pottery.

40.Read the statements (A) and (R) carefully and choose the correct option.
(A): Using resources carefully and giving them time to get renewed is called resource conservation.
(R): Balancing the need to use resources and also conserve them for the future is called sustainable development.
Options:

(1) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(2) Both the statements (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
(3) Both the statements (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A).
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Why: Both are correct NCERT definitions. They define two different terms, so (R) does not explain (A).

41.Which one of the following is incorrect?

(1) The dissatisfaction with British rule intensified in 1870s and 1880s.
(2) The Arms Act was passed in 1878, disallowing Indians from possessing arms.
(3) The Vernacular Press Act was passed in 1880, to support the Government.
(4) In 1883, there was a furore over the attempt by the Government to introduce the Ilbert Bill.

Why: The Vernacular Press Act was passed in 1878 to silence those who criticised the Government.

42.Consider the following statements about grasslands and choose the correct option.
(A) Climate plays an important role in the formation of grasslands.
(B) Annual rainfall is moderate in Prairies while velds could face drought in winter months.
(C) The vegetation cover is sparse in Velds.
(D) Velds lie in the Northern Hemisphere while Prairies in the Southern Hemisphere.
Options:

(1) All (A), (B), (C) and (D) are correct.
(2) Only (A), (B) and (C) are correct.
(3) Only (B), (C) and (D) are correct.
(4) Only (A), (C) and (D) are correct.

Why: Velds are in South Africa (Southern Hemisphere) and Prairies in North America (Northern Hemisphere). So (D) is wrong.

43.According to the Uttaramerur inscription, who could become a member of a Sabha?
(A) The owners of land from which land revenue is collected.
(B) They should be between 25 and 70 years of age.
(C) They should have their own houses.
(D) They should have knowledge of the Vedas.
Options:

(1) Only (A), (C) and (D)
(2) Only (A)
(3) Only (A) and (B)
(4) Only (A) and (D)

Why: Members had to own land, have their own houses, know the Vedas and be between 35 and 70 years. So (B) is wrong.

44._______ refers to a situation where a person does not have resources and opportunities that are available to other persons.

(1) Dispossession
(2) Hierarchy
(3) Diversification
(4) Inequality

Why: Not having the resources and opportunities that others have is inequality.

45.Which of the following are correctly matched?

Agricultural Practices	Description
(A) Subsistence Farming	Practiced to meet the needs of farmer’s own family
(B) Intensive Subsistence Agriculture	Prevalent in the thickly populated areas
(C) Shifting Cultivation	People and animals move from place to place

Choose the correct option.

(1) All (A), (B) and (C)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) (B) and (C)
(4) (A) and (C)

Why: People and animals moving from place to place is nomadic herding. Shifting cultivation moves the farm plot, so (C) is wrong.

46.Read the statements (A) and (R) and choose the appropriate option.
(A): Raja Rammohan Roy founded a reform association known as the Brahmo Sabha in Calcutta.
(R): He felt that changes were necessary in society and unjust practices needed to be done away with.
Options:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Why: Rammohan Roy founded the Brahmo Sabha because he wanted to remove unjust practices from society. (R) explains (A).

47.Match the following and choose the appropriate option.

A	B
(a) Grihapatis	(i) Landless Labourers
(b) Shrenis	(ii) Independent farmers
(c) Adimai	(iii) Coastal Settlement
(d) Arikamedu	(iv) Craft persons

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Why: Grihapatis were independent farmers, shrenis were guilds of crafts persons, adimai were landless labourers and Arikamedu was a coastal settlement.

48.World Environment Day is celebrated every year on which one of the following days?

(1) 5th August
(2) 5th May
(3) 5th June
(4) 5th July

Why: World Environment Day is observed on 5 June every year.

49.Which of the following is true about common property resources?
(A) These are owned by government.
(B) These are owned by private companies.
(C) These are owned by communities.
Options:

(1) Only (A) and (C)
(2) Only (A) and (B)
(3) Only (B)
(4) Only (B) and (C)

Why: Common property resources like grazing land and ponds belong to the community or the government, not to private companies.

50.Maps can be best used for ___________.

(1) Marking places where people have lived at different points in history
(2) Arranging sequence of events in history
(3) Elaborating on the most important events in history
(4) Studying lives of people living in different times in a logical sequence

Why: Maps show locations. In history they best show where people lived at different times. Sequences are shown by timelines.

51.Which of the following statements are true about the development of cotton industries in the late 18th and early 19th century colonised India?
(a) Indian textile industry had to compete with British textiles in the European and American markets.
(b) British market was now available for Indian textiles.
(c) Exporting textile goods to England became increasingly difficult.
(d) Bengal weavers were worst hit as English and European companies stopped buying Indian textile.
Options:

(1) (c) and (d) only
(2) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (b) only

Why: Britain put heavy duties on Indian cloth, so exports to England fell. Indian cloth had to compete with cheap British cloth abroad, and Bengal weavers suffered most.

52.Consider the following statements (A) and (R) and choose the correct option.
(A): The Prairies are also known as the ‘Granaries of the world’.
(R): Scientific methods of cultivation and use of tractors, harvesters and combines has made South Africa a surplus food producer.
Options:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false

Why: The Prairies grow huge amounts of wheat, so (A) is true. Machines made the USA and Canada surplus producers, not South Africa, so (R) is false.

53.Diversity came with something new and different due to __________.

(1) Homogeneous population
(2) Intermixing of cultures
(3) Genetic composition
(4) Similarities and identical traits

Why: When people from different places meet and mix, new ways of life develop. This adds to diversity.

54.Reservation of seats in legislation and in Government jobs was granted by the Indian Constitution to:
(A) Compensate for low grades and marks scored in School and University examinations, because of which people were not able to compete.
(B) Compensate for years of historical suppression and educational deprivation.
(C) Appease people for political support and rally as vote banks.
Options:

(1) Both (B) and (C)
(2) Only (A)
(3) Only (B)
(4) Both (A) and (C)

Why: Reservation corrects long years of discrimination and denial of education to some groups.

55.Read the statements (A) and (R) considering the art forms in colonial India.
Assertion (A): Colonial rule introduced several new art forms, styles and techniques.
Reason (R): These were creatively adapted by Indian artists for local patrons and markets.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Why: Colonial rule brought new art forms like oil painting and photography, and Indian artists adapted them for local buyers. The key treats (R) as explaining (A).

56.Neolithic sites are different than Palaeolithic sites because of the following:
(i) Mortars and pestles were used for grinding grains.
(ii) Pots were used for cooking food.
(iii) Cloth was woven using different kinds of material.
(iv) Use of stone tools began.
Choose the correct option.

(1) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(2) (i) and (ii) only
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(4) (i) and (iv) only

Why: Grinding grain, cooking in pots and weaving cloth began with farming in Neolithic times. Stone tools were used from Palaeolithic times.

57.Read the given Assertion (A) and Reason (R) statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A): By the late 19^th century, the craft of iron smelting declined and in most villages, furnaces fell into disuse.
Reason (R): The iron smelters had to pay a very high tax to the Forest Department that reduced their income.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Why: New forest laws stopped free entry to forests for charcoal, and high taxes cut the smelters’ income. So furnaces fell into disuse.

58.Who among the following are elected members of the Local Governments?
(A) Ward member
(B) Panchayat President
(C) Secretary
(D) Ward Councillor
Options:

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only
(2) (A) and (B) only
(3) (A) and (D) only
(4) (A), (B) and (C) only

Why: Ward members, the Panchayat President and ward councillors are elected. The Secretary is appointed by the government.

59.On which of the following dates Gandhiji asked the Indian people to observe a day of non-violent opposition to the ‘Rowlatt Act’?

(1) 6 December 1919
(2) 6 April 1919
(3) 13 April 1919
(4) 15 December 1919

Why: Gandhiji called for a day of non-violent protest against the Rowlatt Act on 6 April 1919.

60.When it is 1:00 p.m. at Greenwich, what time will it be at 60° West and 60° East respectively?

(1) 9:00 p.m. and 5:00 a.m.
(2) 5:00 p.m. and 9:00 a.m.
(3) 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m.
(4) 5:00 a.m. and 9:00 p.m.

Why: 60° = 4 hours. West is behind Greenwich: 9:00 a.m. East is ahead: 5:00 p.m.

61.Consider the statements (A) and (B) and choose the correct option of the following.
Statement (A): Summative assessment monitors the learner’s progress throughout the teaching-learning process.
Statement (B): Formative assessment is conducted at the end of the course.

(1) (A) is false but (B) is true.
(2) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(4) (A) is true but (B) is false.

Why: The two have been swapped. Formative assessment goes on during teaching; summative comes at the end. Both are false.

62.Which of the following questions promote critical thinking?
(A) What are the different ways through which the Government can take steps to provide healthcare for all? Discuss.
(B) Examine the statement: As compared to Amazon, pollution in river Ganga will affect human life greatly.
(C) Differentiate between the physiography of Brazil and India.
(D) Describe important features of Himalayas.
(E) What was the role of the Zamindar in Mughal administration?
Options:

(1) Only (B), (C), (D) and (E)
(2) Only (A) and (B)
(3) Only (B) and (C)
(4) Only (A), (B), (C) and (D)

Why: Discussing ways and examining a claim need judgement. The others ask students to describe or recall.

63.Select the reason behind the low wages paid for agricultural labourers.

(1) They are satisfied with wages prevailing in the market.
(2) They are not skilled.
(3) They depend on land owners for a regular work.
(4) Most of them do not have their own land.

Why: As per the key, labourers depend on landowners for regular work, so they have to accept low wages.

64.Social Science curricular activities can be made more engaging for students by __________.

(1) reducing critical thinking and discussion in favour of lectures.
(2) incorporating technology and multimedia resources.
(3) focusing only on the most important historical events and figures.
(4) emphasizing memorization of facts and figures.

Why: Videos, maps and digital tools make lessons lively and interesting.

65.Match the following and choose the correct option.

A	B
(A) Narration charts	(i) steps in a process
(B) Relationship charts	(ii) data in the form of table
(C) Flow charts	(iii) historical development
(D) Tabulation charts	(iv) show cause-and-effect relationships

(1) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
(2) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
(3) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
(4) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)

Why: Narration charts tell historical development, relationship charts show cause and effect, flow charts show steps and tabulation charts show data in tables.

66.The Independence of Judiciary implies:

(1) the judiciary can work under the pressure of legislature, if required.
(2) the legislature and the executive cannot interfere in the work of the judiciary.
(3) the judiciary can direct the legislature to frame appropriate laws.
(4) the judiciary can direct the executive to implement the laws properly.

Why: An independent judiciary works free from control of the legislature and the executive.

67.Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the nature of Social Science?
(A) Social Science is a dynamic subject that generates debate and discussion.
(B) In Social Science only individual human relations are considered and not the accounts of individual actions.
(C) Social Science is primarily interdisciplinary subject with a focus on discovery and experimentation.
(D) The scope of Social Science is very narrow and hence it is fit to teach it only at the primary level.
Options:

(1) (A) and (B) only
(2) (A) and (C) only
(3) (C) and (D) only
(4) (A), (B) and (C) only

Why: Social Science is dynamic, open to debate and interdisciplinary. Its scope is wide, so (D) is wrong.

68.Sixty-Percent weightage is given by the teacher to open-ended questions in a Social Science question paper. Which skill does the teacher want to test among students through this strategy?
(A) Writing skills only
(B) Intrapersonal skills
(C) Logical thinking and creative skills
(D) Application and presentation skills
Options:

(1) (B), (C) and (D) only
(2) (A) and (B) only
(3) (C) and (D) only
(4) (A), (B) and (C) only

Why: Open-ended questions test logical and creative thinking, and the ability to apply and present ideas.

69.Which of the following aspect is considered in the Right to Education Act, 2009 as part of evaluation procedures?
(A) Confirm with the values enshrined in the Indian Constitution
(B) Examination should involve mainly summative assessment
(C) Development of the physical abilities of learners to the fullest extent
(D) Examinations are conducted within the school premises
Options:

(1) (A) and (C) only
(2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (A), (C) and (D) only
(4) (A) and (B) only

Why: Section 29 of the RTE Act asks for conformity with constitutional values and full development of physical and mental abilities. It calls for continuous, comprehensive evaluation, not mainly summative tests.

70.Read the statements (A) and (B) and choose the appropriate option.
Statement (A): Contemporary challenges to the principle of a democratic society are conflicts such as those between individual rights and social responsibilities.
Statement (B): Within a social science classroom, conflict resolution approach could be used to engage students to study ‘Problems of democracy’.

(1) (A) is false but (B) is true.
(2) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(4) (A) is true but (B) is false.

Why: Clashes between rights and duties do challenge democracy. Discussing how to resolve them is a good classroom approach.

71.Indian Constitution lays down _________.

(1) norms for participation of people into social movements that seek to challenge the Government
(2) the national curriculum framework
(3) the basic laws or rules that have to be followed by everyone
(4) the structure of religious institutions

Why: The Constitution contains the basic rules that everyone, including the government, must follow.

72.The objective of establishing Panchayati Raj institutions in India was to achieve __________.
(A) Participatory governance
(B) Cultural homogeneity
(C) Democratic decentralization
(D) Religious diversity
Choose the correct option.

(1) (A) and (C)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) (B) and (C)
(4) (C) and (D)

Why: Panchayati Raj takes power down to the village so that people take part in governance.

73.Which of the following topics are highly appropriate for middle level students?
(A) Contribution of Mahatma Gandhi in history.
(B) Economic development of India.
(C) Status of Women in present scenario.
(D) Reasons for population growth.
Options:

(1) (A), (C) and (D) only
(2) (A) and (C) only
(3) (A) and (D) only
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Why: As per the official key, Gandhiji’s contribution and the status of women suit middle-stage learners best.

74.How can a Social Studies teacher develop social values among students?
(i) Developing sense of discipline
(ii) Behaving in the appropriate manner in school/class
(iii) Asking Students to watch commercial movies
(iv) Follow appropriate democratic values in class/school setting
Choose the correct option.

(1) Only (iii) and (iv)
(2) Only (i) and (iii)
(3) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)

Why: Discipline, good conduct and democratic practice in class build social values. Watching commercial movies does not.

75.Which one of the following teaching methods are suitable to overcome the teaching challenges faced in Social Sciences?
(A) From Specific to General
(B) From Complex to General
(C) From Known to Unknown
(D) From Analysis to Synthesis
Choose the correct option.

(1) (A), (B) and (D)
(2) (A), (B) and (C)
(3) (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (A), (C) and (D)

Why: Good teaching moves from specific to general, known to unknown and analysis to synthesis. ‘Complex to general’ is not a maxim.

76.What does it mean to use the dialectic approach to teaching in the Social Science classroom?

(1) Using maps and atlases to enrich students’ understanding of Geography
(2) Using dialogue between student and teacher as the main method of knowledge generation
(3) Using drama in the classroom to generate interest in students
(4) Using examples and analogies to clarify abstract concepts

Why: The dialectic method builds knowledge through dialogue, questions and answers between teacher and students.

77.Which of the following questions asked by the teacher come under the category of exploratory and critical questions?
(A) What is the southernmost part of the Himalayas called?
(B) Is the Sun a star? Why?
(C) Why does more population reside in the Northern plains?
(D) Between which two countries is the Pak Water Treaty located?
Options:

(1) (C) only
(2) (B) and (C)
(3) (B) only
(4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

Why: ‘Why’ questions make students explore reasons. (A) and (D) only test recall.

78.Small workshops and factories prefer to employ casual workers because _________.
(A) state has already taken care of workers’ benefits
(B) they can be fired without any prior notice
(C) most of them are not literate
(D) they could be paid lowest possible wages
Options:

(1) (A) and (C)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) (B) and (D)
(4) (C) and (D)

Why: Casual workers can be removed any time and paid very low wages. That is why employers prefer them.

79.Nelson Mandela spent 28 years of imprisonment along with thousands of black and coloured people.

(1) to raise voice against King and royal monarchy.
(2) for opposing apartheid and struggle against policies of segregation.
(3) to get punishment for offence.
(4) to get powerful positions in Government.

Why: Mandela was jailed for fighting apartheid, the policy of racial segregation in South Africa.

80.Which of the following is an incorrect statement about Gram Sabha?

(1) The Gram Sabha Secretary keeps a record of the Gram Sabha meeting proceedings.
(2) The work of the Gram Panchayat has to be approved by the Gram Sabha.
(3) The Gram Sabha Secretary is an elected person.
(4) The Gram Sabha Secretary is responsible for calling the meeting of Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat.

Why: The Secretary is appointed by the government, not elected.

81.Which of the following emerged as an important religion in modern Adivasi history, during the nineteenth century?

(1) Islam
(2) Buddhism
(3) Christianity
(4) Hinduism

Why: In the nineteenth century, Christian missionaries worked among Adivasis, and Christianity became an important religion in their history.

82.Consider the following statements (A) and (B).
(A) The Government of India Act 1909, allowed for some elected representation system in India.
(B) Through Government of India Act 1909 all adults were given the right to vote.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Neither (A) nor (B) is true
(2) Only (A) is true
(3) Only (B) is true
(4) Both (A) and (B) are true

Why: The 1909 Act brought limited elected representation. Universal adult franchise came only with the Constitution in 1950.

83.Critical thinking is important in Social Science because:
(A) It helps students to pass exam.
(B) It allows students to guess the correct answer
(C) It helps students memorize information more easily
(D) It prepare students for higher-level-thinking
(E) It promotes problem-solving abilities
Choose the correct option:

(1) Only (D) and (E)
(2) Only (A) and (B)
(3) (A), (B) and (C)
(4) Only (A), (B), (C) and (E)

Why: Critical thinking builds higher-level thinking and problem solving. It is not about passing exams, guessing or memorising.

84.Which would be the best teaching pedagogy to understand the trends in poverty in Indian States and Union Territories?

(1) Brainstorming
(2) Field trip
(3) Debate
(4) Secondary data analysis

Why: Trends across all States need data from surveys and reports. Analysing such secondary data is best.

85.Which of the following questions assess the evaluation aspect of cognitive abilities?
(A) Poshan Abhiyan is an important programme to improve the nutrition level of Indian children. Examine the statement with evidences.
(B) Colonial rule in India for two centuries left India with irreversible social change in India. Do you agree with this statement? Explain.
(C) Describe the important features of Jan Dhan Yojana.
(D) Poverty and unemployment in India has declined in the post 1991 India. Justify this statement.
Options:

(1) Only (C) and (D)
(2) Only (A) and (B)
(3) Only (A), (B) and (C)
(4) Only (B), (C) and (D)

Why: Examining with evidence and agreeing or disagreeing need judgement, which is evaluation. Describing features is only recall.

86.The teacher divides the children of her class into 4 groups and gives them to write the names of the sources of water and then discusses the sources of water with each group. Which of the following he/she is attempting first as part of 5E approach to lesson plan?

(1) Engage
(2) Explore
(3) Evaluate
(4) Explain

Why: The first step of the 5E model is Engage. The teacher draws out what children already know to raise interest.

87.A teacher wants students to understand the functioning of governmental bodies like Village Panchayat. Which of the following source of data collection will provide first-hand and authentic information?

(1) Textbook
(2) Newspaper articles
(3) Field trip
(4) Biography

Why: On a field trip, students see the Panchayat at work themselves. This gives first-hand information.

88.A belief that science requires a technical mind and girls and women are not capable of dealing with technical things signifies:

(1) Ignorance
(2) Stereotype
(3) Casteism
(4) Illiteracy

Why: Believing that all girls lack technical ability is a gender stereotype.

89.In a field trip which is the first skill to be developed among students?

(1) Reasoning skill
(2) Analytical skill
(3) Observation skill
(4) Experimentation skill

Why: On a field trip, students first observe. Reasoning and analysis come after observation.

90.Rohit found that some children in his class could not explain the position of latitude and longitude lines on the map. What should Rohit do to help children acquire this competency?

(1) Applied research
(2) Case study
(3) Empirical research
(4) Action research

Why: Action research is done by the teacher to solve a specific problem in his own class.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

91.“संस्कृति पर तरह-तरह के प्रभाव पड़ते हैं” यह बात कैसे समझी जा सकती है?

(1) शिक्षा को पृथक रूप से देखा जाए।
(2) जब शिक्षा को धर्म से जोड़कर देखा जाए।
(3) जब शिक्षा को संस्कृति से अलग करके देखा जाए।
(4) जब शिक्षा को संस्कृति से जोड़कर देखा जाए।

Why: गद्यांश कहता है कि शिक्षा को सांस्कृतिक कर्म के रूप में देखने से यह बात स्पष्ट हो जाती है।

92.इनमें से कौन-सा शब्द समूहों से भिन्न है?

(1) आदान-प्रदान
(2) मौखिक परंपरा
(3) प्रचलित रीति
(4) सांस्कृतिक कर्म

Why: मौखिक परंपरा, प्रचलित रीति और सांस्कृतिक कर्म विशेषण + संज्ञा हैं। आदान-प्रदान विलोम शब्दों का द्वंद्व युग्म है।

93.गद्यांश के अनुसार कौन-सा वाक्य सही है?

(1) संस्कृति हमेशा प्रगतिशील है।
(2) संस्कृति की मुख्य विशेषता उसका एकाकीपन है।
(3) संस्कृति में किसी भी प्रकार का आदान-प्रदान नहीं होता है।
(4) संस्कृति में गतिशीलता का अभाव है।

Why: गद्यांश के अंत में लिखा है कि संस्कृति हमेशा प्रगतिशील और ग्रहणशील है।

94.किस शब्द में “इक” प्रत्यय का प्रयोग हुआ है?

(1) संबंधित
(2) सामाजिक
(3) सृजनात्मक
(4) प्रचलित

Why: समाज + इक = सामाजिक। संबंधित और प्रचलित में ‘इत’ तथा सृजनात्मक में ‘आत्मक’ प्रत्यय है।

95.“कोई भी संस्कृति किसी देशकाल के सापेक्ष होती है।” इस वाक्य से आशय है:

(1) संस्कृति किसी भी तरह से प्रभावित नहीं होती है।
(2) संस्कृति और देश में घनिष्ठ संबंध है।
(3) संस्कृति समय एवं स्थान के अनुसार स्वयं में परिवर्तन लाती है।
(4) संस्कृति देश और काल में अंतर करती है।

Why: देशकाल = स्थान और समय। सापेक्ष होने का अर्थ है उनके अनुसार बदलना।

96.प्रचलित परंपराओं के औचित्य के बारे में सोचने की प्रेरणा कौन देता है?

(1) धर्म
(2) शिक्षा
(3) पुस्तकें
(4) पर्यावरण

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार शिक्षा परंपराओं को जारी रखने से पहले उनके औचित्य पर सोचने की प्रेरणा देती है।

97.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द कारक चिह्न नहीं है?

(1) के लिए
(2) की
(3) तथा
(4) से

Why: ‘के लिए’, ‘की’ और ‘से’ कारक चिह्न (परसर्ग) हैं। ‘तथा’ समुच्चयबोधक अव्यय है।

98.शिक्षा संस्कृति की निर्मात्री है, क्योंकि:

(1) वह परंपराओं को ज्यों का त्यों स्वीकारती है।
(2) वह मौजूदा संस्कृति में कुछ नवीनता लाती है।
(3) वह परंपराओं को रूढ़ रूप देती है।
(4) वह रीति-रिवाज की परिचायक है।

Why: गद्यांश के अनुसार शिक्षा प्रचलित संस्कृति में कुछ नया जोड़ती है और कुछ पुराना घटाती है।

99.शिक्षा को किस प्रकार के कार्य के रूप में देखा गया है?

(1) भौतिक
(2) आर्थिक
(3) राजनैतिक
(4) सांस्कृतिक

Why: गद्यांश की पहली पंक्ति: शिक्षा एक सृजनात्मक सामाजिक एवं सांस्कृतिक कार्य है।

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

100.पद्यांश में “सिंहनाद” शब्द से आशय है -

(1) समवेत स्वर
(2) सिंह की गर्जना
(3) ललकार
(4) युद्ध ध्वनि

Why: यहाँ सिंहनाद का अर्थ वीरों की ललकार है, जिससे धरती अब तक काँप रही है।

101.“कलम, आज उनकी जय बोल” पंक्ति से क्या अभिप्राय है?

(1) लिखने की अपेक्षा बोलकर गुणगान किया जाए।
(2) जय-जयकार के नारे लगाए जाएँ।
(3) देश के लिए समर्पित लोगों के लिए लिखा जाए।
(4) सभी के लिए प्रशंसा के शब्द लिखे जाएँ।

Why: कवि अपनी कलम से कहता है कि देश के लिए बलिदान देने वालों का गुणगान लिखे।

102.भिन्न शब्द समूह की पहचान करें।

(1) पुण्य वेदी
(2) लघु दीप
(3) लाल शिखाएँ
(4) जला अस्थियाँ

Why: पुण्य वेदी, लघु दीप, लाल शिखाएँ विशेषण + संज्ञा हैं। ‘जला अस्थियाँ’ में क्रिया + संज्ञा है।

103.इस पद्यांश में कौन-सी भावना अभिव्यक्त हुई है?

(1) पाखंड विरोध
(2) देशप्रेम
(3) समाज सुधार
(4) प्रकृति प्रेम

Why: पद्यांश में देश के लिए प्राण देने वाले शहीदों का गुणगान है। अतः देशप्रेम की भावना है।

104.“छिटकाई जिनने चिनगारी,” पंक्ति में रेखांकित शब्द किसके लिए प्रयुक्त हुआ है?

(1) स्वतंत्रता सेनानी
(2) राजनीतिज्ञ
(3) अध्यापक
(4) सामाजिक कार्यकर्ता

Why: ‘जिनने’ उन वीरों के लिए है जिन्होंने अपनी अस्थियाँ जलाकर आज़ादी की चिनगारी फैलाई - अर्थात् स्वतंत्रता सेनानी।

105.“निस्वार्थ भाव से अपने प्राणों का बलिदान कर दिया”
यह भाव किस पंक्ति में मुखरित हुआ है?

(1) कलम, आज उनकी जय बोल।
(2) किसी दिन माँगा नहीं स्नेह मुँह खोल।
(3) सहमी धरती रही अभी तक डोल।
(4) जो चढ़ गए पुण्य वेदी पर लिए बिना गरदन का मोल।

Why: बिना मोल लिए पुण्य वेदी पर चढ़ जाना, अर्थात् बदले में कुछ चाहे बिना प्राण दे देना।

106.“सामग्री की प्रामाणिकता” किससे संबंधित है?

(1) वह सामग्री जो बच्चे घर से लेकर आते हैं
(2) अध्यापक द्वारा अपनी कक्षा के लिए लिखी गई सामग्री
(3) सत्तासीन लोगों द्वारा विकसित या लिखित सामग्री
(4) जीवन के वास्तविक संदर्भों में विकसित या लिखित सामग्री

Why: प्रामाणिक सामग्री वास्तविक जीवन की सामग्री है, जैसे अख़बार, पोस्टर, मेन्यू। यह केवल पढ़ाने के लिए नहीं बनाई जाती।

107.अपर्णा, कक्षा पाँच की शिक्षार्थी यह समझती है कि किसी आडियो या बातचीत का अर्थ समझने के लिए श्रवण में प्रत्येक ध्वनि, शब्दों फिर वाक्यों को सुनना शामिल है। वह श्रवण अधिगम के किस उपागम/युक्ति में विश्वास रखती है?

(1) यह न तो टॉप डाउन है और न ही बॉटम-अप उपागम है
(2) शीर्ष अधोमुखी उपागम (टॉप डाउन)
(3) अधो शीर्षमुखी उपागम (बॉटम-अप)
(4) टॉप डाउन और बॉटम-अप दोनों उपागम

Why: ध्वनि से शब्द और शब्द से वाक्य की ओर बढ़कर अर्थ बनाना अधो शीर्षमुखी (बॉटम-अप) उपागम है।

108.भाषा अधिगम में “सर्वांगी (सिस्टमिक) दक्षता” क्या है?

(1) इस बात की समझ कि सभी मनुष्यों के पास बहुत सी भाषाओं की व्यवस्थाएँ हैं।
(2) इस बात को समझना और प्रयोग में लाना कि भाषा एक व्यवस्था के रूप में कार्य करती है।
(3) इस बात को समझना और प्रयोग में लाना कि भाषाओं की एक व्याकरणिक व्यवस्था है।
(4) इस बात को समझना कि सभी भाषाओं की एक सामान्य संरचनात्मक व्यवस्था है।

Why: भाषा को एक पूरी व्यवस्था के रूप में समझना और प्रयोग करना सर्वांगी दक्षता है।

109.यहाँ एक पाठ्य सामग्री या कुछ कथन हैं। पता लगाइए कि यह पाठ्य सामग्री किस भाषा प्रयुक्ति (रजिस्टर) का प्रतिनिधित्व कर रही है?
“भारत का संविधान प्रत्येक व्यक्ति को समान रूप से देखता है। इसका तात्पर्य यह हुआ कि देश में प्रत्येक व्यक्ति, महिला और पुरुष, सभी धर्मों, जातियों, आदिवासी, शैक्षिक और आर्थिक पृष्ठभूमि के, सभी को समान रूप से देखना। इसका तात्पर्य यह नहीं है कि असमानता समाप्त हो चुकी है। असमानता नहीं होनी चाहिए। कम से कम लोकतांत्रिक भारत में सभी व्यक्तियों की समानता का सिद्धान्त मायने रखता है।”

(1) वैज्ञानिक प्रयुक्ति
(2) राजनीतिक प्रयुक्ति
(3) सामाजिक विज्ञान प्रयुक्ति
(4) कानूनी प्रयुक्ति

Why: यह अंश नागरिकशास्त्र की पाठ्यपुस्तक की शैली में समानता को समझाता है। अतः यह सामाजिक विज्ञान प्रयुक्ति है।

110.कक्षा छह की अध्यापक आज पढ़ी जाने वाली भाषा सामग्री को शिक्षार्थियों के पूर्व ज्ञान और अनुभव से जोड़ने के लिए “वार्म अप” गतिविधि करवाती है। पाठ्य सामग्री पढ़ाना शुरू करने से पहले शिक्षार्थियों को पाठ्य सामग्री (कहानी) के चित्र देखने के लिए कहती है। वह अपने शिक्षार्थियों से क्या करवाना चाहती है?

(1) चित्रों को समझने की क्षमता विकसित करना
(2) चित्रों के माध्यम से कहानी की मन में कल्पना कर पाना
(3) चित्रों की सराहना करना
(4) पाठ्य सामग्री के बारे में अनुमान लगाना

Why: पढ़ने से पहले चित्र देखकर बच्चे अनुमान लगाते हैं कि कहानी किस बारे में होगी।

111.शिक्षार्थियों द्वारा हुए अधिगम के उदाहरणों का सतत रूप रखा गया रिकार्ड क्या कहलाएगा?

(1) निदानात्मक परीक्षण
(2) पोर्टफोलियो
(3) सतत सारगर्भित आकलन
(4) निपुणता आकलन

Why: पोर्टफोलियो में बच्चे के कार्यों के नमूने लगातार रखे जाते हैं। इससे उसकी प्रगति दिखती है।

112.निम्नलिखित में से किन्हें ग्रहणशील (रिसेप्टिव) कौशलों के रूप में जाना जाएगा?

(1) श्रवण और पठन
(2) श्रवण और लेखन
(3) पठन और बोलना
(4) बोलना और लेखन

Why: सुनने और पढ़ने में हम भाषा ग्रहण करते हैं। बोलना और लिखना उत्पादक कौशल हैं।

113.बहुत से भारतीय जो नौकरी के लिए विदेश जाते हैं, वे उस स्थान की भाषा सीखते हैं। इस प्रेरणा को क्या कहा जाएगा?

(1) यह न तो यांत्रिक है और न ही समाकलनात्मक है
(2) समाकलनात्मक और यान्त्रिक दोनों प्रकार की प्रेरणा
(3) समाकलनात्मक प्रेरणा
(4) यांत्रिक प्रेरणा

Why: नौकरी जैसे व्यावहारिक लाभ के लिए भाषा सीखना यांत्रिक (इंस्ट्रुमेंटल) प्रेरणा है।

114.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी शास्त्रीय भाषा नहीं है?

(1) हिंदी
(2) तमिल
(3) संस्कृत
(4) तेलुगू

Why: तमिल, संस्कृत और तेलुगू को शास्त्रीय भाषा का दर्जा मिला है। हिंदी को नहीं।

115.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा विदेशी भाषाओं के अध्ययन के संबंध में राष्ट्रीय शिक्षा नीति 2020 के परिप्रेक्ष्य में सही नहीं है?

(1) फ्रैंच को एक अतिरिक्त विकल्प के रूप में अनुशंसित किया गया है।
(2) माध्यमिक चरण के दौरान एक अतिरिक्त विकल्प के रूप में विदेशी भाषाओं का अध्ययन।
(3) त्रिभाषा सूत्र के अन्तर्गत भाषाओं में से एक के रूप में विदेशी भाषाओं का अध्ययन।
(4) विदेशी भाषा को त्रिभाषा सूत्र के अन्तर्गत अध्ययन की जा रही तीन भाषाओं में शामिल नहीं किया गया है।

Why: NEP 2020 में विदेशी भाषाएँ माध्यमिक स्तर पर अतिरिक्त विकल्प हैं। वे त्रिभाषा सूत्र का भाग नहीं हैं।

116.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा “भाषा के बारे में जानना” से संबंधित है?

(1) युक्तिपरक दक्षता
(2) घोषणात्मक ज्ञान
(3) प्रक्रियात्मक ज्ञान
(4) व्याकरणपरक ज्ञान

Why: भाषा के नियमों और तथ्यों को जानना घोषणात्मक ज्ञान है। उसे प्रयोग करना जानना प्रक्रियात्मक ज्ञान है।

117.कक्षा छह की अध्यापिका बोलने से संबंधित किसी गतिविधि के लिए निम्नलिखित कार्य तैयार करती है -
“रेगिस्तान और उसकी जलवायु स्थिति के बारे में कोई पाँच वाक्य बोलिए।”
क्या यह एक अच्छा या अच्छा कार्य नहीं है? अपने उत्तर और उत्तर के कारण का चयन करें।

(1) यह एक अच्छा कार्य नहीं है क्योंकि इसमें संदर्भ की कमी है क्योंकि उन्हें रेगिस्तान और उसकी स्थितियों के बारे में कुछ नहीं बताया गया है।
(2) यह एक अच्छा कार्य है क्योंकि शिक्षार्थियों ने भूगोल की किताब में रेगिस्तान के बारे में पढ़ा होगा, इसलिए उनके पास बोलने के लिए सामग्री है।
(3) यह एक अच्छा कार्य है, क्योंकि यह शिक्षार्थी को कुछ बोलने के लिए तैयार करता है, यह रेगिस्तान है।
(4) यह अच्छा कार्य नहीं है क्योंकि कुछ शिक्षार्थी रेगिस्तान के बारे में नहीं जानते होंगे।

Why: बोलने के कार्य के लिए संदर्भ और सामग्री (इनपुट) ज़रूरी है। इसके बिना बच्चों के पास बोलने को कुछ नहीं होता।

118.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन भाषा की बोली के बारे में सही है?

(1) कभी-कभी विभिन्न सामाजिक समूहों के लोग एक भाषा की विभिन्न बोलियाँ बोलते हैं।
(2) भाषा की बोलियाँ एक क्षेत्र से दूसरे क्षेत्र में भिन्न-भिन्न होती हैं।
(3) एक भाषा की विभिन्न बोलियाँ बोलने वाले दूसरी बोली बोलने वाले की बात समझ पाते है।
(4) बोली एक बड़ी श्रेणी है और भाषा तुलनात्मक रूप से छोटी श्रेणी में आती है।

Why: [KEY] CBSE ने इस प्रश्न के सभी विकल्पों पर अंक दिए (कुंजी: Z = सभी)। कथन 1, 2 और 3 तीनों बोली के बारे में सही हैं। केवल कथन 4 गलत है, क्योंकि भाषा बड़ी श्रेणी है।

119.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कार्य समेकित अधिगम कौशलों को समुन्नत करता है?

(1) कोई एक आलेख (आर्टिकल) लिखना
(2) रोल प्ले
(3) प्रदत्त कार्य
(4) परियोजना कार्य

Why: परियोजना कार्य में पढ़ना, लिखना, सुनना और बोलना सभी कौशल साथ-साथ प्रयोग होते हैं।

120.निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी युक्ति “संदर्भ में व्याकरण शिक्षण” से संबंधित है?
संदर्भ में भाषा की सामग्री प्रस्तुत करना, शिक्षार्थियों का ध्यान भाषा की सामग्री की ओर दिलाना, जीवन की वास्तविक परिस्थितियों में भाषा प्रयोग के योग्य बनाना और शिक्षार्थियों का ध्यान खोज-बीन के द्वारा उसके नियमों की ओर दिलाना।

(1) सचेतनता जागृत करना
(2) स्कीमा का सृजन
(3) निगमनात्मक विधि
(4) खोज-बीन विधि

Why: संदर्भ में व्याकरण पर बच्चों का ध्यान दिलाकर उसके नियम खोजने देना सचेतनता जागृत करना (कॉन्शियसनेस रेज़िंग) है।

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

121.Read the following statements:
(A) Netarhat is located at a height of 3696 feet.
(B) It is referred to as the ‘Queen of Chota Nagpur’.
(C) Netarhat is blessed with verdant banyan forests.

(1) (A), (B) and (C) are all correct
(2) (A) and (C) are correct, (B) is incorrect
(3) (B) and (C) are correct, (A) is incorrect
(4) (A) and (B) are correct, (C) is incorrect

Why: The passage gives the height 3696 feet and the name ‘Queen of Chota Nagpur’. It speaks of pine forests, not banyan forests.

122.The underlined word in the phrase ‘this quaint hill station brings solace ....’ implies:

(1) it brings peace and comfort
(2) it makes you breathless
(3) it makes you visit the place year after year
(4) it evokes curiosity

Why: Solace means comfort and peace of mind.

123.As mentioned in para 1, the quaint hill station, Netarhat gives peace and calm to visitors because:

(1) they can go paragliding from hill tops
(2) they can be away from hectic city life
(3) they can go fishing in the lake waters
(4) they can enjoy train rides

Why: Para 1 says Netarhat gives refuge from the hustle and bustle of cities.

124.Complete the given word analogy:
gorgeous : beautiful :: tranquil : ?

(1) blue-green
(2) misty
(3) peaceful
(4) choppy

Why: Gorgeous and beautiful are synonyms. Tranquil means peaceful.

125.The Sunrise Point offers visitors a breathtaking view of:

(1) the sunrise
(2) an oil painting
(3) lush vegetation
(4) Both (1) and (3)

Why: Sunrise Point gives a spectacular view of the sunrise. The oil painting is only a comparison.

126.Identify the parts of speech of the underlined words in the given sentence:
‘Fabulous sunrises and stunning sunsets leave the visitors awestruck.’

(1) verb, adjective
(2) noun, adjective
(3) verb, adverb
(4) noun, adverb

Why: ‘Sunrises’ names things, so it is a noun. ‘Awestruck’ describes the visitors, so it is an adjective.

127.Which one of the following scenic views is not found in Netarhat?

(1) scintillating views of sunrises
(2) refugee camps
(3) beautiful sunrises and sunsets
(4) clusters of tall pine trees

Why: The passage says Netarhat gives ‘refuge’ from city life. It does not mention refugee camps.

128.The phrase ‘hustle and bustle of cities’ implies:

(1) busy and noisy cities
(2) beauty and eye catching views of cities
(3) stunning sights and scenes of cities
(4) peace and calm of cities

Why: ‘Hustle and bustle’ means busy, noisy activity.

Source text not reproduced. This question and the ones that follow it are based on an extract that is still in copyright, so it is not reprinted here. Read it in the official question paper, then use the questions below.

129.Identify the parts of speech of the underlined words in the given sentence:
‘He was wild and a little dangerous, subject to moods and impulses’.

(1) adjective, noun
(2) adverb, adjective
(3) adjective, adjective
(4) adverb, noun

Why: Both ‘wild’ and ‘dangerous’ describe Anil (he). So both are adjectives.

130.Who among the three friends proposed the idea of meeting at the pool ten years hence?

(1) Somi and Rusty
(2) Anil
(3) Somi
(4) Rusty

Why: The passage begins: ‘It was Somi’s idea that we meet at the pool in ten years time.’

131.Which one of the following options does not describe the pool in the stream?

(1) water trickling among fern and grasses
(2) rough rocks on the bed
(3) trickling waterfall down the rocks
(4) apple-green colour of the water

Why: The passage says the rocks beside the stream were smooth, not rough.

132.Which word can be the nearest synonym for the word ‘instinct’?

(1) hatred
(2) affinity
(3) premonition
(4) inclination

Why: Instinct here means a natural tendency or inclination.

133.What brought the three boys together?

(1) their spirit of adventure
(2) their swimming talents
(3) their earnest attitudes
(4) their childhood mischiefs

Why: The passage says Somi, like Anil, had a sense of fun and an instinct for adventure.

134.‘. . . . . a pledge made in deadly earnest’ implies:

(1) a promise not to be kept
(2) being suspicious about someone’s intention
(3) to wish for the death of someone
(4) a promise in complete seriousness

Why: ‘In deadly earnest’ means with complete seriousness.

135.Complete the word analogy given below:
crowded : deserted :: vigour : ?

(1) lethargy
(2) heaviness
(3) strength
(4) weakness

Why: Crowded and deserted are opposites. The opposite of vigour (energy) is lethargy.

136.Ashwin knows Odia from his birth and he studies English and Hindi. Based on this statement, find which of the following statement is NOT true?

(1) His English learning is language acquisition.
(2) His Odia learning is language acquisition.
(3) His Hindi learning is language learning.
(4) His English learning is language learning.

Why: Odia is picked up naturally from birth (acquisition). English and Hindi are studied, so they are language learning. Statement (1) is wrong.

137.Instrumental motivation is when:

(1) a person learns the language for writing a book.
(2) a person learns the language for utilitarian reason like employment.
(3) a person learns the language for being closer to the native speakers of the language.
(4) a person learns the language for their communities religious and social functions.

Why: Instrumental motivation is learning for a practical benefit like a job. Wanting to join the native speakers’ community is integrative motivation.

138.Kripa and Karan are twins and speak a particular dialect of Manipuri. However they differ in their speech. What is their individual special way of speaking the dialect known as?

(1) Manipuri
(2) Idiolect
(3) Dialect
(4) Speech act

Why: Each person’s own way of speaking is called an idiolect.

139.What is the status given to the English language in the Indian Constitution?

(1) Language of statutory bodies
(2) Official language
(3) Associate Official language
(4) Foreign language

Why: Hindi is the official language of the Union. English continues as the associate (additional) official language.

140.A test which aims to identify an individual student’s specific areas of weakness and strength is known as:

(1) Formative test
(2) Objective test
(3) Validity test
(4) Diagnostic test

Why: A diagnostic test finds the exact strong and weak areas of a learner.

141.Aditi knows the rules of past perfect tense. But can’t use in a context. What knowledge does she possess?

(1) Application of knowledge
(2) Language acquisition device
(3) Procedural knowledge
(4) Declarative knowledge

Why: She knows the rules but cannot use them. Knowing about rules is declarative knowledge.

142.Which of the following is NOT true of language?

(1) Some languages can only convey science and engineering better
(2) Language expresses identity
(3) Language is a repository of history
(4) Language contributes to the sum of human knowledge

Why: Every language can express any subject, including science. No language is better for science by nature.

143.What are the stages involved in designing and doing a Project Work in language classroom?

(1) Teacher and learners can design and do the project work any way they want to.
(2) Forming groups, planning, collection of data, interpretation of data, writing the draft, identifying the topic, and finalization of the report.
(3) Forming groups, identifying the topic, planning, collection of data, interpretation of data, writing the draft and finalization of the report.
(4) Forming groups, identifying the topic, planning, collection of data, writing the draft, interpretation of data, and finalization of the report.

Why: The topic is chosen before planning, and data is interpreted before the draft is written. Only option (3) has this order.

144.Top-down approach to listening involves:

(1) Listening to each sound, words, phrases, clauses and sentences.
(2) Paying attention to the specific details.
(3) Listening to the gist of the speech, text or the audio.
(4) Listening to overall message of the text, speech or the audio.

Why: In top-down listening, the listener uses background knowledge to grasp the overall message. Sound-by-sound listening is bottom-up.

145.A teacher of Class VII wanted to give a writing task of writing a description of a person. She went out of the classroom and brought a Hawker to her classroom with his basket. She requested him to be there for about seven minutes and then asked her learners to work in pair and write a description of the person.
What do you think the hawker in this activity known as?

(1) Materials
(2) Teaching Assistant
(3) A Hawker
(4) A participant in the activity

Why: The hawker is used as real-life input for the writing task. So he serves as teaching material.

146.A teacher of class VII wants her learners to read the short text with an understanding of power and identity of the people and community presented in the text. What does the teacher aim to promote among learners?

(1) Literary skills
(2) Language literacy
(3) Critical literacy
(4) Analytical reading

Why: Reading a text to see how power and identity are shown is critical literacy.

147.Which of the following is TRUE of the study of classical language as advocated by National Education Policy (NEP) 2020?

(1) Study of classical language as a core language at the secondary stage.
(2) Study of classical language as an additional option during secondary stage.
(3) Study of classical language as an option under three language formula.
(4) Study of classical language during the preparatory stage.

Why: As per the key, NEP 2020 offers classical languages as an option for students to study at the secondary stage, beyond the core languages.

148.Here is a text. Read and find out which language register does the text belong to?
Suddenly, after the revolution, it seemed possible to change this. In many parts of the world including Europe and Asia, new ideas about individual rights and who controlled social power began to be discussed. In India, Raja Rammohan Roy and Derozio talked of the significance of the French Revolution. The developments in the colonies, in turn, reshaped these ideas of societal change.

(1) Revolution register
(2) Science register
(3) Political register
(4) Social Science register

Why: The text is from a history textbook. Its style and words belong to the social science register.

149.Subash, a teacher of class VIII regrets, “Language assessment generally does not give importance to receptive skills.” What does he mean by ‘receptive skills’?

(1) Speaking and writing
(2) Listening and writing
(3) Speaking and reading
(4) Listening and reading

Why: Listening and reading are receptive skills, because we receive language through them.

150.Learner understands and applies that language works as a system.

(1) Strategic competence
(2) Communicative competence
(3) Systemic competence
(4) Sociolinguistic competence

Why: Understanding and using language as a system is systemic competence.

CTET December 2024 — Paper II (Social Studies)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — December 2024
Paper II (Social Studies)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part III — Social Studies / Social Science

Part IV — Language I — Hindi

Part V — Language II — English

Answer Key

CTET December 2024 — Paper II (Social Studies)

Choose your language papers

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — December 2024Paper II (Social Studies)

Part I — Child Development and Pedagogy

Part III — Social Studies / Social Science

Part IV — Language I — Hindi

Part V — Language II — English

Answer Key

Central Teacher Eligibility Test — December 2024
Paper II (Social Studies)